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Finals: Speciality Blocks > Child Health > Flashcards

Child Health Flashcards

1
Q

Foreign bodies are more likely to be aspirated into which bronchus

A

Right main bronchus as it is wider, shorter and more vertical in comparison to the left

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2
Q

Likely Dx:

3 year old
Large, firm mass can be palpated on the left side of the midline in the upper abdomen
Hypertension
Haematuria

A

Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)

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3
Q

Inferior MI:
A) Leads with ST elevation?
B) Coronary artery affected?

A

Leads: II, III, aVF
Right coronary artery

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4
Q

Anteroseptal MI:
A) Leads with ST elevation?
B) Coronary artery affected?

A

Leads: V1-V4
Left anterior descending artery

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5
Q

Lateral MI:
A) Leads with ST elevation?
B) Coronary artery affected?

A

Leads: I, aVL, V5, V6
Left circumflex artery

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6
Q

What is the most common side effect of salbutamol

A

Tachycardia

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7
Q

Likely Dx:
A 3-year-old girl is brought to general practice by her father, who is worried about a rash around her mouth. The rash started as small itchy red blisters, which have now burst and formed a golden crust.

A

Impetigo

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8
Q

Likely Dx:

Child with painful red blisters which affect the hands, feet and nappy area and can occur in the mouth and throat

A

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

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9
Q

Green or bilious vomit is a red flag symptom and is a feature of which kind of intestinal issue?

A

Intestinal obstruction, specifically obstruction distal to the second part of the duodenum which is where bile is secreted into the small intestine

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10
Q

Name 3 causes of bilious vomit?

A

Malrotation
Duodenal atresia
Meconium ileus

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11
Q

Projectile vomiting around 6-8 weeks of age is pathognomonic of what condition?

A

Pyloric stenosis

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12
Q

Paroxysmal coughing to the point of vomiting in a baby is pathognomonic of what condition?

A

Whooping cough

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13
Q

Seizures/bulging fontanelle with vomiting in a baby is pathognomonic of what?

A

Raised intracranial pressure

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14
Q

Bilious (green) vomiting, abdominal distention and a delay in passing stool after birth (>48 hours) is pathognomonic of what condition?

A

Hirschsprung disease

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15
Q

Meconium ileus is generally associated with what condition?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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16
Q

Abdominal distension and bilious vomiting in first 24-48 hours of life is pathognomonic of what condition?

A

Meconium ileus

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17
Q

What investigation is used to confirm the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis

A

Sweat test

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18
Q

A baby with soft swelling of the scalp that crosses suture lines after ventouse delivery is pathognomonic of?

A

Caput succedaneum
This is not concerning and usually resolves within a few days.

Crosses Sutures (CS) - Caput Succedaneum (CS)

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19
Q

A baby with swelling of the scalp that DOES NOT cross the suture lines that develops several hours after delivery is what?

A

Cephalohaematoma
Due to bleeding between the periosteum and skull

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20
Q

Children with cystic fibrosis are vulnerable to deficiency of which vitamins?

A

Fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E and K)

This is due to poor fat absorption secondary to reduced pancreatic lipase enzyme secretion

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21
Q

What kind of inheritance of cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive disorder

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22
Q

An infant with very salty sweat is pathognomonic of which condition?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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23
Q

An obese 12-year-old boy is referred with pain in the left knee and hip… pathognomonic of?

A

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

Commonest in obese adolescent males.

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24
Q

XR feature of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

Displacement of the femoral epiphysis inferolaterally

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25
Q

Treatment of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

Rest and non weight bearing crutches.

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26
Q

Unilateral hip pain (may be referred to the knee) usually occurring between 5 and 12 years of age - pathognomonic of?

A

Perthes Disease

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27
Q

Management of Perthes Disease

A

Remove pressure from joint to allow normal development.
Physiotherapy.
Usually self-limiting if diagnosed and treated promptly.

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28
Q

Best imaging modality for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Ultrasound scan

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29
Q

Male children aged 3-11 with limp preceded by a viral infection is pathognomonic of?

A

Transient synovitis

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30
Q

First line investigations for transient synovitis

A

Bloods to exclude septic arthritis (WCC and inflammatory markers will be raised in septic arthritis whilst they are normal in transient synovitis)

Ultrasound - effusion

XR - normal

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31
Q

What is the definitive investigation to distinguish between transient synovitis and septic arthritis

A

Microscopy, culture and sensitivity of the joint aspirate will distinguish between the two, as bacteria within the joint space confirms septic arthritis.

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32
Q

Management of transient synovitis

A

Supportive treatment.

