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MOD1 Exam 2 > CIS 1, 2, 3 / Practice Questions > Flashcards

CIS 1, 2, 3 / Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Say there’s a virus that is down regulating the amount of MHCI, what is going to act and what is not going to act?

A

CD8 aren’t going to be able to destroy, but NK cells are going to ramp up from decrease of inhibition signals

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2
Q

What is present on NK cells? what kind of hypersensitivity is this considered?

A

CD16

2 for some reason

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3
Q

B cells have what on their surface?

A

CD19

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4
Q

What cells can capture antibody coated HIV visions through their FC receptors?

A

Follicular Dendritic Cells

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5
Q

Cyclosporine?

methotrexate is used for?

A

minimize lymphocyte-mediated transplant rejection

graft vs host disease

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6
Q

Transfusion reactions are what kind of hypersensitivity?

A

2!

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7
Q

Complement is found in what hypersensitivity reaction?

A

2 + 3

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8
Q

When there’s antibody being directed at a parasitic infection, what should you be thinking?

A

ADCC (antibody-mediated cellular cytotoxicity)

IgG and IgE antibodies bearing Fc receptors coat the parasite and have them lysed.

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9
Q

Serum sickness is what?

A

injected foreign protein, produces widespread antigen-antibody complex deposition, PARTICULARLY IN THE KIDNEYS

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10
Q

What is an Arthur reaction and what are you going to see?

A

localized immune complex reaction at the site of the injection and the depletion of complement C3

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11
Q

smooth and linear is what?

A

type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.

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12
Q

what antibody is going to scream good pasture?

A

anti-basement membrane antibody

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13
Q

IL-17 does what?

A

recruits neutrophils

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14
Q

IL-2 does what?

A

T cell proliferation

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15
Q

IL-5 does what?

A

activates eosinophils

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16
Q

IL-10 does what?

A

immunosuppressive

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17
Q

injury of a injection and 48 hours you have erythema. something stains positive for CD4. what is it?

what test is in this grouping too?

A

type 4 hypersensitivity (delayed type hypersensitivity)

PPD skin test

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18
Q

fundamental mechanism behind SLE?

A

defective clearance and hence increased burden of nuclear apoptotic bodies in thymus lymphocyte development

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19
Q

why would someone have recurrent thrombosis in SLE?

A

antiphospholipid antibodies like anticardiolipin –> against phospholipid protein complexes, lead to inc rebased thrombosis

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20
Q

what’s likely to develop in people with SLE? 2 things

A

chronic renal failure

hemolytic anemia through the development of anti-RBC antibodies

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21
Q

what are you going to see that screams CREST syndrome?

A

anti-centromere

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22
Q

what are you going to see that screams Scleroderma?

A

SCL-70 (or Anti-DNA topoisomerase)

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23
Q

What are you going to see that screams mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-U1-RNP

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24
Q

Sjogrens hs an increased risk of what?

A

Lymphoma

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25
Q

What’s causing the problems of scleroderma?

what does this lead to in individuals?

A

CD4

severe hypertension

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26
Q

say something says severe, recurrent bacterial, fungal and viral infections.. what should you be thinking?

what causes this?

what happens but is less likely?

A

SCID

X linked mutation in COMMON GAMMA CHAIN

in autosomal recessive cases –> problems with adenosine deaminase

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27
Q

C1 inhibitor problems, what do they present with?

A

swelling of the face, but ALSO throat, trouble swallowing, abdominal pain, cramping.

seems like a type 1 hypersensitivity, but it’s just complement causing massive edema

(hereditary angioedema)

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28
Q

Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome is characterized by what?

what do they have an increased risk for?

A

thrombocytopenia, eczema, and decreased IgM (increased recurrent infections)

whenever there’s an immunodeficiency disorder, immune dysregulation or this, think NON Hodgkin Lymphoma

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29
Q

What cancers are common in aids patients?

A

B cell lymphoma, burkitts lymphoma

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30
Q

Apple green and Congo red are seeing in what type of what?

what does not show up on Congo red but still is bubblegum looking?

A

light chain amyloid (AL) –> plasma cells secreting it so MYELOMA

AA which is seen in chronic inflammatory diseases like RA or lupus

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31
Q

Polymyositis?

