Chlamydia Flashcards

1
Q

What are Chlamydias?

A
  • obligate intracellular bacteria
  • lost their ability to survive outside of eukaryotic cell
  • need to invade and replicate
  • double membrane - will peptoglycan layer in middle
  • truncated lipopolysaccharide
  • member of chylamydiales
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the general characteristics of Chlamydia?

A
  • coccoid
  • non-motile
  • no flavoproteins or cytochromes - energy generating
  • genome = 1.04-1.23 size
  • 1000 proteins
  • DNA interspecies exchange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does C.pneumoniae infect?

A
  • mammals
  • reptiles
  • amphibians
  • marsupials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which species of Chlamydia infect pigs?

A
  • C.suis
  • C.psittaci
  • C.abortus
  • C.pecorum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

WHich Chlamydia species are zoonotic?

A
  • C.abortus
  • C.suis
  • C.psittaci
  • C.pneumoniae
  • C.felis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the developmental cycle of Chlamydia

A
  • Elementary bodies - not dividing and infectious
  • attach to eu cell and are ingested
  • fuse with phagosome
  • then are reticulate bodies - inside a vacuole that provides everything they need
  • then RB start to condense into EBs
  • form an inclusion body
  • cell lysis takes place - releases the EBs
  • 72 hour cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an aberrant body?

A
  • persistent infection
  • no cell lysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How to ABs form?

A
  • produced under adverse environmental conditions
    • too low antibiotic conc
    • host immune response (gamma)
  • non-infectious but viable
    • have altered transcription of membrane proteins, virulence factors and energy metabolism
  • removal of stress allows development
  • leads to treatment failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What else happens during infection?

A
  • get actin polymerisation in the cell
  • EB sucked into vacuole
  • makes an injection needle - interacts with vacuolar membrane
  • injects proteins into cell - makes sure vacuole is provided with everything it needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Chlamydia trichomatous cause?

A
  • ocular infections
  • types A + C
  • blindness - developing countries
  • infection of the conjuctival ep
  • eyelashes scratch the eyeball -> corneal scarring (Trichomatous trichiasis)
  • transmitted through discharges (person -person / flies)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the public health burden of trachomatis?

A
  • 1.9m - visual/ blind
  • 40m - with disease
  • 190m - at risk
  • in endemic areas - 60-90% children infected
  • 48 countries have endemic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What types of Chlamydia trachomatis causes urogenital infections?

A
  • D and K
  • women - uretheritis, cervicitis, PID, ectoptic pregnancy, premature delivery, postpartum fever
  • men - urethritis, white discharge out of penis, proctitis, 7-28 days after infection, burning, need to urinate more
  • lympogranuloma venereum (LGV) - types L1-L3
  • Both - Reiters syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the public health burden of the urogenital infection?

A
  • <20% lead to infertility
  • 70% in under 25s
  • 50% of infections resolve themselves in 12 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatments for LGV and urogenital/ ocular?

A
  • LGV = tetracycline, 21 days
  • ocular/ urogenital = azithromycin or doxycycline - 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathogenesis of EAE?

A
  • detected at 90 days
  • targets the trophoblast layer
    • causes vasculitis, necrosis and inflammation
  • causes abortion:
    • ​reduced effiency of the foetal-maternal exchange
    • endocrine dysfunction
    • immune balanced changed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical signs of EAE?

A
  • abortion storm 5-10%
  • fresh looking lambs - necrotic placenta and dirty pink uterine discharge
  • one dead one weak alive lamb can occur
  • ewe not affected - future - fertile
17
Q

How do you treat EAE?

A
  • oxytetracycline
  • destroy bedding
  • clean up aborted material
  • do not use lambs fostered on aborted lambs
  • cull
18
Q

What are the symptoms of chlamydia felis?

A
  • conjuncitivis, rhinitis, nasal discharge
  • common under 1 year
  • mucopurulent ocular discharge - secondary infections
  • mlti cat households
19
Q

How does chlamydia infect cows?

A
  • bovine encephalomyelitis
    • depression
    • salivation
    • high fever
    • diarrhoea
    • reduced coordination
  • 2 weeks
  • 50% mortality
  • tetracycline might help
20
Q

Describe chlamydiosis in koalas?

A
  • massive conservation problem (10-90%)
  • C.percorum
  • kerato-conjunctivitis
  • urogenital and ocular disease
  • wet and dirty tail - UTIs and infertility
  • ulcerations around tail
  • transmission - mother-joey/ sexual
  • treatment - antibiotics in early phases/ untreatable in late
  • 30 day treatment
  • vaccines - partial protection to 3/10 types
21
Q

Which type of Chlamydia infect birds?

A
  • C.psittaci
22
Q

What are the clinical signs of avian Chlamydiosis?

A
  • respitory and digestive disease
  • spread through faeces and resp discharge
  • activated by stress
  • nasal/ocular discharge
  • resp distress
  • diarrhoea
  • Prevent:
    • quaratine all incoming birds
    • tetracycline iin food
    • husbandry
23
Q

Is C.pisttaci zoonotic?

A
  • yes
  • spread to mammals including humans
  • parrot fever
  • high fever, chills, non-productive coughing
  • difficulty breathing
  • chills
  • headaches
  • death - by pneumonia
  • 10 days after
  • tetracyclines
24
Q

What does C.pneumonia cause?

A
  • upper and lower resp infections in humans
  • infects a wide range of hosts
  • 5-10% of infections
  • laryngitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis
  • spreads from lungs to peripheral organs
  • human - human
  • 3-4 weeks incubation
25
Q
A