CHPT 10: Human Development Flashcards

1
Q

What is developmental psychology?

A
  • the study of how behaviour changes over the lifespan
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2
Q

What is the post hoc fallacy?

A
  • false assumption that because one event occurred before another event, it must have caused that event
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3
Q

What is bidirectional influence?

A
  • children’s development influences their experiences, but their experiences also influence their development
  • change environments by acting in ways that create changes in the behaviours of those around them
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4
Q

What is the problem with unidirectional explainations?

A
  • doesn’t take into account that events impact each other
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5
Q

What are cohort effects?

A
  • sets of people who lived during one period can differ in some systematic way from sets of people who lived during a different period
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6
Q

What is a cross sectional design?

A
  • research design that examines people of different ages at a single point in time
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7
Q

What is a longitudinal design?

A
  • research design that examines development in the same group of people on multiple occasions over time
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8
Q

What are the benefits of the longitudinal design?

A
  • ability to examine true developmental effects
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9
Q

What are externalizing behaviours?

A
  • behaviours such as rule breaking, defying authority figures, and committing crimes
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10
Q

What is the myth of infant determinism?

A
  • assumption that extremely early experiences (first three years of life) are almost always more influential than later experiences in shaping us as adults
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11
Q

What is the myth of childhood fragility?

A
  • children are delicate creatures who are easily damaged

- research shows the opposite: they are very resilient to stress

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12
Q

What is the gene-environment interaction?

A
  • situation in which the effects of genes depend on the environment in which they are expressed
  • they are dependent on one another
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13
Q

Describe the phenomenon called nature via nurture.

A
  • tendency of individuals with certain genetic predispositions to seek out and create environments that permit the expression of those predispositions
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14
Q

What is gene expression?

A
  • activation or deactivation of genes by environmental experiences throughout development
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15
Q

What is a zygote?

A
  • a fertilized egg cell
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16
Q

What is a blastocyst?

A
  • ball of identical cells early in pregnancy that haven’t yet begun to take on any specific function in a body part
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17
Q

What is an embryo and what happens during the embryonic stage?

A
  • second to eighth week of prenatal development during which limbs, facial features, and major organs of the body take form
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18
Q

What is a fetus?

A
  • period of prenatal development from ninth week until birth after all major organs are established and physical maturation is the primary change
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19
Q

What happens during the germinal stage?

A
  • zygote divides over and over again to form a blastocyst
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20
Q

When does proliferation occur?

A
  • between day 18 and the 6th month, neurons grow at an incredible rate
  • up to 250,000 neurons per minute at times
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21
Q

What are some obstacles to normal fetal development?

A
  • exposure to hazardous environmental influences
  • biological influences resulting from genetic disorders or errors in cell duplication during cell division
  • premature birth
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22
Q

What are teratogens and what impact to they have on fetal health?

A
  • teratogens are environmental factors that can exert a negative impact on prenatal development
  • smoking, drugs, chicken pox, anxiety, depression
  • can affect brain development (specific and general)
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23
Q

What is fetal alcohol disorder and what occurs?

A
  • condition resulting from high levels of prenatal alcohol exposure, causing learning disabilities, physical growth retardation, facial malformations, and behavioural disorders
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24
Q

What are some genetic disruptions of fetal development?

A
  • cells copied with some error or break in genetic material
  • can result in impaired development of organs or organ systems
  • intellectual disabilities, birthmark, facial or boy malformations
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25
Q

What is prematurity and what are the risks associated with it?

A
  • babies born fewer than 36 weeks
  • can result in physical and cognitive impairments
  • underdeveloped lungs and brains, unable to maintain proper body temperature
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26
Q

What is the viability point?

A
  • 25 weeks, infants can typically survive on their own
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27
Q

What is motor behaviour?

A
  • bodily motion that occurs as a result of self-initiated force that moves the bones and muscles
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28
Q

What are infant reflexes?

A
  • survival instincts that are triggers by specific types of stimulation and fulfill important survival needs
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29
Q

What are some major motor milestones?

A
  • sitting up, crawling, standing unsupported, and walking.
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30
Q

What are some factors influencing motor development?

A
  • depend on physical maturation of the body
  • body weight
  • cultural and parenting practices
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31
Q

Discuss physical development in childhood.

A
  • different parts of the body grow and different rates, and the ultimate proportions of the body are quite different at birth
  • head-to-body ratio
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32
Q

What is adolescence?

A
  • the transition between childhood and adulthood commonly associated with the teenage years
  • time of profound physical change
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33
Q

What is puberty?

A
  • the achievement of sexual maturation resulting in the potential to reproduce
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34
Q

What is a primary sex characteristic?

