Chemistry, Physics & OR Safety Flashcards
1
Q
what are the Building block that makes up matter?
A
atom
2
Q
what are the positively charged particles in an atom?
A
protons
3
Q
where are protons located?
A
in the nucleus
4
Q
what are the neutrally charged particles in the atom?
A
neutrons
5
Q
where are neutrons located?
A
inside the nucleus
6
Q
what are the negatively charged particles located in the atom?
A
electrons
7
Q
where are electrons located?
A
orbit the nucleus in the electron cloud
8
Q
describe the orbital shell around the nucleus?
A
each shell has a predefined number of electrons, and each shell must be complete before electrons can begin to fill the next shell
9
Q
the electrons in the outermost shell are called?
A
valence electrons
10
Q
an incomplete shell allows what to happen?
A
an atom to react with another atom
11
Q
a full shell makes the atom?
A
nonreactive
12
Q
an atom with have a neutral charge if?
A
electrons are equal to protons
13
Q
an atom will have a positive charge if?
A
there are less electrons than protons
14
Q
an atom will have a negative charge if?
A
there are more electrons than protons
15
Q
an ions is an atom that?
A
carries a positive or negative charge
16
Q
an atom with a positive charge is called?
A
a cation
17
Q
an atom with a negative charge is called?
A
an anion
18
Q
metals tend to ____, which non metals do not.
A
ionize
19
Q
when two or more atoms are bonded together this is called a?
A
molecule
20
Q
describe an ionic bond?
A
when a complete transfer of valence electrons occurs.
21
Q
describe the two atoms following an ionic bond?
A
the transfer leaves one atom with a negative charge and the other with a positive charge.
22
Q
what is the law that electricity in the OR follows
A
Ohm’s law: electromotive force (voltage) = current X Impedance
23
Q
describe covalent bonding?
A
equal sharing of valence electrons
24
Q
a single covalent bond is created when?
A
one pair of electrons is shared
25
a double covalent bond is created when?
two pairs of electrons are shared
26
a triple covalent bond is created when ?
three pairs of electrons are shared
27
describe polar covalent bonding?
unequal sharing of valence electrons, meaning the electrons remain closer to one atom over the other
28
polar covalent bonds creates a _____ molecule, meaning?
polar
| meaning where one area of the molecule is relatively positive and the other is relatively negative
29
why does water dissolve hydrophilic molecules?
because the polar molecule is attracted to other polar molecules
30
however, water (polar molecule) does not dissolve hydrophobic substances like oil and fat?
because they are non-polarized
31
describe van der waals forces?
a very weak intermolecular force that holds molecules of the same type together
electrons are constantly orbiting a molecule which creates temporary partial positive and negative charges at different parts of the molecule at any given time.
Thus, electron rich areas of a molecule will be attracted to electron poor areas of another molecule
32
a base is a species that accepts a ______ ion from an acid
hydrogen
33
voltage=
current=
impedance=
```
Voltage= driving pressure
current = flow
impedance = resistance
```
34
surgical electrocautery device delivers a high frequency current of ______ that is used to cut, coagulate, dissect or destroy tissue
500,000 to 1 million Htz
35
the current of cautery return must not pass across the
pacemaker
36
differentiate energy pathways for monopolar vs bipolar electrocautery
mono: uses a pin that enters that body
Bi: will not need a grounding pad
37
___ is placed on a patient to allow for the exit point of a return current
grounding pad (functional return electrode)
38
a fault in the return electrode places that patient at a risk for
burns
39
if the return electrode is malfunctioning, the electrical current will find another pathway to exit the body including
EKG electrodes
temperature probe
metal components of sx table
40
the smaller that are that the electricity exits the body, the
greater the intensity of the burn
41
a hydrogen ion is a _____
proton
42
acid-base pairs differ by one ?
hydrogen ion
43
the charge on the conjugate acid is always One _________ than the charge on its conjugate base.
greater
44
acid and bases react to give?
salts and water
45
the salt solution is actually a solution that contains the?
conjugate acid or base of some other acid or base
46
the pH of a salt solution depends on the acid/base strength of the?
acid or base from which it was derived.