A

chronic inflammation of the muscles and associated tissues

you see focal necrosis of the muscle fibers

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32
Q

Poison ivy is what hypersensitivity?

A

type 4! contact dermatitis

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33
Q

Hydrops fetalis is what hypersensitivity?

A

2

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34
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease is a mix of what?

A

SLE, Polymyositis, scleroderma

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35
Q

CVID has what 2 things associated with ti?

A

hypogammaglobulinemia for bacterial infections and GIARDIA

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36
Q

difference between discoid and classic SLE?

A

discoid does not have a positive DS-DNA

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37
Q

if there’s “nuclear pattern” in the name, what should you be thinking?

A

crest / scleroderma

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38
Q

Tetany in the question, what should you jump too?

A

hypocalcemia –> digeorge

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39
Q

what leads to lung fibrosis that is found in the environment?

A

inorganic dusts –> inhaled and ingested by macrophages, they release cytokines leading to fibrosis

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40
Q

drowning is associated with what hemorrhage style?

strangulation?

falling?

A

mastoid sinuses

petechial hemorrhages

contusions

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41
Q

retinal hemorrhages?

A

shaken baby

42
Q

subdural vs epidural hemorrhage?

A

epidural hemorrhage is lucid period but then 3 days later you keel over

subdural gives you confusion and lasts weeks

43
Q

Organophosphate poisoning mnemonic?

A

SLUDGE

salivation, lacrimation, urinary incontinence, defacation, GI changes, emesis and miosis

44
Q

methanol does what to the body?

A

screws up the CNS and retina

45
Q

early loss of fetus correlates with what usually?

what about late?

A

chromosomal abnormality

congenital infection

46
Q

Hydrops and icterus are in the name and it’s immune related. what should you be thinking?

A

erythroblastosis fetalis and Rh problems

47
Q

Hyaline membrane disease is associated with what?

A

NRDS

48
Q

what’s usually to blame for PPROM?

A

acute chorioamnionitis or strong bacterial infections

49
Q

turner syndrome is what genotype?

A

45X0

50
Q

leukomalacia is associated with what infection?

A

Toxoplasmosis

51
Q

baby is born with a flattened nose, prominent infraorbital creases, contracture of arms, vagus deformities of the feet.. pulmonary hypoplasia. what’s the finding?

A

petter sequence –> oligohydramnious caused by renal agenesis of both kidneys leading to pulmonary hypoplasia

52
Q

missing both irises is associated with what?

A

WAGR –> Wilms tumor

53
Q

bloody stool in newborn, what should you see on radiograph and what is it?

A

dilated bowel

necrotizing enterocolitis

54
Q

Niacin

what’s the other name

what do people present with

clinical name

A

B3

dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea

pellagra

55
Q

Child with a vitamin C deficiency leads to what?

A

OSTEOID MATRIX PRODUCTION for type 1 collagen problem!

so they’ll also have problems!!! don’t be fooled with this and rickets

56
Q

neural tube defects, what’s the problem

A

neural tube defects

57
Q

Iron deficiency, what will you see

A

anemia

58
Q

liver problems, abnormal bleeding, what is missing?

A

vitamin K

59
Q

what leads to renal tubular damage and chronic pulmonary disease?

A

cadmium

60
Q

lead poisoning causes an increase in what?

A

zinc protoporphyrin

61
Q

alcohol + acetaminophen, what is the COD

A

brainstem depression first

62
Q

Low estrogen-containing oral contraceptives for a long period cause what?

A

increase risk of MI

63
Q

hypertension in renal blood vessels on autopsy, and a sudden death

A

cocaine

64
Q

what factor necessitates skin grafting?

A

dermal appendages such as sweat glands and hair follicles

65
Q

heat exhaustion vs heat stroke?

A

exhaustion is failure of CV system to compensate for hypovolemia

stroke is organ damage and a greater core temp of 36+

66
Q

inhaling gases and hot fumes from a fire gives you what?

A

pulmonary edema

67
Q

hypothermia causes what?

