Civil Procedure Flashcards

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1
Q

Is the granting or denying of a TRO ordinarily immediately appealable?

A

Generally no, as it is not an injunction. But if it is extended for good cause for a longer period and thus is like an injunction, it is converted and therefore appealable.

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2
Q

When does traditional basis for personal jurisdiction exist?

A

Where D:
1. Consents to jurisdiction in the forum state
2. Is domiciled in the forum state (physical presence + subjective intent to remain)
3. present in the forum state when served with process

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3
Q

What is a phrasing of the minimum contacts standard?

A

D must have sufficient minimum contacts such that asserting jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.

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4
Q

When can a Federal Court exercise supplemental jurisdiction over a claim?

A

When the claim arises from a common nucleus of operative fact as the other claims the court has SMJ over (roughly same T&O)

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5
Q

What are the limitations of supplemental diversity?

A
  • Can’t be used to overcome lack of diversity
  • cannot be asserted if it would violate complete diversity
  • does not apply to claims by original P against third party D
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6
Q

When can a D remove a case to federal court?

A

If:
1) federal court has SMJ;
2) all defendants agree;
3) no defendant is a resident of the forum state (for diversity); and
4) removal sought within 30 days of the Summons or receiving initial pleading

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7
Q

Who cannot ever remove to Fed. Court?

A

Plaintiff! Only defendant can

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8
Q

What are two main categories of personal jurisdiction?

A

1) Traditional bases of jurisdiction and
2) long-arm jurisdiction

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9
Q

What are the traditional bases of jurisdiction?

A

a) domicile
b) presence in state when served
c) consent; OR
d) Waiver (appearing in action without objecting)

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10
Q

How can a federal court assert PJ over a non-resident under long arm jurisdiction?

A

1) State must have long-arm statute; and
2) comply with constitutional due process requirements

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11
Q

What are the two prongs of constitutional PJ?

A

Prong 1: Minimum Contacts
Prong 2: Fair Play & Substantial Justice

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12
Q

What is required to meet Prong 1 of constitutional PJ?

A

Minimum Contacts
a) General Jurisdiction
Contacts so substantial that D is essentially at home in the state, or individual/corporation is at home in the state (domicile)
b) Specific Jurisdiction
Connection between forum state and underlying controversy, and lawsuit arises from D’s contact with the state

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13
Q

What is the deadline for service of the summons and complaint?

A

Within 90 days of filing with the court

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14
Q

If service is not timely made, what must the court do?

A

Either
a) dismiss the action without prejudice against that D or
b) order service be made again within specified period of time

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15
Q

When is Venue proper in a district?

A

Any district where:
1) any defendant resides, if all defendants are residents of forum state;
2) a substantial portion of claim occurred;
3) a substantial portion of property is located, or

IF NONE OF THE ABOVE:
where the D is subject to court’s PJ

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16
Q

If original venue was proper, when can the court transfer venue?

A

May transfer venue if:
1) needed for the convenience of the witnesses or in the interest of justice; AND
2) new court has PJ and SMJ

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17
Q

Will courts enforce forum selection clauses?

A

Generally yes, unless special factors are present

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18
Q

When can a preliminary injunction properly be issued?

A

Only
1) upon notice to the adverse party; AND
2) if the moving party gives bond/security (to reimburse if the moving party loses the case)

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19
Q

What is the traditional test for a preliminary injunction?

A

1) Likelihood of P’s success on the merits
2) likely threat of irreparable harm to the movant
3) Harm alleged by movant outweighs any harm to non-moving party AND
4) injunction is in public interest

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20
Q

What is required for a TRO to be issued?

A

Same test as preliminary injunction, and movant must allege immediate and irreparable harm

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21
Q

When can a party get an ex Parte TRO? What other requirements must be met?

A

1) provide specific facts showing immediate and irreparable injury, loss, or damage will result before adverse party can be heard;
2) certify in writing efforts made to give notice and why notice should not be required; AND
3) provide security in amount court deems proper

22
Q

How long does a TRO last?

A

14 days, unless Court sets a shorter time frame or extends (or parties consent)

23
Q

When can a party amend as of right?

A

Can amend once as a right within 21 days of service of:
a) the original pleading OR
b) a responsive pleading or pre-answer motion

24
Q

When can a party amend not as of right?

A

If they have the opposing party’s written consent OR with leave of the court upon motion (if justice so requires)

25
Q

What is relation back doctrine for a new claim?

A

Amendment relates back so long as it arises out of same transaction or occurrence as original allegations

26
Q

What is relation back doctrine for a new defendant?