Generally resolves in around 7 days with minimal risk of long-term damage to the joint.

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33
Q

The barking cough and absence of stridor or systemic symptoms points to a diagnosis of

A

Mild croup

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34
Q

First line treatment for croup

A

Immediate single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) regardless of disease severity

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35
Q

Barking cough is pathognomonic of what condition

A

Croup

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36
Q

Management of emergency treatment of croup

A

High-flow oxygen
Nebulised adrenaline

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37
Q

What investigations are conducted in infants younger than 3 months with fever

A

Full blood count
Blood culture
C-reactive protein
Urine testing for UTI
Chest radiograph (only if respiratory signs are present)
Stool culture (if diarrhoea is present)

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38
Q

Jaundice in the first 24 hours after birth is always pathological.

What is the most common cause

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease

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39
Q

Biliary atresia is a cause of physiological jaundice.

What time after birth does it usually present

A

Presents after 14 days

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40
Q

What is the more common cause of jaundice (presenting after 14 days of birth) in breastfed babies

A

breast milk jaundice

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41
Q

Likely Dx:

Prolonged jaundice (i.e., jaundice that persists beyond 14 days of life)

Signs of biliary obstruction (e.g, dark urine and chalky white stool)

A

Biliary atresia

Occurs when the bile ducts of an infant are progressively fibrosed and destroyed, leading to conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia, liver failure and death if not treated.

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42
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of biliary atresia

A

Confirmed with cholangiography, which will fail to show normal architecture of the biliary tree

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43
Q

Management of biliary atresia

A

Hepatoportoenterostomy (Kasai procedure) - surgery in which a new pathway from the liver to the gut to bypass fibrosed ducts is formed

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44
Q

Parents of child with febrile convulsions should be advised to phone for an ambulance if the seizure lasts how long

A

> 5 minutes

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45
Q

Management of any child less than 3 months old with a temperature > 38ºC

A

Urgent referral to a paediatrician

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46
Q

Repeated flexion of head/arms/trunk (contracting of his neck and drawing up of his legs) followed by extension of arms is pathognomonic of what

A

Infantile spasms (West syndrome)

Type of epilepsy presenting at 4-8 months

Typically has repeated flexion and extension movements (Salaam attacks) repeated up to 50 times

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47
Q

Examination of a sausage-shaped mass in the right hypochondrium and emptiness in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign)

Hallmark features of?

A

Intussusception

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48
Q

Nectroising enterocolitis is staged using what classification

A

Bells’ classification

Uses a mix of clinical signs and radiological findings

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49
Q

Likely Dx:

Infant (first three weeks of life)
Suddenly starts having feeding intolerance
Abdominal distension
Bloody stools

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

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50
Q

How is necrotising enterocolitis diagnosed

A

Abdominal X-ray which may show:
Dilated bowel loops
Pneumatosis intestinalis (gas within the bowel wall)
Portal venous gas
Pneumoperitoneum

Bells’ criteria is used to diagnosis based on clinical and radiological signs

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51
Q

Management of necrotising enterocolitis

A

Nil-by-mouth
Nasogastric tube
IV fluids/total parenteral nutrition to rest the bowel
Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics

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52
Q

Likely Dx:

From Bangladesh
Coughs in bouts that are so severe turns red.
Vomiting
No fevers

A

Whooping cough

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53
Q

Likely Dx:

Severe testicular pain
Absent cremaster reflex on the affected side.
Elevation of the testicle results in worsening of the pain.

A

Testicular torsion
Occurs when the testis turns on the remnant of the processus vaginalis thereby restricting blood flow

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54
Q

In epididymitis elevation of the testes does what to the pain?

A

Often relieves the pain (Prehn’s sign positive)

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55
Q

first-line investigation for slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

A

Plain X-ray of both hips (AP and frog-leg views)

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56
Q

Which patient groups should be referred for ultrasound of the hips to assess for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)

A

All babies that were breech at any point from 36 weeks (even if not breech by time of delivery)
Babies born before 36 weeks who had breech presentation,
All babies with a first degree relative with a hip problem in early life

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57
Q

Gold standard investigation for diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Rectal biopsy

Microscopic examination shows a lack of ganglionic nerve cells in the affected segment.

