child health Flashcards

1
Q

What is perthes disease?

A

childhood orthopaedic condition characterized by idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

who does perthes disease occur in?

A

boys, aged 4-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aetiology of perthes disease?

A

HLA, genetic predis, vascular abn, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

staging of perthes disease?

A

Catteral staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

features of perthes disease

A

> Pain - most common.
limping - antalgic or trendeleburg
limited motion
leg length discrepency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is trendeleburh due to?

A

abductor weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pain in perthes disease?

A

> pain localized to the hip, groin, or medial thigh.
The pain may be aggravated by activity and alleviated by rest.
In some cases, pain may be referred to the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

radiological findings of perthes disease?

A

Findings include femoral head fragmentation, sclerosis, and flattening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

scans used for perthes?

A

> MRI - can detect early stages
bone scintigraphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cons management of perthes?

A

> pain management: analgesic, anti-inflammtories
physical therapy
orthotic devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

surgical management of perthes?

A

> Indications for surgery include persistent pain, progressive deformity, or failed conservative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

complications of perthes?

A

> residual deformaty
osteoarth
leg length discrepancy
femoracetabular impingement
avascular necrosis recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DDH?

A

> Often picked up on newborn examination
Barlow’s test, Ortolani’s test are positive
Unequal skin folds/leg length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Transient synovitis (irritable hip)

A

> Typical age group = 2-10 years
Acute hip pain associated with viral infection
Commonest cause of hip pain in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FEATURES OF PERTHES DISEASE xr

A

x-ray: early changes include widening of joint space, later changes include decreased femoral head size/flattening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

slipped femoral epiphysis epi?

A

> Typical age group = 10-15 years
More common in obese children and boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does slipped uppe femoral epiphysis present?

A

May present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

features of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

knee or distal thigh pain is common
loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

features of juvenile idiopathic arthirits?

A

joint pain and swelling: usually medium sized joints e.g. knees, ankles, elbows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

JIA is?

A

limp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what can be positive in JIA?

A

ANA - assoc w anterior uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

septic arthi?

A

Acute hip pain associated with systemic upset e.g. pyrexia. Inability/severe limitation of affected joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SUFE epi?

A

> head of femur slips along growth plate
more common in boys and obese children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

presentation of SUFE?

A

The typical exam presentation is an adolescent, obese male undergoing agrowth spurt. There may be a history ofminor traumathat triggers the onset of symptoms. Suspect SUFE if the pain is disproportionate to the severity of the trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sx of SUFE?

A

> Hip, groin, thigh or knee pain
Restricted range of movement in the hip
Painful limp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

SUFE examination?

A

When examining the patient, they will prefer to keep the hip inexternal rotation. They will have limited movement of the hip, particularlyrestricted internal rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SUFE dx?

A

> XR
BTs normal
bone scan, CT, MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mx of SUFE?

A

Surgery - returns femoral head to correct position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

septic arthiritis is most common in?

A

kids under 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

septic arthiritis is a common comp of?

A

joint replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

presentation of SA?

A

Septic arthritis usually only affects a single joint. This is often a knee or hip. It presents with a rapid onset of:

> Hot, red, swollen and painful joint
Refusing to weight bear
Stiffness and reduced range of motion
Systemic symptoms such as fever, lethargy and sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common cause of SA?

A

> STAPH A
Neisseria gonorrhoea (gonococcus) in sexually active teenagers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ix in SA?

A

> joint aspiration b4 ab if poss - send for gram staining, culture, ab sensitivities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mx of SA?

A

> IV ab
surg drainage and washout of joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is osteomyelitis?

A

> inflammation of bone, usually due to bacteria - mostly staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

key RF for osteomyelitis?

A

> open fractures
Orthopaedic operations, particularly with prosthetic joints
Diabetes, particularly with diabetic foot ulcers
Peripheral arterial disease
IV drug use
Immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The typical presentation of osteomyelitis is with:

A

> Fever
Pain and tenderness
Erythema
Swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

osteomyelitis XR findings?

A

> often normal in early disease
Periosteal reaction (changes to the surface of the bone)
Localised osteopenia (thinning of the bone)
Destruction of areas of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Imaging for osteomyelitis?

A

> MRI
Blood tests will show raised inflammatory markers (e.g., WBC, CRP and ESR).
Blood cultures and bone cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Mx of osteomyelitis?

A

> Surgical debridement of the infected bone and tissues
Antibiotic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ab req for acute osteomyelitis?

A

> 6 weeks of flucloxacillin, possibly with rifampicin or fusidic acid added for the first 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Alt to flucloxacillin for osteomyelitis?