47
salts of strong acids/bases, their conjugate bases have?
no base strength
48
what it the primary purpose of the Line isolation monitor
to alert the OR staff of the first fault (it does not protect personnel or patients from macro-micro shocks)
49
salts of weak acids are?
bases
50
the conjugate base of salts of weak acids?
have some appreciable base strength
51
salts of weak acids ____ the pH of a solution
increase
52
salts of weak bases are
acids
53
alkaloids are naturally occurring weak _____ organic compounds
basic
54
to prevent burns at the return pad site, the entire surface of the return electrode should
be in indirect contact with the patients skin (do not place over bony prominence or metal implants) for babies put it on their back
55
the electrode gel should be inspected for
dryness (if its too dry, the current wont have a direct path to the return electrode and will find another way to exit the body)
56
the electrocautery, in an oxygen rich environment can cause
a spark and cause a fire
57
for a bipolar electrocautery, the tip of the bipolar electrosurgical device (forceps) contain
the active and return electrode, therefore no return pad is needed
58
the current of cautery return must not pass across the
pacemaker
59
for a current to flow, there has to be a ____ difference across an ______
voltage difference (driving pressure) across an impedance
60
if a closed circuit exists, then exposure to a live electricity source provides a
electromotive force (voltage) that pushes the current through an impedance
61
an impedance is
can be either you or the patient
62
to receive a shock, a person must become a part of and complete an
electrical circuit
63
an electrical current that enters the body will exit the body along the
path of least resistance
64
what are the three consequences of electrical injury
- -cardiac arrhythmias
- -nerve injury (diaphragmatic paralysis)
- -thermal injury (damage to internal organs may be more extensive that damage observed on skin)
65
Macroshock is a
larger amount of current that is applied to external surface to the body
66
the impedance of skin offers a higher resistance for macroshock, so it takes
larger current to induce Vfib
67
Microshock is a
smaller amount of current applied directly to the myocardium
68
what are examples of direct conductive pathways to the heart
central lines, PA catheters, pacing wires, which will increase the patients susceptibility to micro shocks
69
the electrical systems in the OR are designed to reduce the risk of electrical shock because (2)
1. the OR power supply is not grounded
| 2. each piece of equipment is grounded
70
____ assesses the integrity of the ungrounded power system in the OR
Line Isolation monitor
71
what it the primary purpose of the Line isolation monitor
to alert
72
If the LIM alarm sounds, what should occur
the last piece of equiptment that was plugged in should be unplugged
73
At what level will the LIM alarm go off
2-5 mA of leak current is detected
74
what are the voltages in microshocks for max allowable current leak in the OR and ventricular fibrillation
max allowable leak in OR: 10 uA
Ventricular fibrillation: 10 uA
75
macroshocks voltage:
1. threshold for touch perception of electrical shock
2. maximum current for a harmless electrical shock
3. let go current occurs before sustained contraction
4. loss of conciousness
5. ventricular fibrillation
1. ) 1 mA
2. ) 5 mA
3. ) 10-20 mA
4. ) 50 mA
5. ) 100 mA
76
CRNAs are at greater risk for exposure to
ionizing radiation (anywhere fluoroscopy is used)
77
ionizing radiation can remove electrons from atoms causing
free radicals (which is damaging on the cellular level including tissue injury, chromosomal, malignancy)
78
most exposure is as a result of
scattered X-rays, not direct exposure
79
the Roentgen is used to
quantify exposure
80
dalton's law of partial pressures states that the total gas pressure in a container is equal to ?
the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each gas
81
what is the yearly maximum radiation exposure
5 rem
82
what is the yearly maximum exposure for the fetus of a pregnancy worker
0.5 rem or 0.05 rem/month
83
for a non-pregnant person, what two body parts are most susceptible to injury
eye and thyroid
84
in the pregnancy person, what is most susceptible to injury
fetus
85
what are the different ways to protect yourself from radiatoin
1. distance
2. duration
3. shielding
distance is an easy way to protect (minimum is 6 week away from radiation source)
5. radiation exposure obeys inverse square law
86
what is the inverse square law for radiation exposure
the amount of exposure is inversely propositional to the square of the distance of the source
87
many medications are organic amines, or _______.