A
  • physical feature such as the reproductive organs and genitals that distinguish the sexes
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35
Q

What is a secondary sex characteristic?

A
  • a sex-differentiating characteristic that doesn’t relate directly to reproduction, such as breast enlargement in women and deepening voices in men
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36
Q

What is menarche?

A
  • start of mestruation
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37
Q

What is spermarche?

A
  • boys’ first ejaculation
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38
Q

When is physical peak reached?

A
  • early 20s
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39
Q

What happens to the body as it ages?

A
  • decrease in muscle tone, sensory processing, and fertility
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40
Q

What is menopause?

A
  • the termination of mensuration, marking the end of a woman’s reproductive potential
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41
Q

What is cognitive development?

A
  • study of how children acquire the ability to learn, think, reason, communicate, and remember
42
Q

What are the core ways cognitive development theories differentiate?

A
  1. stagelike vs. continuous
  2. domain-general vs. domain specific
  3. principal source of learning (experience, social, biological maturation)
43
Q

Who is Jean Piaget?

A
  • Swiss psychologist who presented first complete account of cognitive development
  • stage theorist who believed skills were domain-general
  • thought end point of cognitive development is ability to reason logically about hypotheticals
44
Q

What two processes do children use to acquire knowledge?

A
  • assimilation

- accomodation

45
Q

What is assimilation?

A
  • Piagetian process of absorbing new experiences into current knowledge structures
  • cognitive skills and world views remain unchanged, new knowledge fits into what they already know
46
Q

What is accomodation?

A
  • Piagetian process of altering a belief to make it more compatible with experience
  • forcing to take on a new view point
47
Q

What are Piaget’s four stages of development?

A
  • sensorimotor
  • preoperational stage
  • concrete operations
  • formal operations
48
Q

What does the sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s theory entail?

A
  • from birth to 2 years
  • characterized by the focus on the here and now without the ability to represent experiences mentally
  • acquire knowledge from physical interactions
  • major milestone is mental representation
  • lack object permanence
49
Q

What does the preoperational stage of Piaget’s theory entail?

A
  • ages 2 to 7 years old
  • marked by an ability to construct mental representations of experience (language, drawings, and object representation)
  • Hampered by egocentrism and inability to perform mental operations (cant visualize a vase on a table if the vase is not there)
  • lack conservation
50
Q

What does the concrete operations stage of Piaget’s theory entail?

A
  • ages 7-11 years old
  • can perform mental operations, but only for actual physical events
  • can perform organizational tasks
51
Q

What does the formal operations stage of Piaget’s theory entail?

A
  • age 11 to adulthood
  • can understand hypothetical reasoning beyond the here and now
  • logical concepts and abstract questions
52
Q

What is mental representation?

A
  • the ability to think about things that are absent from immediate surroundings
53
Q

What is object permanence?

A
  • the understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of view
54
Q

What is ecocentrism?

A
  • inability to see the world from others’ perspectives
55
Q

What is conservation?

A
  • Piagetian task requiring children to understand that despite a transformation in the physical presentation of an amount, the amount remains the same
56
Q

What are some cons of Piaget’s theory?

A
  • development is more continuous
  • probably underestimated children’s competence
  • culturally biased methods, westernized
57
Q

What are some pros of Piaget’s theory?

A
  • still highly influential, helped change how we think about cognitive development
  • children are not small adults
  • learning is an active rather than passive process
  • exploring general cognitive processes that explain multiple domains of knowledge
58
Q

Who is Lev Vygotsky and what did he propose?

A
  • theory focused on social and cultural influences on cognitive development
  • parents structure environments for learning and then gradually remove it (scaffolding)
  • zone of proximal development for learning
59
Q

What is scaffolding?

A
  • Vygotskian learning mechanism in which parents provide initial assistance in children’s learning but gradually remove structure as children become more competent
60
Q

What is the zone of proximal development?

A
  • phase of learning during which children can benefit from instruction, but not complete the task successfully
61
Q

What is the theory of mind?

A
  • ability to reason about what other people know or believe
62
Q

What are some cognitive landmarks?

A
  • naïve physics and how physical objects behave
  • categorizing objects by kind
  • concept of self and others and theory of mind
  • counting and math
63
Q

Why are their cognitive changes during adolescence?

A
  • frontal lobes don’t fully mature until late adolescence or early adulthood (decision making, impulse control, planning) but teens may just not care about risks
  • personal fable and feeling unique and special
  • changing attitudes toward knowledge
64
Q

What aspects of cognition experience decline in late adulthood?

A
  • ability to recall information

- overall speed of processing

65
Q

What aspects of cognition stay stable or increase in late adulthood?