A

> Clindamycin in penicillin allergy
Vancomycin or teicoplanin when treating MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

chronic osteomyelitis?

A

usually requires 3 months or more of antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

diagnosis of SA?

A

> The Kocher criteria for the diagnosis of septic arthritis:
fever >38.5 degrees C
non-weight bearing
raised ESR
raised WCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Red flags that may indicate an underlying serious disease or condition in a child presenting with an acute limp include

A

Pain waking the child at night — may indicate malignancy.
Redness, swelling, or stiffness of the joint or limb — may indicate infection or inflammatory joint disease.
Weight loss, anorexia, fever, night sweats, or fatigue — may indicate malignancy, infection, or inflammation.
Unexplained rash or bruising — may indicate haematological or inflammatory joint disease, or child maltreatment.
Limp and stiffness worse in the morning — may indicate inflammatory joint disease.
Unable to bear weight or painful limitation of range of motion — may indicate trauma or infection.
Severe pain, anxiety, and agitation after a traumatic injury — may indicate neurovascular compromise or impending compartment syndrome.
A palpable mass — may indicate malignancy or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is muscular dystrophy?

A

umbrella term for genetic conditions that cause gradual weakening and wasting of muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Gowers sign?

A

Children withproximal muscle weaknessuse a specific technique to stand up from a lying position. This is calledGower’s sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

there is a 5 year old boy presenting with vague symptoms of muscle weakness and the description is that you notice them using their hands on their legs to help them stand up, the answer is probably

A

Duchennes muscular dystrophy. They may ask “what is the underlying genetic inheritance of the most likely cause?” The answer is X-linked recessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mx of DMD?

A

> Imp QOL - occupational therapy, physiotherapy and medical appliances (such as wheelchairs and braces)
surgical and medical management of complications such as spinal scoliosis and heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is DMD?

A

> Most common dystrophy
caused by defective gene for dystrophin on CX
X LINKED RECESSIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

DMD presentation?

A

> Boys with Duchennes present around 3 – 5 years with weakness in the muscles around their pelvis.
The weakness tends to be progressive and eventually all muscles will be affected.
They are usually wheelchair bound by the time they become a teenager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Beckers muscular dystrophy?

A

> dystrophin gene less affecred
symptoms appear 8-12 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

myotonic dystrophy presents in?

A

adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

TP of myotonic dystrophy?

A

> Progressive muscle weakness
Prolonged muscle contractions
Cataracts
Cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

key feature of myotonic dystrophy?

A

> prolonged muscle contraction - unable to let go of something, unable to release grip on something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Facioscapulohumeral Muscular Dystrophy

A

> usually presents in childhood
weakness around face> shoulders > arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

classical initial symptom of facioscuapulohumeral dystrophy?

A

> A classic initial symptom is sleeping with their eyes slightly open and weakness in pursing their lips.
They are unable to blow their cheeks out without air leaking from their mouth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Oculopharyngeal Muscular Dystrophy pres?

A

usually presents in late adulthood with weakness of theocular muscles(around the eyes) andpharyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Oculopharyngeal Muscular Dystrophy features?

A

bilateral ptosis, restricted eye movement and swallowing problems. Muscles around the limb girdles are also affected to varying degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Limb girdle dystrophy?

A

Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy usually presents in teenage years with progressive weakness around the limb girdles (hips and shoulders).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Emery-Dreifuss Muscular Dystrophy

A

> Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy usually presents in childhood with contractures, most commonly in the elbows and ankles.
Patients also suffer with progressive weakness and wasting of muscles, starting with the upper arms and lower legs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

gait in DMD?

A

waddling gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

DMD Ix?

A

CK - nearly always raised. Genetic testing uded to confirm diagnosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

DMD - what to check?

A

it is important to check thecreatine kinase levelin children whocannot walk by 18 months of ageto screen for MD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Predicted heigh calc?

A

> Boys: (mother height + fathers height + 14cm) / 2
Girls: (mothers height + father height – 14cm) / 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

complications of GORD in kids?

A

> reflux oesophagitis
recurrent aspiration pneumonia
recurrent otitis media
dental erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Tx of GORD in kids?

A

1) Gaviscon infant - dual satchets
2) Ranitidine/ Omeprazole – oral suspension (2mg/ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Sig of bile stained vomiting?

A

In neonates or infants it is an indication of bowel obstruction until proven otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

intussuption?

A

> v young - can have non billous vomiting/no pain/ well
Dance’s sign - empty RIF
USS usually +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

double bubble sign?

A

duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

bowel obst?

A

dilated bowel loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

air enema can be seen in?