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58
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease is strongly associated with what condition

A

Down’s syndrome

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59
Q

What is the definitive management of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Surgery to affected segment of the colon

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60
Q

Foetal alcohol syndrome is associated with ___cephaly:
A) Macrocephaly
B) Microcephaly

A

B) Microcephaly ie. small head

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61
Q

How to distinguish between Mesenteric adenitis and appendicitis

A

Mesenteric adenitis: follows a recent viral infection and no rebound tenderness or guarding

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62
Q

What is Mesenteric adenitis

A

Inflamed lymph nodes within the mesentery so will cause pain in the iliac fossas however will not have rebound tenderness or guarding

Often follows a recent viral infection

Conservative treatment

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63
Q

Likely Dx:

Bilious vomiting in neonates, a few hours after birth
Distended abdomen

A

Duodenal atresia

Congenital malformation in which the duodenum does has a blind end, and so is not patent

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64
Q

What condition is strongly associated with duodenal atresia

A

Downs Syndrome

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65
Q

Gold standard diagnosis of duodenal atresia

A

Abdominal X-rays

Characteristic ‘double bubble’
one gas bubble visible in the stomach, and one gas bubble visible in the most proximal (patent) part of the duodenum prior to the atresia

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66
Q

Management of duodenal atresia

A

Duodenoduodenostomy - surgical repair reconnecting the closed proximal and distal segments of the duodenum in order to relieve the obstruction.

67
Q

Koplik spots (small white lesions on buccal mucosa) are pathognomonic for what condition

A

Measles

68
Q

What is the most useful investigation to screen for the complications of Kawasaki disease?

A

Echocardiogram as coronary artery aneurysms are a potential complication of Kawasaki disease

69
Q

Management of Kawasaki disease

A

High-dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulin

70
Q

What syndrome are children at risk for when given aspirin

A

Reye’s syndrome

Hence aspirin is normally contraindicated in children

71
Q

What is the most likely causative agent of a bacterial pneumonia in children

A

Streptococcal pneumoniae

72
Q

What is the first-line treatment for all children with pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

73
Q

First line treatment option in pneumonia associated with influenza in children

A

Co-amoxiclav

74
Q

Most common causative agent in acute epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

Pathogonomonic in unvaccinated kid

75
Q

Unvaccinated drooling child with inspiratory stridor is likely

A

Acute epiglottis

76
Q

Child with recurring UTIs.

micturating cystourethrogram done

Diagnosis

A

Vesicoureteric reflux i.e. abnormal backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureter and kidney

Gross dilatation of the ureter, pelvis and calyces with ureteral tortuosity

77
Q

What kind of scan may be performed to look for renal scarring in Vesicoureteric reflux

A

DMSA scan

78
Q

Gold standard diagnosis for Vesicoureteric reflux

A

Micturating cystourethrogram

79
Q

Initial treatment for patent ductus arteriosus to promote duct closure

A

Indomethacin
OR
Ibuprofen

80
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus results in the abnormal flow of blood from where to where

A

Flow of some oxygenated blood from the descending aorta to the pulmonary artery

81
Q

Continuous ‘machinery’ murmur is pathognomonic of what?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

82
Q

What murmur is associated with Turner’s syndrome is

A

Ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

83
Q

sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue are pathogonomic of what infection

A

Scarlet fever (group A Strep cause)

84
Q

Name some of the later complications of Downs Syndrome

A

Subfertility
Learning difficulties
Short stature
Repeated respiratory infections
Hearing impairment from glue ear
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Hypothyroidism
Alzheimer’s disease

85
Q

What test is used to screen newborns for hearing problems

A

Otoacoustic emission test

Fail - referred to have impedance audiometry testing

86
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs as a result of inflammation at which bony prominence?

A

Tibial tuberosity

87
Q

Likely Dx:

Mild systemic upset, oral ulcers followed by vesicles on the palms and soles

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease

88
Q

What is the most common causative agent for hand, food and mouth disease

A

Coxsackie A16 virus

89
Q

Likely Infective Dx:
Several days of high fever, followed by a distinctive rash just as the fever breaks.

A

Roseola

Fever -> Rash

90
Q

Slapped cheek syndrome is commonly caused by what causative agent

A

Parvovirus B19

91
Q

What is the chest compressions to breathes in CPR Paeds

A

Ratio 15:2

92
Q

What is the chest compressions to breathes in CPR Neonates

A

Ratio 3:1

93
Q

As part of the child health surveillance neonates get heel-prick test on day 5-9.

What conditions is this checking for

A

“My Child, My Poor Husband”
Metabolic diseases
Cystic fibrosis
Medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
Phenylketonuria
Hypothyroidism

94
Q

Presenting features of cystic fibrosis

A

Meconium ileus (failure to pass meconium)

Recurrent chest infections

Steatorrhoea (foul smelling stools)

Failure to thrive

95
Q

Projectile vomiting after every feed in a young baby

Pathognomonic of?