alkaloids
88
alkaloids are not very water soluble, they are converted to their conjugate acid by reacting with a?
strong acid
89
Non ionized molecule is usually _____ soluble and can diffuse across the cell membrane. such as the blood brain barrier, renal tubular epithelium, gastrointestinal epithelium, placenta, hepatocytes
lipid
90
the non-ionized form of the drug that is pharmacologically _____.
active
91
the degree of drug ionization is a function of its ____ and ____ of the surrounding fluid.
dissociation constant (pK) and the pH
92
when the pK and pH are identical, ____% of the drug exists in both the ionized and nonionized form
50%
93
Acidic drugs tend to be highly ionized at an ________ pH
alkaline
94
what is the joule-thompson effect?
a gas stored at high pressure that is suddenly released escapes from its container into a vacuum. it quickly loses speed as well significant amount of kinetic energy , resulting in a fall in temperature. Conversely, rapid compression of a gas intensifies its kinetic energy, causing the temperature to rise.
95
acidic drugs examples
barbiturates
96
critical temperature is the highest temperature a gas can?
exist as a liquid
97
acidic drugs are usually supplied in a _____ solution to make them more soluble in water.
basic
98
basic drugs are supplied in _____ solution to make them more soluble in water
acidic
99
describe the boiling point?
the temperature at which a liquid's vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg or 1 ATM)
100
increase in atmospheric pressure will ______ the boiling point
increase
101
what is an example of increased atmospheric pressure?
HBO chamber
102
decreased atmospheric pressure results in a _____ boiling
decreased
103
give an example of a decreased atmospheric pressure area?
high altitude
104
what is specific heat?
the amount of heat required to increase the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 degree of celsius
105
explain what vapor pressure is?
in a closed container, molecules from a volatile liquid escape the liquid phase and enter the gas phase. the molecules in the gas phase exert a pressure on the walls of the container.
106
vapor pressure is primarily dependent on the liquid's ______.
temperature
107
liquid temperature and vapor pressure are _______ proportional.
directly
108
increase in liquid temperature leads to a ______ in vapor pressure
increase
109
at body temperature, the vapor pressure of water is _____ mmHg
47
110
altitude ______ affect vapor pressure
does not
111
define vaporizaiton
the process by which a liquid is converted to a gas
112
vaporization requires _____ .
energy (heat)
113
what is latent heat of vaporization?
the number of calories required to convert 1 gram of liquid to vapor without a temperature change
114
what is sevoflurane vapor pressure?
157 torr
115
what is the isoflurane vapor pressure?
138 torr
116
what is the halothane vapor pressure?
243 torr
117
what is desflurane vapor pressure?
659 torr
118
at a high altitude, a liquid will boil at a ____ temperature as a function of the reduction in atmospheric pressure.
lower
119
boiling requires an _____ container
open
120
the fractional amount of pressure that a single gas exerts within a gas mixture is called?