A

inters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

overflow soiling?

A

> v loose, smelly, passed without sensation or awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Hirscsprungs disease?

A

absence of air in bowel, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mx of const?

A

> bristol stool chart
bowel habit diary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ribbon stool pattern?

A

anal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

GE is a ? Diseease

A

notifiable - let HPA know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

assessing dehydration/ shock?

A

> unwell
lethargic
pale/ mottled skin
cold extremities
sunken eyes
dry membranes/ skin turgor
tachycardia/ tachypnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

No dehydration?

A

continue BF, ORS as supplement, no fruit juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Dehydrated but at home (under 5)

A

> less than 5 yrs = 50ml/kg for deficit over 4 hrs + maintenance ORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Dehydrated but at home (over 5)

A

> 200ml ORS after each loose stool plus normal fluid intake
5 ml/kg ORS after each watery stool to prevent recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

avoid ? Until dehydration corrected?

A

solids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

most common cause of coeliac disease?

A

coeliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

sign of coeliac?

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

eneuresis?

A

> considered normal under 5 yrs
over 5 at leasr 2x week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

RF for enuresis?

A

> FH
males
const, faecal impaction
sleep apnoea
developmental delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Mx of daytime wetting?

A

> double voiding bladder retraining
oxybutynin or imipramine (AM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Mx noctural enuresis?

A

> first line: alarm system
desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How can constipation present?

A

> Less than 3 stools a week
Hard stools that are difficult to pass
Rabbit dropping stools
Straining and painful passages of stools
Abdominal pain
Holding an abnormal posture, referred to as retentive posturing
Rectal bleeding associated with hard stools
Faecal impaction causing overflow soiling, with incontinence of particularly loose smelly stools
Hard stools may be palpable in abdomen
Loss of the sensation of the need to open the bowels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is encopresis?

A

> faecal inc
not pathological until 4
usually sign of chronic const
Large hard stools remain in the rectum and only loose stools are able to bypass the blockage and leak out, causing soiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what else can cause encopresis?

A

> spinal bfidia
hirschrpungs disease
CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

LF in const?

A

Habitually not opening the bowels
Low fibre diet
Poor fluid intake and dehydration
Sedentary lifestyle
Psychosocial problems such as a difficult home or school environment (always keep safeguarding in mind)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

secondary causes of const?

A

> hirschprungs disease
CF - meconium ileus
hypothyroid
abuse
cows milk intolerance
anal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Constipation red flags - not passing…

A

Not passing meconiumwithin 48 hours of birth (cystic fibrosis or Hirschsprung’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Constipation red flags - neurological…

A

Neurologicalsigns or symptoms, particularly in the lower limbs (cerebral palsy or spinal cord lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

constipation red flags - vomiting?

A

Vomiting(intestinal obstruction or Hirschsprung’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

constipation red flags - anb anus?>

A

anal stenosis, inflammatory bowel disease or sexual abuse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

constipation red flags - FTT?

A

oeliac disease, hypothyroidism or safeguarding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Const red flags - acute severe abd pain and bloating?

A

obstruction or intussusception)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

comps of constipation?

A

Pain
Reduced sensation
Anal fissures
Haemorrhoids
Overflow and soiling
Psychosocial morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

first line laxative?

A

Movicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Faecal impaction may require a

A

disimpaction regimenwith high doses of laxatives at first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

constipation lifestyle?

A

Correct any reversible contributing factors, recommend a high fibre diet and good hydration

Encourage and praise visiting the toilet. This could involve scheduling visits, a bowel diary and star charts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
A

> Chronic cough
Hoarse cry
Distress, crying or unsettled after feeding
Reluctance to feed
Pneumonia
Poor weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

It is normal for babies to have some reflux after larger feeds. It becomes more troublesome when this causes them to become distressed. Signs of problematic reflux include:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

causes of vomiting?

A

Overfeeding
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Pyloric stenosis (projective vomiting)
Gastritis or gastroenteritis
Appendicitis
Infections such as UTI, tonsillitis or meningitis
Intestinal obstruction
Bulimia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Vomiting - red flags - not keeping down food?

A

pyloric stenosis or intestinal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Vomiting - red flags - projectile/ or forceful vomiting?

A

pyloric stenosis or intestinal obstructio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

vomiting - bile stained?

A

IO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

vomiting - haematemsis/ melena?

A

peptic ulcer, oesophagitis or varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

vomiting - abd distension?

A

(intestinal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

vomiting - Reduced consciousness, bulging fontanelle or neurological signs

A

meningitis or raised intracranial pressure)

113
Q

vomiting - blood in stool?