A

Pyloric stenosis

96
Q

What is the electrolyte abnormality associated with pyloric stenosis

A

Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

This is due to persistent vomiting

97
Q

Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis is an electrolyte abnormality pathognomonic of

A

Pyloric stenosis

98
Q

Gold standard diagnosis of pyloric stenosis

A

Abdominal ultrasound scan

Will show hypertrophy of the circular pylorus muscles

99
Q

Management of pyloric stenosis

A

Surgical with a pyloromyotomy to cut the pyloric sphincter to widen the outlet

100
Q

Likely Dx:

Teen that is keen on spots with painful swelling over the tibial tubercle

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

101
Q

Most common causative agent for Scarlet fever

A

Group A streptococci (usually Streptococcus pyogenes).

102
Q

Management of scarlet fever

A

Oral penicillin V for 10 days

103
Q

When can children return to school after commencing antibiotics for scarlet fever

A

24 hours

scarlet fever is a notifiable disease

104
Q

What vitamin is given to neonates to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

A

IM vitamin K

One off injection shortly given after birth

Given as newborn babies are relatively deficient in vitamin K and thus may result in impaired production of clotting factors

105
Q

First line treatment for Threadworms

A

Mebendazole for children > 6 months old
Treat all members of the household

106
Q

What is the most likely organism to cause croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

“crouP Parainfluenza”

107
Q

What is the most likely organism to cause bronchilitis

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

108
Q

Likely Dx:
Fever > 5 days
Bilateral conjunctivitis
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Polymorphic rash
Cracked lips/strawberry tongue
Oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet

A

Kawasaki disease

109
Q

Pattern of inheritance for haemophilia A

A

X-linked recessive

110
Q

Ventricular septal defect present as what kind of murmur

A

Pansystolic murmur

111
Q

Likely Dx:

Young infant

Coughing fit followed by periods in which the child stops breathing and turns blue. The child appears lethargic.

A

Whooping cough

notifiable disease

112
Q

Most common causative agent in whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

113
Q

Evidence of bowel sounds in a respiratory exam of a neonate in respiratory distress

Pathognomonic of

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

114
Q

What is the first-line therapy following general advice for nocturnal enuresis ie bed wetting

A

Enuresis alarm

An alarm that will make a loud sound or vibrate when a sensor detects moisture from even a small amount of urine

115
Q

What condition should be suspected in an otherwise well infant with noisy breathing

A

Laryngomalacia

Caused by a congenital softening of the cartilage of the larynx, causing collapse during inspiration.

Usually self-resolves before 2 years of age.

116
Q

Characteristics of Kawasaki disease

A

‘CRASH and burn’.
C: conjunctivitis (bilateral).
R: rash (non-vesicular).
A: adenopathy (cervical).
S: swollen, strawberry tongue.
H: hand swelling (or feet).
Burn: fever lasts >5 days and is very high.

117
Q

Triad of hallmark features of Intussusception

A

i) Intermittent abdominal pain
ii) Vomiting
iii) Right upper quadrant mass
Presents, usually after the first three months of life

118
Q

‘red currant jelly’ stool is pathognomonic of what condition

A

Intussusception

119
Q

What is the first line investigation for Intussusception

A

Abdominal ultrasound

Hallmark feature: ‘target sign’

120
Q

Intramural gas (pneumatosis intestinalis) is a pathognomonic sign of what condition

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

121
Q

Likely cancer:

Infant with palpable non-tender mass on flank
Painless haematuria
Reduction in appetite with a distended but non-tender abdomen

A

Wilms’ tumour (nephroblastoma) is an embryonic tumour from the developing kidney

Typically presents in children under 5 years of age

122
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)

A

Definitive diagnosis and staging can be confirmed via renal biopsy.

Small round blue cells may be seen on histology - though this is not exclusive to nephroblastomas.

123
Q

Next step of management of nocturnal enuresis if enuresis alarm has been ineffective/is not acceptable to the family

A

desmopressin

particularly if short-term control is needed (e.g. for sleepovers)

124
Q

Cradle cap is characterised by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

What is the medical name for cradle cap

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

125
Q

Management of cradle cap i.e. seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

reassurance usually resolves within a few weeks

Topical emollient onto the scalp to loosen scales, brush gently with a soft brush and wash off with shampoo.

if severe/persistent a topical imidazole cream may be tried

126
Q

Describe the murmur associated with atrial septal defect

A

“ASD = A Split Double”

Fixed split S2 sound due to the increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration and delaying closure of the pulmonary valve

127
Q

Describe the murmur associated with ventricular septal defect

A

“VSD = Very Systolic = Pansystolic”

They have a pansystolic murmur

128
Q

Pathogenesis of Perthes Disease

A

due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, specifically the femoral epiphysis.