partial pressure
121
what does Laser stand for
light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
122
long wavelengths of lasers absorb ___ water and ____ penetrate deep into tissue
more water
| do not penetrate deep into tissue
123
short wavelengths of lasers absorb _____ water and ______ penetrate deep into tissues
less water
| do penetrate deeper into tissue
124
when using lasers, a source of _____ must be immediately available
water or saline
125
what FiO2 should be used when lasers are implemented in the OR
< 30%
126
most ETT are_______ and ____ laser resistant
flammable and not laser resistant (made of polyvinyl chloride, red rubber and silicone)
127
for eye protection when using lasers, what should anesthesia providers do
- tape eyes lids closed
- avoid petrolium based lubricants
- cover eye lids with saline soaked gauze
- use protective glasses
128
nitrous oxide supports
combustion, do not use it
129
what are ignition sources of OR fires
electrosurgical cautery and laser
130
what are oxidizers of OR fires
Nitrous oxide and oxygen
131
what is the fuel in OR fires
ETT, drapes, surgical supplies
132
list the 3 ingredients requires to produce a fire
ignition source
oxidiser
fuel
133
list the steps to take when t\fire is present
1. stop ventilation and remove ETT
2. stop flow of all airway gases
3. remove other flammable material from airway
4. pour water/saline into airway
5. if fire isnt extinguished on first attempt, then use CO2 fire extinguisher
134
what are the steps to take after fire is controlled
1. re-establish ventilation by mask (avoid supplemental O2 or nitrous oxide
2. check ETT for damage (fragments may remain in pts airway)
3. perform bronchoscopy to inspect for airway injury or retained fragments
135
what is the body core temperature regulated between in the OR
36.7 and 37.1 C
136
what does the afferent limb do to maintain body temp
thermoreceptors: skin deep tissue, spinal cord
137
what are the control centers responsible for temperature control
hypothalamus (pre-optic region) and brainstem
138
what is the efferent temperature response to how and cold
cold: vasoconstriction, piloerection, shiver (increases o2 consumption up to 400-500% and increases risk of MI), non-shivering (babies with brown fat)
Hot: vasodilation and diaphoresis
139
what are the 4 ways to transfer heat
radiation (60%)
convection (15-30%)
conduction (<5%)
evaporation (20%)
140
1 mole of any gas is made up of how many atoms?
6.023 x 10
141
what degree is hypothermia defined as
<36C
142
Phase I: with general, spinal or epidural anesthesia, there is a redistribution of heat from the
central compartment *thorax abd) to the peripheral compartment (extremities and skin)
143
how do anesthetic agents impair thermoregulatory response
in the hypothalamus, prevent shivering, and cause vasodialation
144
what are simple interventions that can be performed to conserve heat loss
placing warm blanket on patient before entering OR to minimize central peripheral temperature gradient
145
the depth of anesthesia is determine by the partial pressure of the anesthetic agent in the ?
brain
146
The tec 6 vaporizer is used for what anesthetic agent?
desflurane
147
the tec 6 vaporizer does not compensate for ?
elevation
148
a change in elevation , using the tec 6 vaporizer can result in what for the patient?
underdosing
149
stability refers to the?
ability to resist breakdown or metabolism
150
what is the toxic by product of sevo?
compound A
151
what is the toxic by product of des and isoflurane?
carbon monoxide
152
with vaporization, fresh gas flows over the anesthetic liquid, carrying away some of the ____ that exists in the gas phase
agent
153
fresh gas flow over the anesthetic liquid cools the remaining liquid, which reduces what?
the vapor pressure of that liquid.
154
the cooling of the liquid in the vaporizer results in a ____ in the vaporizer output
decrease
155
modern vaporizers compensate for the temperature change produced by the carrier gas by using metals with a high thermal conductivity. Why?
they transfer heat easily like cooper and bronze
156
modern vaporizers compensate for the temperature change produced by the carrier gas by using a _____ ______ valve to modulate the amount of FGF that is directed into the vaporizing chamber.
temperature compensation
157
the modern vaporizer for desflurane compensates for temperature loss by the carrier gas by, applying _____ heat tot he anesthetic liquid.
direct
158
what is the adiabatic process?
describes a process that occurs without gain or loss of energy (heat). For example, a very rapid expansion or compression of a gas where there is no transfer of energy.