A

astroenteritis or cows milk protein allerg

114
Q

vomiting, rashing, angioedema?

A

cows milk protein allergy

115
Q

Advice on managing vomiting?

A

> Small, frequent meals
Burping regularly to help milk settle
Not over-feeding
Keep the baby upright after feeding (i.e. not lying flat)

116
Q

Tx of severe vomiting?

A

> Gaviscon mixed with feeds
Thickened milk or formula (specific anti-reflux formulas are available)
Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) where other methods are inadequate

117
Q

Sandifer’s Syndrome

A

> causing brief episodes of abnormal movements associated with gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
torticollis - forceful contraction of the neck -> twisting
dystonia - abnormal muscle contractions causing twisting movements, arching of the back or unusual postures

118
Q

Pyloric stenosis presentation?

A

> typically presents in the first few weeks of life, with a hungry baby that is thin, pale and generally failing to thrive.
projectile vomiting

119
Q

examination findings in pyloric stenosis?>

A

f examined after feeding, often the peristalsis can be seen by observing the abdomen. A firm, round mass can be felt in the upper abdomen that “feels like a large olive”. This is caused by thehypertrophicmuscle of thepylorus.

120
Q

PS ABG?

A

hypochloric(low chloride)metabolic alkalosisas the baby is vomiting thehydrochloric acidfrom the stomach.

121
Q

diagnosis of PS?

A

abd US - shows thickened pylorus

122
Q

Tx of PS?

A

Treatmentinvolves alaparoscopic pyloromyotomy(known as “Ramstedt’s operation“). An incision is made in the smooth muscle of the pylorus to widen the canal allowing that food to pass from the stomach to the duodenum as normal.P

123
Q

Key conditions to think about in patients with loose stools are:

A

> Infection (gastroenteritis)
Inflammatory bowel disease
Lactose intolerance
Coeliac disease
Cystic fibrosis
Toddler’s diarrhoea
Irritable bowel syndrome
Medications (e.g. antibiotics)

124
Q

Most common cause of GE?

A

Rotavirus

125
Q

E coli GE?

A

> Abd cramps, vomiting, bloody diarrgoea

126
Q

HUS?

A

> E coli
use of ab inc risk

127
Q

how is e coli spread?

A

It is spread through contact with infected faeces, unwashed salads or contaminated water.

128
Q

Camplyobacter jejuni?

A

> most common cause of bac GE worldwide
spread by:
Raw or improperly cooked poultry
Untreated water
Unpasteurised milk

129
Q

Symptoms of Camp GE?

A

> Incubation is usually 2 to 5 days. Symptoms resolve after 3 to 6 days. Symptoms are:

> Abdominal cramps
Diarrhoea often with blood
Vomiting
Fever

130
Q

How is shigella spreaD?

A

spread by faeces contaminating drinking water, swimming pools and food

131
Q

inc period for shigella?

A

he incubation period is 1 to 2 days and symptoms usually resolve within 1 week without treatmen

132
Q

shigella GE?

A

causes bloody diarrhoea, abdominal cramps and fever

133
Q

Which toxins produce HUS?

A

Shigella and E coli

134
Q

salmonella spread?

A

Salmonellais spread by eating raw eggs or poultry, or food contaminated with the infected faeces of small animals.

135
Q

salmonella inc period?

A

Incubation is 12 hours to 3 days and symptoms usually resolve within 1 week.

136
Q

salmonella symptoms?

A

Symptoms are watery diarrhoea that can be associated with mucus or blood, abdominal pain and vomiting

137
Q

bac cereus spread?

A

Bacillus cereus is agram positive rodspread through inadequately cooked food. It grows well on food not immediately refrigerated after cooking. The typical food isfried riceleft out at room temperature.

138
Q

bac cereus time frame?

A

The typical course is vomiting within 5 hours, then diarrhoea after 8 hours, then resolution within 24 hours.

139
Q

yersinia?

A

> raw/ undercooked porj
also spread through contamination with the urine or faeces of other mammal such as rats and rabbits.
most commonly affects kids

140
Q

inc of yersinia?

A

Incubation is 4 to 7 days and the illness can last longer than other causes of enteritis with symptoms lasting 3 weeks or more.

141
Q

how can yersinia present in older kids?

A

Older children or adults can present with right sided abdominal pain duemesenteric lymphadenitis(inflammation in the intestinal lymph nodes) and fever. This can give the impression ofappendicitis.

142
Q

staph a foods?

A

Staphylococcus aureuscan produceenterotoxinswhen growing on food such as eggs, dairy and meat.

143
Q

staph a time course?

A

start within hours of ingestion and settle within 12 to 24 hours

144
Q

Giardiasis?

