CL350 Systems (NICE TO KNOW) Flashcards

Learn operationally relevant systems information

1
Q

Left hydraulic system (9 items)

A
Inboard brakes
Upper rudder PCU
Inboard ground spoilers
Inboard multifunction flight spoilers
Left and right inboard elevator
Left T/R
ALTN Flaps
Landing gear 
Nose wheel steering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Right hydraulic system (8 items)

A
Outboard ground spoilers
Outboard brakes
Outboard multifunction flight spoilers
Left and right outboard elevator 
Main landing gear assist
Flaps
Lower rudder PCU
Right T/R
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Ditching switch
(pressurization panel) (3)
A

Depressurizes the cabin
Shuts off air conditioning
Closes Outflow valve.

*This sequence is only active in the automatic mode and is inhibited above 15000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IASC

A

Integrated Air System Controllers = Pressurization control

Two controllers, #1 is always primary
#2 takes control automatically when #1 has a fault

Controls primary outflow valve through AUTO drive mechanism
(Secondary independent drive mechanism control valve in manual mode)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TAKEOFF AND RETURN TO BASE mode

Automatic pressurization modes

A

System maintains take off pressurization of 300’ below take off field elevation

–Maintains this altitude until 6000’ or 10 minutes

*If descent is initiated the cabin descends to take off field elevation and the cabin altitude does not have to be reset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PRE PRESSURIZATION MODE

Automatic pressurization modes

A

Active from time thrust levers go to take off position

Achieve cabin pressure of 300’ below take off elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Manual pressurization knob

A

12 o’clock position Rate is zero

2/3’s travel is about 1000 fpm

Full deflection is about 2500fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CLIMB mode

Automatic pressurization modes

A

Automatically controls cabin climb rate according to theoretical schedule of aircraft altitude and cabin altitude taking into account aircraft rate of climb and landing field elevation.

Typical climb rates are 300-500 fpm with max rate of 635 fpm

*High rates of climb above 6000 fpm above 25,000’ may cause cabin rate of climb to exceed 635 fpm max and should be avoided for cabin comfort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CRUISE MODE

Automatic pressurization modes

A

Active when

Aircraft rate of climb <500 from for >10s

Aircraft is climbing at any rate with aircraft altitude greater than 25000’

Cabin altitude is set according to predetermined schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Depressurization sequence on ground

Automatic pressurization modes

A

After landing or aborted takeoff aircraft depressurizes at rate of 500 fpm, then outflow valve drive to fully open.

OFV then remains fully open while on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GEAR WARNING

Non-mutable

A
Any gear not down/locked
and
RADALT < 500' 
and
Left and right thrust levers < 26° Or flaps > or = 27°
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GEAR WARNING

Mutable

A

When RADALT INOP Gear Warning is mutable.

Gear not down and locked and

TLA < 26° and

Altitude is <15,000’ and one of the following :

Airspeed <170 with flaps <3°, Airspeed <160 with flaps <13°’ Airspeed <155 with flaps >13°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Brake system ground mode

A

Ground mode allows hydraulic pressure to brake actuators.

Activated when gear down and
Either WOW active for >5 sec or
Wheel spin up above 50 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Brake Control Unit - BCU

A

Provides anti-skid protection down to 10 KTS

Commands braking pressure of 350 psi for 4 seconds after gear retraction

Removes hydraulic pressure from brakes when:

Both WOW(off), and gear up and locked, and wheel speed zero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nose Wheel Steering (5)

A

Active when:

Left hydraulic system pressurized
Nose Gear down and locked
WOW
NWS selected ON
No faults noted by SCU (steering control unit)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PSEU

A

Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit

=Gear retraction and extension control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gust lock

A

Locks ailerons only

These are the only non-hydraulic flight control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MDC

Maintenance Diagnostic Computer

A

Can display data on top half of right MFD BY PRESSING A/ICE, ECS, and FUEL on the MFD Control Panes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ENG accessory Gearbox items (6)

A
Air turbine starter
GEN
FUEL pump
Oil pump and reservoir 
HYD PUMP
PMA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

APR ARMED

A

Armed for takeoff when thrust levers at T/O detent, engaged when Lever set at APR (beyond takeoff position)

Also armed for go around when flaps >20° OR flaps and gear down.

Automatically engages with engine split of >15% N2

Canberra manually turned off on engine panel

21
Q

AIR TURBINE STARTER Disengage

A

N2 46.2%

22
Q

When do the HYD SHUTOFF VLV’s close

A

Fire switch depressed
Shut off valve closed
Fluid temp above 135°C (skydrol boiling point)

23
Q

What is the power source for the HYD DCMP’s

A

Left DMCP = RIGHT MAIN BUS

Right DCMP = LEFT ESSENTIAL BUS

24
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

When does it run?