A
  • cued recall and recognition
  • remembering pertinent information
  • vocabulary and knowledge tasks
66
Q

What is stranger anxiety?

A
  • a fear of strangers, developing at 8 or 9 months of age

- increases until 12 to 15 months

67
Q

What is temperment?

A
  • basic emotional style that appears early in development and is largely genetic in origin
68
Q

What are “easy infants”?

A
  • adaptable and relaxed

- 40%

69
Q

What are “difficult infants”?

A
  • fussy and easily frustrated

- 10%

70
Q

What are What are “slow-to-warm-up infants”?

A
  • disturbed by new stimuli at first but gradually adjust to them
  • 15%
71
Q

What is behavioural inhibition?

A
  • reaction to stimuli
  • personality type that shows a tendency toward distress and nervousness in new situations
  • 10%
72
Q

What is attachment?

A
  • the strong emotional connections we share with those to whom we feel closest
  • don’t stray too far from those who protect, support, and feed us
73
Q

What is imprinting and when does it occur?

A
  • newborn creature bonds to the people it meets at birth and begins to pattern its behaviour after them
  • after birth, unsure time limit
74
Q

What did Rutter’s studies of Romanian orphans reveal?

A
  • offered little social interaction and emotional care
  • infants adopted older than 6 months of age resulted in negative effects on their early environments, serious emotional problems, and inability to attach to their adopted parents
75
Q

What is contact comfort?

A
  • behaviourists assumed children bonded with those that provided them nourishment
  • reassuring physical contact played huge role in developing attachment - preference
  • positive emotions afforded by touch
76
Q

What are the four attachment styles?

A
  • secure attachment (60%)
  • insecure-avoidant attachment (15%-20%)
  • insecure-anxious attachment (15%-20%)
  • disorganized attachment (5%-10%)
77
Q

What is secure attachment?

A
  • reacts to moms departure by becoming upset, greets her when she returns
78
Q

What is insecure-avoidant attachment?

A
  • reacts to departure with indifference and shows little reaction upon return
79
Q

What is insecure-anxious attachment?

A
  • reacts to moms departure with panic, upon return shows a mixed emotional reaction
80
Q

What is disorganized attachment?

A
  • confused set of responses upon departure and return
81
Q

What effects some attachment styles?

A
  • show large cultural differences
  • subject to the mono-operations bias
  • lack of reliability on the Strange Situation
  • changing styles over brief times
  • different styles for mom vs dad (40% of infants)
82
Q

What is mono-operation bias?

A
  • drawing conclusion on the basis of only a single measure
83
Q

What are the four types of parenting?

A
  • permissive
  • authoritarian
  • authoritative
  • uninvolved
84
Q

What does the permissive parenting style entail?

A
  • tend to be lenient, little discipline, very affectionate
85
Q

What does the authoritarian parenting style entail?

A
  • very strict, punishing, little affection
86
Q

What does the authoritative parenting style entail?

A
  • supportive but set clear and firm limits

- results in children exhibiting the best social and emotional adjustment and the lowest level of behavioural problems

87
Q

What does the uninvolved parenting style entail?

A
  • neglectful and ignoring
88
Q

What is the average expectable environment?

A
  • environment that provides children with basic needs for affection and discipline
  • parenting style doesn’t matter if this is provided
89
Q

What is the influence of peers vs. parents?

A
  • more important role than parents

- group socialization theory (horizontal translation, rather than vertical from parents)

90
Q

How does the father differ from the mother?

A
  • less attentive and affectionate towards babies
  • spend less time with babies
  • more time in physical play, thus preferred as playmates
91
Q

What is the effect of divorce on children?

A
  • impact of single-parenthood on children is unclear
92
Q

What is gender identity?

A
  • individuals sense of being male or female
93
Q

What are gender roles?

A
  • a set of behaviours that tend to be associated with being male or female
94
Q

What are the biological influences on gender?

A
  • toy preference may reflect differences in biological predisposition
95
Q

What is identity?

A
  • our sense of who we are and our life goals and priorities
96
Q

What is a psychosocial crisis?

A
  • dilemma concerning an individuals relations to other people
97
Q

What is emerging adulthood?

A
  • period of life between the ages of 18 to 25 during which many aspects of emotional development, identity, and personality become solidified
98
Q

What are some criticisms of Kohlberg’s work on morals?

A
  • cultural bias
  • sex bias
  • low correlation with moral behaviour
  • confound with verbal intelligence
  • casual direction
99
Q

What are some life transitions that can be considered stressful?

A
  • careers
  • love and commitment
  • parenthood
  • midlife transitions
100
Q

What are the four types of ages?

A
  • biological age
  • psychological age
  • functional age
  • social age