A

> parasite
faecal oral transmission

145
Q

RF for giardiasis?

A

> foreign travel
swimming/drinking water from a river or lake
male-male sexual contact

146
Q

most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

E coli

147
Q

E coli summary?

A

> Common amongst travellers
Watery stools
Abdominal cramps and nausea

148
Q

Giardiasis?

A

Prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea

149
Q

Cholera?

A

> Profuse, watery diarrhoea
Severe dehydration resulting in weight loss
Not common amongst travellers

150
Q

Shigella?

A

> Bloody diarrhoea
Vomiting and abdominal pain

151
Q

Staph A?

A

> Severe vomiting
Short incubation period

152
Q

campb?

A

> A flu-like prodrome is usually followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever and diarrhoea which may be bloody
May mimic appendicitis

153
Q

comp of campb?

A

GBS

154
Q

bac cereus?

A

> Two types of illness are seen
vomiting within 6 hours, stereotypically due to rice
diarrhoeal illness occurring after 6 hours

155
Q

Amoebiasis?

A

Gradual onset bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and tenderness which may last for several weeks

156
Q

1-6 hrs incubation ?

A

Staphylococcusaureus and Bacillus cereus

157
Q

12-48 hrs?

A

Salmonella,Escherichia coli

158
Q

48-72 hrs

A

Shigella,Campylobacter

159
Q

> 7 days?

A

giardiasis, amoebiasis

160
Q

Mx of giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

161
Q

Mx of cholera?

A
  1. Doxycycline or 2. Ciprofloxacin
162
Q

Mx of shigella?

A
  1. Ciprofloxacin or 2. Azithromycin
163
Q

Mx of campb?

A

Clarithromycin

164
Q

Mx of Bac cerus?

A

Self Limiting OR Severe = Vancomycin

165
Q

Mx of amoebiasis?

A

Metronidazole + + Diloxanide Furoate

166
Q

Bloody diarrhoea?

A

> Bloody diarrhoea (Blood SAC)
- Shigella
- Amoebiasis (gradual onset)
- Campy (flu s+s)

167
Q

ab in coeliac?

A

anti-TTG abd anti EMA

168
Q

inflammation in coeliac?

A

Inflammation affects the small bowel, particularly thejejunum. It causesatrophyof theintestinal villi.

169
Q

Sx of coeliac?

A

> Failure to thrive in young children
Diarrhoea
Fatigue
Weight loss
Mouth ulcers
Anaemia secondary to iron, B12 or folate deficiency
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an itchy blistering skin rash that typically appears on the abdomen

170
Q

watery diarrhoea?

A

Watery diarrhoea (Water CCCEG)
- Cholera (rice water diarrhoea)
- Cryptosporidiosis (most common protozoal cause in UK)
- Can be Campy
- E.coli (traveller)
- Giardiasis (fatty stool)

171
Q

Neuro symptoms of coeliac?

A

> Peripheral neuropathy
Cerebellar ataxia
Epilepsy

172
Q

Test all T1D patients for…

A

coeliac

173
Q

gene is coeliac?

A

HLA-DQ2

174
Q

Testing for coeliac ab?

A

test for TTG and EMA, test total IgA levels as some ppts have igA deficiency

175
Q

Endoscopy and intestinal biopsy show (coeliac)

A

“Crypt hypertrophy”
“Villous atrophy”

176
Q

Comps of untreated coeliac?

A

> osteoporosis
EATL
non hodgkins lymphoma

177
Q

Tx of coeliac?

A

lifelong gluten free diet

178
Q

causes of intestinal obst?

A

> Meconium ileus
Hirschsprung’s disease
Oesophageal atresia
Duodenal atresia
Intussusception
Imperforate anus
Malrotation of the intestines with a volvulus
Strangulated hernia

179
Q

Presentation of intestinal obst?

A

> pers vomiting, might be billous (containing bright green bile)
abd pain & distention
high pitched, tinkling bowel sounds, absent later

180
Q

Ix of intestinal obst?

A

> abd XR
This may show dilated loops of bowel proximal to the obstruction and collapsed loops of bowel distal to the obstruction.
There will also be absence of air in the rectum.

181
Q

Mx of intest obst?

A

> paeds surgical unit as an emergency
make them nbm abd insert nasogastric tube
IV fluids to correct dehydration

182
Q

Hirscsprungs disease is caused by?

A

> absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells
occurs when the parasympathetic ganglion cells do not travel all the way down the colon, and a section of colon at the end is left without these parasympathetic ganglion cells.

183
Q

pathophys of hirscprungs disease?