A

To aid in gear retraction.

Comes on when gear is being retracted and left EDP pressure is low.

25
Q

What does the AUX HYD system power?

A

Assists the lower rudder PCU

26
Q

How are gear up locks released?

A

When extension commanded, gear initial over stows the gear, releasing the mechanical up locks. This allows mechanical up lock hook to be retracted for extension.

27
Q

The GEN overload message comes on at what load?

A

501 AMPS

28
Q

What inputs arm the GROUND SPOILERS in AUTO mode

4

A

Inputs come from :

RADALT
Wheel Speed
WOW
TLA

29
Q

When do GROUND SPOILERS extend in MANUAL ARM

A

Thrust Levers Idle and WOW only

*Manual Arm mode does not provide additional input protection available in AUTO.

30
Q

ALTN FLAPS

A

When selected, left HYD system pressure powers flaps.

Flow restricted(to prioritize gear actuation)

Takes over 1 min to extend flaps from 0°-20°

Normal flaps(right HYD system) O°-30° is 20 seconds

31
Q

CONFIGURATION TRIM

A

Stab trim automatically adjusts when gear and flaps are extended to smooth out oscillations

32
Q

Min Speed to extend FLIGHT SPOILERS

A

Vapp + 8

Vapp=Vref straight in approach. (+8)

Vapp=Vref+10 circling approach (+8)

500’ AGL min usage

33
Q

How long may windshield heat be used when on essential power?

A

15 minutes

34
Q

Oxygen system

A

2 bottles hold total of 5439 liters

Electropneumatic actuating valve EPAV control flow of 02

EPAV has 3 valves : 1 for is unregulated air to crew masks. 2 is regulated air to pax masks

3 is unregulated air to pax masks( manual select)

35
Q

Standard Flight Deck Emergency Equipment

A
Two flashlights
One PBE (portable breathing equipment)
One crash axe
One fire extinguisher
Two life vests
36
Q

Audio panel to EMER

A

Bypasses audio panel

Can only transmit and receive on own side radio.
Left pilot on COMM 1, right pilot on COMM 2

37
Q

Ways to disengage the AUTO Pilot (6)

A
Pressing either master disconnect switch
Activating trim switches on control wheels
Pressing AP on FGP
Pressing AP/DISC bar on FGP
Pressing either TOGA switch on TL's
Pressing the YD push button
38
Q

RA INHIBIT

A

Below 900’ AGL, descending
Below 1100’ AGL climbing …………All RA’s inhibited (TA ONLY) and TA AURAL INHIBITED

Below 1000’ AGL descending
Below 1200’ AGL, climbing ……..DESCEND RA inhibited

Below 1450’ AGL …………INCREASE DESCENT inhibited

39
Q

DESCENT MODE

Automatic pressurization modes

A

Aircraft descends at preset set rate which varies with aircraft rate of descent and time remaining to land.
2000 fpm aircraft rate yields 300 fpm cabin rate
5000 fpm and greater descent rate yields cabin descent of 750 fpm

Decent continues to 300’ below landing field elevation.

40
Q

What is the DCP?

A

Display Control Panel
Outboard of FGP
Controls PFD and radio frequencies on MFD

41
Q

What is the MFD Control? Panel

A

Controls the navigation, synoptic, checklist, and CAS displays on MFD

On center console

42
Q

What is the FGP?

A

Flight Guidance Panel

Controls Flight Director and Autopilot

On center of glareshield instrument panel

43
Q

What is the Reversion Switch Panel?

A

Used to switch information between PFD and MFD AND between Pilot and Copilot

On center console

44
Q

If in AUTO mode, when will the DCMPs run constant?

What is the pressure the provide?

A

Flaps out of 0

2800 PSI

45
Q

Starter Limitations

Engine

A

3 consecutive attempts, then 15 cooling

30 seconds motor after aborted start

Up to 5 min cranking, then 15 minutes cooling (after 3 attempts)

3-30-15

46
Q

Starter Limitations

APU

A

Ground start:
3 start attempts with
1 minute cooling intervals then
20 minutes of cooling (after 3 attempts)

3-1-20
Then
2-1-40

Air Start:
Only one airborne start attempt allowed

47
Q

ECS Temperature Ranges:
Auto
Manual

A

Auto range = 15-35C
(sensors in cabin and cockpit)

Manual range = 3-70C
(sensors in ducting)

48
Q

When should you disable TAWS Warnings?

A
GS = BC App, or GS inop
Flaps = Landing anything less than flaps 30
Terrain = Airport not in database
49
Q

What is lost with Secondary Trim use?

A

Mach Trim
Configuration Trim
Autopilot