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Rapid Review > Classic/Relevant Treatments > Flashcards

Classic/Relevant Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Absence Seizures

A

Ethosuximide

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2
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs
Colchicine
Glucocorticoids

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3
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

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4
Q

ADHD

A 
Methylphenidate
CBT
Atomexitine
Guanfacine
Clonidine
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5
Q

Alcoholism

A

Disulfram (inhibits acetaldehyde breakdown)
Acamprosate (GABA-like)
Naltrexone (opioid antagonist)
Supportive Care

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6
Q

Alcohol Withdrawal

A

Long-acting benzos

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7
Q

Anorexia

A

Nutrition
Psychotherapy
Mirtazapine (alpha 2 antagonist –> NE/serotonin release)

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8
Q

Arrythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class 1B antiarrythmic

  • Lidocaine
  • Mexiletine
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9
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Alpha-1-antagonists
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
PDE-5 inhibitors

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10
Q

Bipolar disorder

A 
Mood stabilizers: 
- Lithium
- Valproic acid
- Carbamazepine
Atypical antipsychotics (Olanzapine, clozapine, quetiapine, risperidone, aripiprazole, ziprasidone.)
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11
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal women

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

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12
Q

Beurger disease

A

Smoking cessation

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13
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

SSRIs (e.g. Citalopram, Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline)

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14
Q

Candida albicans (vaginitis, oral/esophageal, systemic)

A

Topical azoles (vaginitis); nystatin, fluconazole, caspofungin (oral/esophageal); fluconazole, caspofungin, amphoteracin B (systemic)

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15
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octreotide (somatostatin analogue - “Mimics natural somatostatin by inhibiting serotonin release, and the secretion of gastrin, VIP, insulin, glucagon, secretin, motilin, and pancreatic polypeptide. Decreases growth hormone and IGF-1 in acromegaly.”

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16
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline or Azithromycin (+ ceftriaxone w/ coinfxn)

Erythromycin eye drops (infant prophylaxis)

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17
Q

Chronic gout

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (e.g. allopurinol, febuxostat); pegloticase; probenecid

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18
Q

Chronic hepatitis B and C

A

IFN-alpha (HBV and HCV); ribavirin, simeprivir, sofosbuvir (HCV)

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19
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Imatinib (targets bcr-abl tyrosine kinase)

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20
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

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21
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Metronidazole; refractory cases: oral vancomycin

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22
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin

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23
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Ganciclovir, Valganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir

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24
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab, azathioprine

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25
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole (in AIDS patients)

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26
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, CLL, Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura, RA

A

Rituximab (targets CD20 in most B-cell tumors w/ monoclonal antibody)

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27
Q

Isoniazid requires what substance to be expressed by TB to exhibit its effects? What is its MOA after conversion? What vitamin deficiency can result from INH?

A

Bacterial catalase peroxidase (encoded by KatG) to convert INH to active form. Decreases synthesis of mycolic acids. B6 Pyridoxine

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28
Q

What drugs are P450 inducers?

A

Chronic alcoholics never find John’s grizzly carb rifle.
Chronic alcohol use (upregs. P450), St. John’s wort, Phenytoin, Phenobarbitol, Nevirapine, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine

29
Q

What drugs are often induced by P450 inducers?

A

Anti-epileptics (phenytoin, valproic acid, carbamazepine, etc.), Theophylline, Warfarin, OCPs - “AcT Of War”

30
Q

What drugs inhibit P450 action?

A

AAA RACKS IN GQ Magazine
Acute alcohol abuse, Ritonavir, Amiodarone, Cimetadine/ciprofloxacin, Ketoconazole, Sulfonamides, Isoniazid (INH), Grapefruit juice, Quinidine, Macrolides (except azithromycin)

31
Q

Cylcophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mesna (prevents the hemorrhagic cystitis)

32
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first-line)

33
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Central –> Desmopressin (ADH)

Nephrogenic –> HCTZ, indomethacin, amiloride

34
Q

DM Type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low carbs) + insulin replacement

35
Q

DM Type 2

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

36
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, K+

37
Q

Drug of choice for anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

Heparin

38
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin, aminopenicillins/cephalosporins

39
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

40
Q

Estrogen Receptor positive (ER +) breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen (estrogen receptor antagonist in breast, agonist at bone/uterus - elevated thrombotic risk/endometrial cancer)

41
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

42
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

A

Ceftriaxone (meningitis)
Amox/clav (mucosal infxn)
Rifampin (prophylaxis)

43
Q

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

SSRIs, SNRIs (first line - Venlafaxine, duloxetine, milnacipran); buspirone (second line - nonbenzo - no alcohol interaction/addiction)

44
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

45
Q

Heparin reversal

A

Protamine sulfate

46
Q

HER2/neu + breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

47
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Spirinolactone (inhibits aldosterone receptor in cytoplasm)

48
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (1st line) - (HMG CoAa reductase inhibitors: prevent HMG CoA to mavalonate conversion)

49
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate (upreg. LPL –> increase TG clearance; activate PPAR-alpha –> induce HDL synth)

50
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin

51
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

52
Q

Influenza

A

Oseltamivir, zanamivir

53
Q

Kawasaki disease

A

IVIG, high dose ASA

54
Q

Legionella penumophila

A

Macrolides (Azithromycin)

55
Q

Long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban

56
Q

What drugs cause a Lupus-like syndrome? (HIPPPE)

A 
Hydralazine
INH
Procainamide
Phenytoin
Penacillamine
Ethosuxamide
57
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine, mefloquine, atovaquone/proguanil (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

58
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

59
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

60
Q

Migraine

A

Abortive: Sumatriptan (5HT1B1D agonist), NSAIDs
Prophylaxis: propanolol, topiramate, CCBs, amitriptyline

61
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

Disease modifying therapies (ß-interferon, natalizumab)

Acute flairs: IV steroids

62
Q

M. tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

63
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline or azithromycin to cover likely concurrent C. trachomatis) - look out for azithromycin and the cephalosporin causing increased chance of nephrotoxicity - may want to go with doxycycline instead if in answer choice

64
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

PCN/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

65
Q

NTD prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

66
Q

Osteomalacia/rickets

A

Vitamin D supplementation

67
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Prophylaxis: Calcium/vitamin D supplementation;
Treatment: Bisphosphonates (1st line), PTH analogs, SERMs, calcitonin, denosumab

68
Q

PDA

A

Close: indomethacin

Keep open: PGE analog

Rapid Review (6 decks)

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