A

> aganglionic sections become constricted as they cannot relax
loss of movement of faeces -> bowel obst

184
Q

Genetic associations of hirschsprungs disease?

A

> downs
neurofiromatosis
waardenburg syndrome
MEN 2

185
Q

Waardenburg syndrome

A

a genetic condition causing pale blue eyes, hearing loss and patches of white skin and hair

186
Q

Symptoms of hirscprungs?

A

> Delay in passing meconium (more than 24 hours)
Chronic constipation since birth
Abdominal pain and distention
Vomiting
Poor weight gain and failure to thrive

187
Q

Hirschsprung-Associated Enterocolitis

A

> inflammation abd obst of intestine
ypically presents within 2-4 weeks of birth with fever, abdominal distention, diarrhoea (often with blood) and features of sepsis.

188
Q

what can HAEC lead to?

A

> It is life threatening and can lead to toxic megacolon and perforation of the bowel.
It requires urgent antibiotics, fluid resuscitation and decompression of the obstructed bowe

189
Q

Ix of hirschspring

A

> Abd XR - bowel obst
rectal biopsy

190
Q

Mx of hirschsprung?

A

> Unwell children and those with enterocolitis will require initial fluid resuscitation and management of the intestinal obstruction.
IV antibiotics are required in HAEC.

191
Q

def Mx of hirschsprung?

A

Definitive management is bysurgical removalof theaganglionicsection of bow

192
Q

Intussusception occurs in?

A

> infants 6 months - 2 yrs
more common in boys

193
Q

What is Intussusception assoc w ?

A

> concurrent vital illness
HSP
CF

194
Q

key feature of intussuception?

A

Redcurrantjelly stool

195
Q

Presentation of tussuscepeption?

A

> severe, colicky abd pain
pale, lethargic, unwell
RUQ mass on palpation - sausage shaped
intest obstruction and vomiting

196
Q

Ix of intussception?

A

US

197
Q

Mx of intussception?

A

> therapeutic enemas
surgical reduction if enemas don’t work
surgical resection if bowel becomes gangerenous

198
Q

comps of intussception?

A

> Obstruction
Gangrenous bowel
Perforation
Death

199
Q

appendicitis?

A

> abd pain - starts central then moves to RIF

200
Q

appendicitis - palpation?

A

> On palpation of the abdomen there is tenderness in McBurney’s point.
This is a localised area one third the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the umbilicus.

201
Q

CFs of appendicitis?

A

> anorexia
N and V
Rosvings sign
rebound tenderness and guarding (peritonitis)
percussion tenderness

202
Q

Rosvings sign?

A

> palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the RIF

203
Q

Diagnosis of appendicitis?

A

> CP and raised inflammatory markers
CT can be done to confitm
US in female patients to exclude gynae

204
Q

signs of appendicitis but Ix negative means….

A

> diagnostic laparoscopy

205
Q

DDs of appendicitis?

A

> ectopic pregnancy
ovarian cysts
meckles diverticulum
appendix mass

206
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum

A

Meckel’s diverticulum is a malformation of thedistal ileum. It is usually asymptomatic, however it can bleed, become inflamed, rupture or cause avolvulusorintussusception.

207
Q

Mesenteric Adenitis

A

> Mesenteric adenitis describes inflamed abdominal lymph nodes.
This presents with abdominal pain, usually in younger children.
This is often associated with tonsillitis or an upper respiratory tract infection.

208
Q

Mx of appendicitis?

A

> appendicectomy
laparoscopic fewer SE vs laparotomy

209
Q

PS summary?

A

> Projectile non bile stained vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life
Diagnosis is made by test feed or USS

210
Q

Mesenteric Adenitis?

A

> Central abdominal pain and URTI
Conservative management

211
Q

intestinal malrotation?

A

> High caecum at the midline
Feature in exomphalos, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, intrinsic duodenal atresia
May be complicated by the development of volvulus, an infant with volvulus may have bile stained vomiting

212
Q

Oesophageal atresia

A

> Associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios
May present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration

213
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis main RF?

A

PREMATURITY. Also Increased risk when empirical antibiotics are given to infants beyond 5 days

214
Q

features of nec enterocolitis?

A

> abd distension
passage of bloody stools

215
Q

XR of nec enterocolitis?

A

> X-Rays may show pneumatosis intestinalis and evidence of free air

216
Q

Tx of nec enterocolitis?

A

Treatment is with total gut rest and TPN, babies with perforations will require laparotomy

217
Q

Arrange same-day hospital admission if there is associated:

A

Bile-stained (green or yellow-green) vomiting, abdominal tenderness, mass, and/or distension — suggesting intestinal obstruction or another acute surgical condition needing paediatric surgery assessment.

