cholinergic pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

M1, 3, 5 is what type of GPCR and their actions?

A

Gq, activates IP3 and DAG, increases intracellular levels - smooth muscle contraction or excocytosis of more stuff?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

M2, 4 is what type of GPCR and what are their actions?

A

Gi, inhibits the adenylyl cylcase and decrease intracellular cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Muscarinic receptors stimulate the parasympathetic system, parasympathomimetics, what are the actions of muscarinic agonists?

A

decreased HR and contractility, decreased IOP (hence can treat glaucoma), constriction of constrictor pupillae, bronchoconstriction, GI: increase SM contraction and relaxation of sphincters, secretagogue: increased salivatory, lacrimation and stomach acid secretion

ACh-mediated sympathetic vasodilation via the release of NO as well `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

M1, M2, and M3 act on which part

A

M1: neural
M2: cardiac
M3: glandular, smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

M1 effects

A

gastric acid secretion, slow excitation of ganglion and gut motility increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

M2 effects

A

heart: decreased rate and force of heart contractions (due to decreased AV node conduction frequency and increased AV nodal delay) and inhibition of neurotransmitter release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

M3 effects

A

more glandular i guess, then gastric acid secretion, glandular secretion (salivary, sweat, exocrine pancrease), smooth muscle contraction (gut, bladder), pupillary constrcition, ciliary muscle contracts, (gut) relaxes sphincters and ctronacts wall

vasofilation via NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

mAChR agonists?

A

muscarine, pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can mACh agonoists be used for clincally?

A

treatment of glaucoma (decreases the IOP, opens the trabecular meshwork at the canal of Schlemm), xeriostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

do you remember the 4 strucuture sof the:
acetylcholine
methacholine
bethanechol
carbachol

and which one is preferred to muscarine?

A

the CH3 on the beta carbon is more muscarinic specific

Methacholine and bethanechol are muscarinic specific

carbachol and bethanachol are resistant to hydrolysis by AChE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is methancholine used for?

A

used to induce bronchospasm in asthmatic patients, and help with the diagnosis of asthma, investingating airway responsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is bethanechol used for

A

post operative treatment of urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mAChR antagonists

A

atropine, scopolamine (hyoscine), tropicamine / cyclopentate eyedrops, ipratropium / tiotropium, benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

effects of atropine

A

non-selective, competiive reversible antag (M1-5)

uncharged, neutral, can be absorbed and penetrates the CNS,BBB, acting centrally

half life of 4h

used for the treatment of sinus bradycardia after MI, eye (glau), increased salivatory and sweat gland secretion

used to reverse the central idk the movie thing im not sure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

scopolamine effects and what is the difference with it and atropine

A

about hte same, just that it has greater CNS effects and can affect the short term memory (amnesia)

clinical use is the for nausea post op and strongly helps with motion sickness

symptomatic relief of GI secretion, and improve the imaging of GIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is pirenzipine (it is a mAChR antagonist)

A

competive antagonist of M1
cannot cross the BBB, no CNS effects

treats peptic ulcers and duodenal ulcers, reduces gastric secretion and reduced muscle spasms, decreased gastric motility and delayed gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the ipratropium/tiotropium used for

A

reduce bronchospasm - bronchodilatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are tropicamine / cyclopentate eyedrops used for

A

dilate the eye pupil, for the fundoscopic exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is benzotropine and what does it treat (single)

A

parkinsons

20
Q

what is the acetycholine reversible

A

when a large dose of ACh is given after stropine, it produces nicotinic effects and initial rise of bp due ot the sitmulation of sympathetic ganglia and consequent vasoconstriction and a secondary rise due the secretion of adrenaline

21
Q

what are the 2 nerve subtypes of nictonic receptors and were are they found

A

Nn/N1, found on the neuronal membrane (autonomic ganglia, CNS, adrenal medulla)

Nm/N2, found on skeletal muscle end plate regions at the NMJs

22
Q

Nm gives what response:

A
  1. end plate depolarisation
  2. skeletal muscle contraction
23
Q

Nn gives what response:

A
  1. depolraisation and firing of postganglionic neurons
  2. secretion of catecholamimnes
24
Q

Nn: ganglion stimulating drugs examples and what they do

(agonists of NAChR)

A

nicotine, varencline

nicotine:
CNS, skeletal effects
post-ganglionic depolarisation and firing
adrenal medulla activation and release of NA

varenicline:
partial agonists, stimulating low level agonists activity (in the presence of full agonists, hence copmetivietly binding of nicotine) used fo rsmoking cessation