159
perioperative hypothermia is associated with increased risk of
morbidity and mortality
160
what medications are used to treat postoperative shivering
meperidine, clonidine, and dexmedetonidine
161
during perioperative hypothermia, oxygen consumption is decreased by
5-7% for every 1 degree C reduction in body temperature
162
induced hypothermia is useful during what conditions
- CVA
- cerebral aneurysm clipping
- TBI
- Cardiopulmonary bypass
- cardiac arrest
- aortic cross clamping
- carotid endarterectomy
163
what are three measure that can be implemented to minimize intraoperative heat loss
- heat/moisture exchanger
- force air warming blanket
- IV fluid warmers
164
What are consequences of perioperative hypothermia for cardiovascular
- -SNS stimulation
- -shifts oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to left
- -vasoconstriction and decreased tissue PO2
- -coagulopathy + plt dysfunction
- -sickling of hemoglobin S
165
what are the pharmacological effects of perioperative hypothermia
slowed drug metabolism and increased solubility of volatile agents
166
describes how a jet flow attaches itself to a nearby surface and continues to flow along that surface when the surface curves away from the initial jet direction
Coanda EFFECT
167
____ allows us to predict the type of flow that will occur in a given situation
Reynolds number
168
laminar flow is dependent on ______ compared to turbulent flow which is dependent on ______
laminar: gas viscosity (poiseuille's law)
Turbulent: gas density (graham's law)
169
In laminar flow, all of the molecules flow in ________ pattern and the Re < _____
parallel pattern
Re < 2,000
170
molecules for laminar flow, travel at the fastest rate at ______
the center of the tube
171
In turbulent flow, all of the molecules travel in _____ pattern and the Re >________
chaotic pattern
Re > 4,000
172
the critical temperature of nitrous oxide is?
36.5 C
173
why nitrous oxide exists as a liquid inside the cylinder?
because its critical temperature is 36.5 C and room temperature 20 C
174
the critical temperature of oxygen is ?
-119
175
what is the critical temperature of carbon dioxide
31 C
176
what is the critical temperature of air?
-140C
177
what is the critical temperature of nitrogen?
-147 C
178
what is the definition of critical pressure?
the minimum pressure to convert a gas to a liquid at its temperature
179
what is the absolute temperature scale is measured in?
kelvins
180
0C is equal to ____ kelvins
273
181
how to convert Celsius to kelvin?
C+273
182
how to convert kelvin to celsius
K-273
183
what is theoretically the lowest possible temperature?
0 kelvin
184
____ degrees between the boiling and freezing points of water on the F scale
180
185
only ____ degree on the C scale
100
186
what is the scale for Celsius?
0-100
187
to convert kelvin to fahrenheit, you must first convert to?
celcius
188
how to get from kelvin to celsius?
C= K-273.15
189
how to get from celsius to kelvin?
K= C+ 273.15
190
how to convert fahrenheit to celcius?
C= (F-32) x 5/9
191
how to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit
(Cx1.8) +32
192
what is the equation for pressure?
pressure = force/area
193
atmospheric pressure is the pressure associated with ____ in the atmosphere.
gas
194
air pressure results from ____ pulling on the atmosphere.
gravity
195
what type of gauge is used on gas cylinders?
bourdon gauge
196
the bourdon gauge measures the pressure difference between?
pressure exerted by the gas in a cylinder and the atmospheric pressure.
197
thus could a high altitude affect gauge pressure?
yes because gauge pressure inside a cylinder is affected by atmospheric pressure
198
gauge pressure is the pressure of a system _______ atmospheric pressure.
above or below
199
the total "absolute" pressure includes?
the atmospheric pressure plus the gauge pressure
200
1 atm equals how many mm Hg?
760 mmHg
201
760 mm Hg equal how many torr?
760 torr
202
760 torr equal how many bar?
1 bar
203
1 bar equal how many kPa?
100 kPa
204
100 kPa equal how many cm H2O
1033 cm H2O
205
1033 cm H2O equal how many lb/inch2
14.7 lb/inch2
206
1 mm Hg is equal to how many cm H2O?
1.36 cm H2O
207
1 cm H2O is equal to how many mmHg?
0.75 mm Hg
208
what does STP stand for?
standard temperature and pressure
209
what is the purpose of STP?
used to compare sets of data between gases
210
STP of 0 C is how many atm?
1
211
STP of 273.16 K of mmHg?
760 mmHg
212
STP of 273.16 K and kPa?