218
Q

SBO features on abd XR?

A

> Dilated bowel
central abd location
lines completely crossing bowel

219
Q

LBO features on XR?

A

> Dilated bowel
peripheral location
and haustral lines visible (lines not completely crossing the bowel, ‘indents that go Halfway are Haustra’)

220
Q

Mx of child constipation - faecal impaction?

A

> Movicol paed plain - first line
2) stimulant laxative if disimpaction not achieved within 2 weeks

221
Q

Mx of child const?

A

1) movicol
2) add stimulant laxative
3) substitute a stimulant laxative if Movicol Paediatric Plain is not tolerated.

222
Q

Mx of constipation in babies < 6 months?

A

> bottle-fed infants: give extra water in between feeds. Try gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs
breast-fed infants: constipation is unusual and organic causes should be considered

223
Q

Infants who have been weaned - constipation Mx?

A

> offer extra water, diluted fruit juice and fruits
if not effective consider adding lactulose

224
Q

Children at inc risk of dehydration?

A

> children under 1
low birth weight
vomited more than 3x in 24 hrs
6x+ diarrhoea in 24 hrs
stoooed breastfeeding in illness

225
Q

features suggestive of hypernatreamic dehydration?

A

> jittery movements
increased muscle tone
hyperreflexia
convulsions
drowsiness or coma

226
Q

For children with no evidence of dehydration

A

> continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds
encourage fluid intake
discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks

227
Q

If dehydration is suspected:

A

> give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts
continue breastfeeding
consider supplementing with usual fluids (including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks)

228
Q

most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in children?

A

cows milk intolerance

229
Q

CF of toddlers diarhoea?

A

> frequent, poorly formed brown and slightly offensive stools
food material easily recognisable in the stools is a hallmark feature

230
Q

what is the child normally like in toddlers diarrhoea?

A

Despite persisting diarrhoea the child is constitutionally well, normally active and has unimpaired growth. The child has a normal appetite and a normal or increased fluid intake.

231
Q

diet in toddlers diarrhoea?

A

high fruit intake of fruit juices

232
Q

Mx of toddlers diarrhea?

A

reassurance & avoidance of fulll strength fruit juices

233
Q

always consider UTI in children w?

A

Fevermay be the only symptom of a urinary tract infection, especially in young children. Always consider (and exclude) a urinary tract infection in a child with a temperature, unless there is a clear alternative source of infection.

234
Q

Symptoms of UTI in babies?

A

non specific: Fever
Lethargy
Irritability
Vomiting
Poor feeding
Urinary frequency

235
Q

Signs and symptoms in of UTIs older infants and children are more specific:

A

> Fever
Abdominal pain, particularly suprapubic pain
Vomiting
Dysuria (painful urination)
Urinary frequency
Incontinence

236
Q

Diagnosis of Pyelo is made if there is either:

A

> A temperature greater than 38°C
Loin pain or tenderness

237
Q

Urine dipstick results in UTI?

A

> Nitrite + - best measure
leucocyte esterase + - don’t treat as UTI if only this is present

238
Q

tests in UTI?

A

> Dipsrick > send to microbiology if positive
MSU sent for culture and sensitivity testing

239
Q

Mx of a UTI - all children under 3 should have…

A

> All children under 3 months with a fever should start immediate IV antibiotics (e.g. ceftriaxone) and have a full septic screen, including blood cultures, bloods and lactate.
A lumbar puncture should also be considered.

240
Q

Mx of UTI - children over 3 months?

A

> oral ab if othewise well
if features of sepsis or pyelo, treat w IV ab

241
Q

Typical antibiotic choices in urinary tract infections in children are:

A

> Trimethoprim
Nitrofurantoin
Cefalexin
Amoxicillin

242
Q

All childrenunder 6 monthswith their firstUTI should have an abdominal ultrasound within ? weeks

A

All childrenunder 6 monthswith their firstUTI should have an abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks, or during the illness if there are recurrent UTIs or atypical bacteria

243
Q

children w recurrent UTIs should have ? Within ? Weeks

A

abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks

244
Q

Children withatypical UTIsshould have an abdominal ultrasound

A

during the illness

245
Q

DMSA scan?

A

> DMSA scans should be used 4 – 6 months after the illness to assess for damage from recurrent or atypical UTIs.
patches of reduced uptake -> scarring

246
Q

VUR?

A

> Vesico-ureteric reflux (VUR) is where urine has a tendency to flow from the bladder back into the ureters.
This predisposes patients to developing upper urinary tract infections
MCUG used to diagnose

247
Q

when should an MCUG be used?