A

Relates back so long as:
1) same transaction and occurrence
2) new party received notice of the original action within 90 days of filing; AND
3) new party knew or should have known that action would have been brought but for mistake of their identity

27
Q

What are the requirements for a valid crossclaim?

A

must arise out of same T&O as original action or counterclaim

28
Q

When does Rule 11 NOT apply?

A

Discovery or discovery motions

29
Q

When can multiple P’s or D’s be joined in one civil action?

A

If:
1) Joint and several relief asserted OR claim arises out of same transaction or occurrence;
2) common question of law or fact exists; AND
3) SMJ is present for each claim

30
Q

When is a party required to be joined?

A

If
1) the party is necessary; AND
2) joinder is feasible

31
Q

What are the four main requirements for a class action suit?

A

1) Numerosity
2) Commonality
3) Typicality; AND
4) Adequacy of Representation

32
Q

What information is discoverable, generally?

A

Any non-privileged info that is:
1) Relevant to any party’s claim or defense; AND
2) proportional to the needs of the case

33
Q

What initial disclosures must be provided in discovery?

A

Under Rule 26(a), parties MUST provide the following to opposing parties within 14 days of the Rule 26(f) conference:
1) Contact info of individuals likely to have discoverable info, and info they likely possess;
2) Copy or description of all documents, ESI, and tangible things the party may use to support its claims/defenses;
3) computation of each category of damages; AND
4) Any insurance agreement that may be liable to satisfy a judgment in the action

34
Q

What is the motion to dismiss standard?

A

Requires the court to
1) consider the facts in the light most favorable to the non-moving party; and
2) determine if there is any any basis upon which relief can be granted

35
Q

When will a court grant a motion for summary judgment?

A

When:
1) There is no genuine issue of material fact AND:
2) Movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law

36
Q

What is the standard for motion for judgment as a matter of law?

A

JMOL granted if:
1) the non-moving party has been fully heard on the issue during a jury trial; AND
2) The court finds that a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient basis to rule in favor of the non-moving party on that issue

37
Q

What are the elements of issue preclusion?

A

1) Valid and final judgment was rendered in first action;
2) Issue is identical to issue decided in prior action;
3) Issue was actually litigated, determined, and essential in prior action; AND
4) Party against whom enforcement is sought had a full and fair opportunity to litigate the issue in a prior action

38
Q

What constitutes a final judgment/decision?

A

One which:
1) ends litigation on the merits (ALL claims are resolved); and
2) leaves nothing for the court to do but execute the judgment

39
Q

What are exceptions to the final judgment rule?

A

1) Rule 54(b) exception
2) statutory exceptions
3) certified appeal exception
4) collateral order doctrine
5) writs of mandamus and prohibition
6) Pendent Appellate jurisdiction
7) Certification of class action

40
Q

When is organizational standing allowed?

A

Allowed to sue on behalf of members if:
1) suit is related to an issue germane to organization’s purpose;
2) members would have standing to sue; AND
3) members’ participation not necessary

41
Q

What is required for federal duties, imposts, and excises to be constitutionally valid?

A

Must be geographically uniform throughout US

42
Q

Can Congress compel a State to implement legislation?

A

No! But, can induce state government to do it by attaching conditions and restrictions under the spending power.

43
Q

Aside from preemption rules, what sorts of laws can states NOT pass under the dormant commerce clause?

A

Any laws that:
a) discriminate against out-of-state commerce; OR
b) place an undue burden on interstate commerce

44
Q

What are two key exceptions to the governmental / state action requirement?

A

Courts will find a private actor’s action to be a government action when:
1) it is a traditional public function OR
b) significant government involvement exists

45
Q

What does procedural due process normally require?

A

Notice and an unbiased hearing

46
Q

When may a government take private property for public use?

A

If it provides just compensation

47
Q

What counts as public use under takings doctrine?

A

Rational relation to a conceivable public purpose

48
Q

What counts as just compensation under the takings clause?

A

Fair market value at the time of the taking

49
Q

What can states not do under the Privileges & Immunities Clause of Article IV?

A

Cannot intentionally discriminate against non-residents concerning:
a) civil liberties (right to vote, travel interstate, etc.) OR
b) important economic activities (earning a livelihood)

50
Q

When are facially neutral laws prohibited under the Establishment Clause?

A

If they violate historical practices & understandings of the Establishment Clause

51
Q

What is the standard for government regulations regarding the content of speech?

A

Strict Scrutiny: Govt. must show:
1) regulation is narrowly tailored
2) to achieve a compelling governmental interest, and
3) the least restrictive means was used