101.325 kPA
213
STP of 273.16K and torr?
760 torr
214
what is the standard molar volume?
22.4L
215
1 mole of any gas is made up of how many atoms?
6.023 x 10 to the 23rd power
216
what can produce turbulent flow
change to narrow diameter
high gas flow
acute angle in tube
branching in tube
217
In transitional flow, Re= _______ and flow occurs in what type of pattern
Re = 2,000 to 4,000
flow displays in turbulent pattern in the center of tube and laminar pattern near side walls of tube
218
______ describes the relationship between the pressure and velocity of a moving fluid
Bernoulli's Principle
219
In Bernoulli's principle, in the fluids velocity is high, then the pressure exerted on the walls of the tube will be
low
220
In Bernoulli's principle, in the fluids velocity is low, then the pressure exerted on the walls of the tube will be
high
221
better understanding of bernoullis principle
as fluid moves from wider tube to narrow (constriction) the volume of that fluid that moves a given distance in a given time does not change. Therefore, the width of tube suddenly becomes smaller, then the fluid in the constricted region must move faster to achieve that result. And because the fluid velocity has increased at the area of constriction, there is a pressure drop at the area of constriction. AKA when a river is wide, the flow is slow but when the river is small the flow is fast
222
if the pressure inside of the tube falls below atmospheric pressure, then air is entrained into the tube
venturi effect
| is an application of the Bernoulli principle
223
adjusting the diameter of the constriction allows for control of the pressure drop and the amount of air that is sucked into the tube and the key for venturi effect is
air entrainment!
| EX (jet ventilator, venturi, and nebulizer
224
a mole of gas is equal to the _____ ______ of that gas in ____.
molecular weight of that gas in grams
225
diatomic gases have ____ molecules, so ____ the atomic weight
2 molecules
| double
226
oxygen atomic weight is?
16 grams
227
oxygen is diatomic so the molecular weight of oxygen is?
32 grams
228
one mole of oxygen is 32 gram and contains how many atoms?
two times 6.023 x 10 to the 23rd power atoms
229
what is the equation for charles law?
volume/temperature
230
with charles laws, volume and temperature has a _____ relationship
direct
231
as volume increases, temperature _____
increases
232
as volume decreases, temperature _______
decreases
233
initial volume/ initial temperature is ____ to the second volume/ second temperature
equal
234
a LMA cuff rupturing in the autoclave, is an example of what law?
charles laws
235
the relationship between wall tension, internal pressure, and radius regarding spheres and cylinders
law of Laplace
236
for the law of Laplace, pressure is a ____ force and tension is a _____force
pushing (pushes walls of the object apart)
pulling (holds the walls of the object together)
237
surface tension of a sphere
Tension = (pressure X radium) / 2
example: alveolus, cardiac ventricle, saccular aneurysm
238
surface tension of a cylinder
Tension = (pressure X radium)
Examples: blood vessels, aortic aneurysm
239
Pressure is _________ to surface tension and _______to radius of alveolus
directly proportional
inversely proportional
240
if two bubbles have the same surface tension, the small bubble will
have a higher pressure
241
when do type II pneumocytes begin producing surfactant
22-26 weeks gestation with a peak production occurring at 35-36 weeks
242
surfactant reduces ________ and prevents alveolar collapse
surface tension
243
each alveolus contains _____ amount of surfactant
same
244
daltons law of partial pressures define?
the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each gas in the mixture
P(total)= P (gauge) + P (atmosphere)
245
smaller alveoli have a __________ concentration of surfactant
higher
246
as the radius changes the concentration of _____ changes
surfactant
247
the left ventricle develops wall tension to over come after load which applies to what law
law of Laplace
248
what is the formula for the law of laplace used in left the left ventricle
(LV pressure X radius) / (LV wall thickness X 2)
| T = (P x r) / h
249
wall tension/stress is reduced by
decreased intraventricular pressure, decreased radium, increased wall thickness
250
what is the boyles law equation?
pressure x volume
251
there is a ______ relationship between pressure and volume
inverse
252
as pressure increases, the volume _____
decreases
253
as pressure decreases the volume _____
increases
254
a diaphragm contraction increases tidal volume is an example of what gas law?