A

(MCUG) should be used to investigate atypical or recurrent UTIs in childrenunder 6 months. It is also used where there is a family history ofvesico-ureteric reflux,dilatation of the ureteron ultrasound orpoor urinary flow.

248
Q

Mx of UTIs?

A

> children less than 3 months - refer to paeds
ab prophylaxis for recurrent UTIs

249
Q

children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated

A

with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin or amoxicillin

250
Q

children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be

A

considered for admission to hospital. If not admitted oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days

251
Q

Ix for haematuria and proteinuria?

A

> urinalysis
FBC, u&Es, clotting
ACR
GFR

252
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis

A

where the child has never managed to be consistently dry at night.

253
Q

Causes of PNE?

A

> Most common: variation of normal development
OAB
Fluids before bed
failure to wake

254
Q

secondary causes of PNE?

A

chronic constipation, urinary tract infection, learning disability or cerebral palsy

255
Q

first line PNE?

A

The initial step in management of primary nocturnal enuresis is to establish the underlying cause. It can be helpful to keep a2 week diaryof toileting, fluid intake and bedwetting episodes

256
Q

management of PNE?

A

> Reassurance of under 5s that it is likely to resolve w/o Tx
lifestyle changes
treat underlying causes like constipation
eneuresis alarms

257
Q

what is secondary NE?

A

> where a child begins wetting the bed when they have previously been dry for at least 6 months. This is more indicative of an underlying illness than primary enuresis.

258
Q

Causes of secondaru NE?

A

> UTI
const
T1D
psych problems or maltreatment

259
Q

what is diurnal enuresis?

A

daytime incontinence. Dry at night but episodes of incontinence during the day

260
Q

2 types of diurnal eneuresis?

A

> Urge incontinence is an overactive bladder that gives little warning before emptying
Stress incontinence describes leakage of urine during physical exertion, coughing or laughing.

261
Q

meds for eneuresis?

A

> desmopressin
oxybutinin
imipramine

262
Q

primary assessment of child w decreased LOC?

A

> ABCDE
D: use GCS or ACVPU

263
Q

What would suggest ICP in a previously normal child?

A

decorticate or decerebrate positioning

264
Q

CI of LP?

A

> Signs of raised ICP
neurological signs
prolonged/ focal seizures
GCS under 13
dilated pupils
Dolls eye reflex
abn posture - decorticate or decerebrate
coag disorder

265
Q

dolls eye reflex?

A

> CI of LP
eyes should move opp to head movement
if dolls eye reflex is absent and eyes move W the head -> BS dysfunction

266
Q

cushings triad?

A

> slow HR
abn breathing
Widening pulse pressure (raised bp)

> late sign of raised ICP

267
Q

Mx of ICP?

A

> reduce pCO2 by hyperventillating
Head elevation to 30
mannitol or hypertonic saline
catheter and monitor u/o

268
Q

Mx of oedema in a SOL?

A

Dexamethasone

269
Q

cerebral perfusio pressure?

A

> cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the net pressure gradient causing cerebral blood flow to the brain
CPP = mean arterial pressure - ICP

270
Q

causes of raised ICP?

A

> Idiopathic intercranial HTN
traumatic head injuries
hydrocephalus
meningitis
tumours

271
Q

features of raised ICP?

A

> headache
vomiting
reduced levels of consciousness
papilloedema

272
Q

Ix for raised ICP?

A

> CT/MRI - looking for underlying cause

273
Q

ICP - removing CSF?

A

> repeated lumbar puncture (e.g. idiopathic intracranial hypertension)
ventriculoperitoneal shunt (for hydrocephalus)

274
Q

Immediate management of a child with raised ICP?

A

> abc assessment
Oxygen
GCS
tilt head up
O2
Mannitol
Dexamethasone

275
Q

A?

A

> Consider intubation if GCS is <8 (or patient is unresponsive to pain on the AVPU), unless the child is showing signs of improvement.

> Give 100% oxygen if oxygen saturations are ≤95%.

276
Q

Circ?

A

Circulatory compromise should be considered if one or more of the following are present:

> mottled, cool extremities
diminished peripheral pulses.

Consider circulatory shock if one or more of the following are present:

> systolic blood pressure is less than fifth percentile for age
decreased urine output <1 mL/kg/hour

277
Q

differentials for decreased LOC?

A

> Meningitis
acute hydrocephalus
hypoglycaemia
intoxication
HTN

278
Q

Sepis?

A

> htn
tachycardia
tachypnoea
WCC raised
non blanching rash