A

peripheral vasoconstriction along with edema caused by increased vascular permeability

68
Q

Atrophic gastritis affects what absorption?

A

B12

69
Q

osteomalacia, what’s the problem?

what can cause this to happen?

A

vitamin D malabsorption

biliary tract disease, pancreatic disease, chronic cholestatic liver disease

70
Q

Leptin does what?

A

decreases synthesis of NPY which is an appetite stimulant

it’s a satiety hormone

71
Q

Ghrelin does what?

A

the “hungry” gene

72
Q

obesity gene

A

MC4R

73
Q

Positive for vimentin?

positive for cytokeratin?

A

soft tissue malignancies (sarcomas)

carcinomas are cytokeratin

74
Q

ionizing radiation activates which checkpoint?

A

G2/M –> monitors completion of DNA Replication

75
Q

Japanese cancer?

A

Gastric

76
Q

type 1 tumor is called what?

A

low grade and low stage (well differentiated and localized)

77
Q

Retroperitoneum is a typical location for what in an adult?

A

sarcoma

78
Q

BCR-ABL is known to cause what and what’s the translocation?

A

translocation is t(9:22)

CML

79
Q

what’s the best thing to use for identifying GENE alterations involved in carcinogenesis?

what about proteins?

A

single nucleotide polymorphisms

immunohistochemistry –> evaluates the protein products of gene expression

80
Q

alpha-fetoprotein

A

testicular and liver cancer

81
Q

adenocarcinoma leads to what?

A

blood loss from mucosal erosion and necrosis –> so you would see microcytic hypo chromic anemia

82
Q

what stage is it considered if you have something at a primary spot in the body but it’s everywhere?

A

advanced

83
Q

purpose of therapeutic radiotherapy is what?

A

direct image to the cells through the generation of oxidant free radicals

84
Q

uterus –> benign and circumscribed.

malignant and endometrium?

A

Leiomyoma

Adenocarcinoma

85
Q

how can we tell the difference between an enlarged lymph node from an infection to an enlarged lymph node from cancer?

A

gene rearrangement studies demonstrating clonality

86
Q

what’s the most common soft tissue neoplasm?

A

lipoma

87
Q

human papilloma virus gives us what cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

88
Q

Small cell anaplastic lung carcinoma can have what immunohistochemical staining?

A

ACTH –> Cushing syndrome like from paraneoplastic syndrome

89
Q

NOTCH is associated with what?

A

VEGF

90
Q

hyperchromatism typical for malignant cells indicates what?

what phase?

A

DNA synthesis

S phase

91
Q

Ewing sarcoma are childhood neoplasms arising in what?

A

bone

92
Q

most common benign neoplasm of the breast

A

fibroadenoma

93
Q

Something’s been on someone’s chest for many years… what is it

why isn’t it a nevus

A

benign –> hemangioma is a. common benign lesion of the skin.

nevi are light brown

94
Q

any mention of lymphadenopathy, what do you think?

A

malignancy.

95
Q

multiple varying sized tan metastatic lesions in the liver from hematogenous spread of carcinoma.. what is it?

A

metastatic adenocarcinoma

96
Q

t(9;22) translocation?

what treatment?

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia

inhibiting tyrosine kinase since BCR-ABL works on that

97
Q

development of colonic adenocarcinoma.. how doe s it work?

A

takes years, multiple mutations in a step wise fashion!

98
Q

p16 is an inhibitor of what?

what other mediator is also associated with this?

A

cyclin dependent kinases –> seen in melanoma

CDKN2A

99
Q

what does TGF-B do in cancer?

A

inhibits cell proliferation by activation of growth-inhibiting genes

100
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis –> when is the earliest event leading to misfunctino?

A

loss of APC gene function –> prevents destruction of B-catenin which translocates to the nucleus.. activating the WNT SIGNALING PATHWAY

101
Q

if there’s a family history of different types of tumors, what should you be thinking?

A

TP53 stuff.. this is the two hit hypothesis.

102
Q

NF1 is associated with what?

what is this activating?

A

neurofibromatosis type 1 –> which encodes for GTPase activating protein that helps change RAS to inactive RAS

MOD1 Exam 2 (9 decks)

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