25
Nn: ganglionic blocking drugs
trimethaphan and hexamethonium both affecting and blocking the sympathetic NS and the parasympathetic NS decreases BP (blocks symp, leading to arteriolar vasodilation) reduced venoconstriction upon standing, causing a sudden fall in arterial pressure (postural hypotension) treating patients wit acute aortic dissecting aneurysms
26
Nm: what are the types of neuromuscular blocking durgs
non-depolarising and depolarising
27
what is the difference between the depolarising and non-depolarising blocking drugs
non depolarising: acts as competitive antagonists at the ACh receptors of the endplate, and also blocks the facililatory presynaptive autoreceptors inhibiting hte release of ACh during repeitive stimulation of the motor nerve, resulting in the phenomenum of tetanic fade depolarising: similar to the action of ACh, but not degraded by AChE, so it is prolonged depolarisation, but then becomes resistance to depolarisation. receptor changes conformation that allows Na+ channels to close despite the presence of the agonists. cell hence repolarised and cannot be stimualted by ACh. key difference is the use of cholinesterases: non-depolarising block can be overcome (competivie) depolarising block is potentiated
28
examples of non-depolarising blocking agents
pancuronium vecuronium tubocurarine
29
how can the non-depolarising drugs be overcome (2)
1. anti acetylcholinesterases, e.g. neostigmine 2. sugammadex, binds to non-depolarising drugs and excreted in the urine
30
pk of non-depolarising drugs (Nm)
quanternary ammonium, poorly absorbed and given in IV efficiently excreted from the kidneys, does not cross the placenta competitive antagonist
31
what is an example of depolarising blocking agent
suxamethoium
32
what is suxamethonium?
depolarising agent, causes porlonged depolarisation of the nicotinic receptors. continued actiavtion causes fasiculation. MOA: desensitisation --> Phase I: membrane depolarises, resulting in an initial discharge that produce transient fasciculations, followed by flaccid paralysis Phase II: membrane repolarises, but the receptor is desensitized to to the effect of ACh
33
side effects of suxamethonium:
bradycardia cardiac arrhythmia release of K+ in burned or injured patients incraesed IOP
34
what type of cholinesterase blockers are there (classification)
short-acting, intermediate acting and long acting (irreversible)
35
what is one example of short acting anticholinesterase
edrophonium
36
what is edrophonium and what can it be used for
short-acting antiAChE can be used to improve muscle stregnth, esp in myasthenia gravies where autoantibodies act against the nicotinic receptor. can be used to differentiate with anticholinesterase overdose, which muscle strength will not occur
37
what are some examples of intermediate/ medium acting anticholinesterases
neostigmine and pyridostigmine
38
why are medium acting and short acting anticholinesterases act reversibly?
short-acting - quanternary ammonium medium acting - carbamyl, possesing basic group both interact with anionic site of AChE
39
what are some examples of long acting irreversible drugs?
echothipate, dyflos
40
structure and MOA of long acting reversibel drugs
pentavalent phosphorus compounds containing a labile group such as F (dyflos) and organic group (echothipate), the groups are released, leading the SerOH phosphorylated. interacts with teh esteric site, and the inactive phosphorylated usually very stable. clinclly used fr the treatmet of glaucoma recovery of the enzymatic acitivty depends on the synthesis of new enzyme molecules (takes weeks)
41
what are the 3 effects of anticholinesterase on: autonomic postganglionic parasympathetic (cholinergic synpases CNS NMJ
1. enhancement of ACh activity at parasympathetic postganglionic synapses (increased secretions..... etc) but hten at higher doses can lead to depolarisation block due to ACh build up 2. some can penetrate the BBB freely and affect the brain, leading to initial excitation, then convulsions then depression. e.g. physostigmine and other non-polar organophosphates 3. NMJ - repeated firing, twicth tension of the muslce is stimulated - helps with non-depolarising block and MG (where there are too few receptors)
42
what do u understand by the neurotoxicity of organophosphates?
irreversible right, can causes severe type of delayed peripheral nerve damage and leads to progressive weakness and sensory loss. within a few hours the phosphorylated enzyme undergoes a chemical change "ageing", and this makes the enzyme no longer susceptible to the reactivation.
43
what can be used to reverse the neurotoxicity of organophosphates?
pralidoxime. reactives the enz by bringing the oxime group in close proximity to the phosphorylated esteratic site, and lures the phosphate group away from the serine OH group, but must be given before ageing
44
state the 6 steps of acetylcholine synthesis and productio
1. Synthesis: choline is transported from the ECF into the cytoplasm of the neuron by an energy-dependent Na-transporter (this is the rate limiting step). In cytoplasm, cholineacetyltransferase catalyses the reaction of choline with acetyl-coA (from mitochondria). 2. Storage in vesicles: ACh-H+ antiport (vesicle associated transporter) pumps H+ into vesicle, and vesicles contain ACh, ATP and proteoglycan. 3. Release: AP reaches the nerve endings, then stimulates Ca2+ influx which triggers the vesicles to be exocytosed, releasing ACh into the synapse. There are 2 pools of ACh, “depot” pool positioned near the presynaptic membrane and “reserve” pool which replaces the “depot” pool ACh released as discrete quanta (little packages) 4. Binding of ACh: postsynaptic receptor is activated by the binding of ACh. 5. Degradation of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft: acetylcholinesterase rapidly hydrolyse ACh back into acetate and choline, which is then recycled. 6. Recycling of choline and acetate: choline might be recaptured into the neuron. 7. Action of ACh: ACh acting on postsynaptic membrane can cause an increase in its permeability to cations and resulting Na+ influx, causing a depolarisation.
45
5 targets of ACh transmission
1. choline uptake: hemicholinum 2. Cholineacetyltransferase: naphthyl vinylpyridine (NVP) 3. Vesamicol inhibits ACh sotrage (ACh-H+ antiporter) 4. Ca2+ channels inhibited by verapamil 5. Release mechanism inhibited by botulinum toxin
46
mechanism of botulinum toxin
botulinum toxin has light and heavy chains, held together by disulfide bonds, binds to membrane receptor. endocytosis of BT, disulfide bone, light chainmoves out of the endosomal membrnae and celeaves specific SNARE proteins. SNARE proteins required for the vesicle containing ACh to fuse iwth the membrnae and release the transmitter. degradation of SNARE proteins Type B, D, F, G cleaves synaptobrevin (VAMP) Type A and E cleaves SNAP 25 Type C cleaves syntaxin