129
Q

What is the most common cardiac pathology associated with Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

130
Q

Pattern of inheritance for Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

X-linked recessive

Characterised by progressive muscle-weakening and wasting

131
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Genetic testing

132
Q

Baby is born with micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet and overlapping of fingers

Diagnosis?

A

Edward’s syndrome (trisomy 18)

“overlapping of fingers = Edward Scissor Hands”
“Edward = Rocker”

133
Q

Baby born with microcephalic, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, scalp lesions

Diagnosis

A

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

134
Q

Baby born with webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, pulmonary stenosis

Diagnosis?

A

Noonan syndrome

135
Q

Baby born with learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, macro-orchidism

A

Fragile X

“X Large” - most of the features are large

136
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is classically defined as a triad of

A

Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminaemia
Oedema

137
Q

Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change glomerulonephritis

“Mini = Children”

138
Q

Likely Dx:

Down syndrome infant with episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells that can result in loss of consciousness

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

139
Q

What are the four features of tetralogy of fallot

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
Overriding aorta

140
Q

Management of tetralogy of fallot

A

Surgery

141
Q

Five causes cyanotic congenital heart diseases (CHD)

A

5 Ts:

i) Tetralogy of fallot
ii) Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
iii) Tricuspid atresia
iv) Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
v) Truncus arteriosus

142
Q

What is the initial management of suspected cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil)

Used to prevent the closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until a surgical correction can be carried out. This will allow mixing of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood so as to provide adequate systemic circulation.

“Prostaglandin Props the ductus open”

143
Q

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) can be used in the management of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

What parameters must be monitored every 6 months when taking this medication

A

Height and weight

Methylphenidate, a stimulant, may suppress appetite and cause growth impairment in children

144
Q

Diagnosis of Intestinal malrotation

A

Upper GI contrast study and ultrasound scan

145
Q

Management for intestinal malrotation

A

Laparotomy
If volvulus is present (or at high risk of occurring then a Ladd’s procedure is performed (includes division of Ladd bands and widening of the base of the mesentery)

146
Q

Management of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Rectal washouts initially, after that an anorectal pull through procedure

147
Q

Abdominal x ray features of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Dilated loops of bowel with fluid levels

Not diagnostic - Full-thickness rectal biopsy is required for diagnosis

148
Q

Distinguishing features of a cephalhaematoma from Caput succedaneum

A

Cephalhaematoma:
Usually develop after birth
Do not cross the suture lines of the skull
Blood is confined between the skull and periosteum

Caput succedaneum:
Extraperiosteal collection of blood
Can cross over the suture lines
Can be present at birth

149
Q

Which one of these can cross the suture lines of the skull:

A) Cephalhaematoma
B) Caput succedaneum

A

B) Caput succedaneum

“Capput succedaneum ‘succedes’ in crossing over the suture lines”

150
Q

What is the investigation of choice to diagnose vesicoureteric reflux?

A

Micturating cystourethrogram

151
Q

Diagnosis of coeliac disease

A

Jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy

152
Q

Barlow and Ortolani test is used to examine for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

What is the Barlow test

A

Attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head

153
Q

Barlow and Ortolani test is used to examine for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

What is the Ortolani test

A

Attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head

154
Q

What is the first line investigation for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants > 4.5. months

A

X-Ray

155
Q

What is the first line management for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis)

156
Q

Likely Dx:

Ultrasound shows a defect in the abdominal wall and the intestines are outside the foetal body but contained within a membrane.

A

Exomphalos (omphalocoele)

157
Q

Foetus diagnosed with exomphalos (omphalocoele). Recommended birth plan?

A

Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks

158
Q

First-line replacement formula in mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance in a formula-fed baby

A

Extensive hydrolysed formula should be tried

159
Q

Replacement formula in infants with severe cow’s milk protein intolerance or if no response to extensive hydrolysed formula

A

Amino acid-based formula

160
Q

What criteria is used to assess the probability of septic arthritis in children

A

Kocher’s criteria using 4 parameters:
Non-weight bearing
Fever >38.5ºC
Raised WCC
Raised ESR

161
Q

Management of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Internal fixation across the growth plates

An emergency, as there is a risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

162
Q

What times should you assess the APGAR scores?

A

1, and 5 minutes of age. If the score is low then it is again repeated at 10 minutes.

163
Q

Early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is most commonly caused by

A

group B streptococcus infection

Finals: Speciality Blocks (11 decks)

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