Boyles law
255
squeezing an Ambu bag is an example of what gas law?
Boyles law
256
gay-lussac's shows a _____ relationship of pressure and temperature
direct
257
oxygen tank explodes in a heated environment because the pressure is increased is an example of what gas law?
gay-lussac law
258
avogadros law defined?
equal volumes of differents gases under the same conditions have equal numbers of molecules
259
with avogadros laws- as mols increases, so does ____ .
volume
260
according to avogadro's law, 1.2L of Carbon has the same number of molecules as ____ of Chlorine.
1.2L
261
if we significantly increase the concentration of volatile anesthetic at the ________ interface, you can hasten the transfer into the bloodstream and ultimately the brain. this is called __________.
alveolocapillary
| overpressuring
262
ideal gas law defined?
PV= nrT which can be reduced, to
pressure is equal temperature/ volume since R and n are constant
n = number of moles
R= universal gas constant
263
the only constant unit of measurement is temperature scale is _______ .
kelvin
264
daltons law of partial pressures define?
the total pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each gas in the mixture
265
volume's percent is a way to communicate a solution's _______.
concentration
266
volume percent is expressed as a volume fraction over?
a denominator of 100
267
partial pressure = volume percent x ________
total pressure
268
henry law - at constant temperature, the amount of gas that dissolves in solution is directly proportional to the?
partial pressure of the gas over the solution.
269
the higher gas pressure, the more of it will ____ into a liquid (assuming a constant _____)
dissolve
| temperature
270
according to henry's law, temperature affects ______
solubility
271
increase temperature = _______ solubility
decreased
272
decreased temperature = _____ solubility
increase solubility (the gases will be stuck causing pt. not to wake up)
273
each gas has it own solubility ______.
coefficient
274
the solubility coefficients represents how easily the gas can be?
put into solution (blood)
275
what is oxygen's solubility coefficient?
0.003 mL/dL/mmHg
276
carbon dioxide's solubility coefficient?
0.0067 mL/dL/mmHg
277
carbon dioxide is ____ times more soluble than oxygen
20
278
anesthetic emergence is prolonged in the hypothermic patient b/c the ____ of the gas is increased, so less of it leaves the body per unit of time.
solubility
279
using henry's law, you can calculate oxygen delivery. multiplying the PaO2 by oxygen solubility coefficient _____ allows us to calculate how much oxygen is dissolved in the blood.
0.003
280
if we significantly increase the concentration of volatile anesthetic at the ________ interface, you can hasten the transfer into the bloodstream and ultimately the brain. this is called __________.
alveolocapillary
| overpressuring
281
what is grahams law?
it states the rate of gas diffusion is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight
282
the rate of gas diffusion is ______ proportional to the square root of its molecular weight
inversely
283
ficks law of diffusion describes?
the transfer rate of gas through a tissue medium
284
the rate of transfer of a gas through a tissue medium is directly proportional to what three things?
partial pressure difference (driving force)
diffusion coefficient (solubility)
membrane surface area
285
the rate of transfer of gas through a tissue medium is inversely proportional to what two things?
membrane thickness
and
molecular weight
286
what two gas laws are incorporated into the fick equation?
henry law and graham's law
287
name four examples ficks equation applies to clinical practice?
diffusion hypoxia
a patient with COPD has a reduced alveolar surface area, so has a slower rate of inhalation inductions
calculation of cardiac output
drug transfer across the placenta
288
describe ohm's law?
says that the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance. This can be adapted to understand fluid flow.
289
fluid is defined as the movement of?
electricity
fluid
or air per unit time
290
voltage is what in the body?
driving pressure (blood pressure)
291
current is what in the body?
flow (cardiac output)
292
impedance is what in the body?
resistance (SVR)
293
flow equation is what?
pressure gradient/ resistance
