Chem/Physics Flashcards

1
Q

Displacement

A

Change in position of an object. We use the symbol (delta)Δx for displacement, where Δdelta means “change.” A vector quantity with units of distance.

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2
Q

Distance

A

Total amount the object has moved.

This depends on the whole path traveled, not just the starting and ending points. Distance traveled is always a non-negative number. *****

A scalar quantity with units of distance

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3
Q

Mistakes ppl make with distance vs displacement

A

People sometimes think that distance and displacement are just different names for the same quantity.

However, distance and displacement are different concepts. If an object changes direction in its journey, the total distance traveled will be greater than the displacement between those two points.

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4
Q

Mercury has specific gravity of 13.6 The column of mercury in the barometer below has a height h=76 cm. If a similar barometer were made with water, what would be the approximate height h of the column of water?

A

Answer= 1034 cm. Atompshereic pressure supports the column of fluid, the pressure at the bottom of the column must be equal to the atm pressure because atmosphere pressure is forcing the liquid into the column. If the pressure at the bottom of the column were not atmospheric, there would be a pressure differential adn more liquid would flow into the column. The pressure is equal to pgh. If p is dec by a factor of 13.6, the height must be inc by the same factor.

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5
Q

A helium balloonwill rise into the atmosphere until: A. the temperature of the heloim inside the balloon is equal to the temperature of the air outside the balloon; B. the mass of the helium inside the balloon is equal to the mass of the air outside of the balloon; C. the volume of the helium is equal to the volume of the air it displaces; D. the density of the helium in the balloon is equal to the density of the air surrounding the balloon

A

-D

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6
Q

A child’s bathub toy has a density of 0.45 g/cm^3. What fraction of the toy floats above the water?

A

The specific gravity must be how much is under the water. 45% must be under water, so 55% must be above hte water. To solve this problem, set the buoyant force equal to the weight of the toy. *** to find the fraction of the toy above water, sutbract the submerged fraction from 1**

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7
Q

Three containers are filled with water to a depth of 1 meter. At the bottom of which container is the pressure the greatest?

A

Pressure depends only on depth and density, not on the shape of the container so the pressure is the same at the bottom of all the containers (despite having different shapes).

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8
Q

A weather balloon travels upwards for 6 km while the wind blows it 10 km north adn 8 km east. Approximately what is its final displacement from its initial position?

A

Review explanation answer’s calculations. If the balloon travels in three perpendicular directions, this can be considered three displacement vectors. Answer is 14 km.

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9
Q

The Earth moves around the sun at approximately 30 m/s. Is the Earth accelerating?

A

Answer= acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Since velocity is a vector, it specifies magnitude and direction. Even if speed stays constant, the direction of the Earth’s motion is constantly changing. Therefore the earth is accerating, so the anwer is yes because the velocity is not constant.

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10
Q

A car accereates at a constant rate from 0 to 25 m/s over a distance of 25 m. Approximately how long does it take the car to reach the velocity of 25 m/s?

A

Answer= 2s; Question implies variable of initial velocity which is zero. The average velocity of any constantly accelerating object that starts with zero velocity is the final velocity divided by 2. So the velocity is 12.5 m/s, making time 2 s. Look in book to review explanation answer’s calculations.

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11
Q

A driver moving at a constant speed of 20 m/s sees an accident up ahead and hits the brakes. If the car decelerates at a constant rate of -5 m/s^2, how far does the car go before it comes to a stop?

A

Answer= 40 m, look in book for answer calculations and explanation.

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12
Q

Suppose that you constructed a simple barometer using water instead of mercury. Approximately how high woul the water raise in the tube at sea level? Note specific gravity of mercury= 13.6.

A

Answer=10 m, height of hte substance in teh tub can be calculated using P atm= pgh. 101,325 Pa= (1000 kg/m^3) (10 m/s^2)h, so height = 10 m approximately. Can also use 1 atm= 760 mmHg, since mercury is 13.6 times denser than water, water will rise 13.6 times as high, or approximately 14 times higher.

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13
Q

Look in book for equation. Ammonia burns in air to form nitrogen dioxide and water. If 8 moles of NH3 are reacted with 14 moles of O2 in a rigid container with an intial pressure of 11 atm, what is the partial pressure of NO2 in the container when the reaction runs to completion? Assume constant temperature.

A

Answer= 4 atm; If the container began at 11 atm then each gas is contributing a pressure in accordance with its stoichioemtric coefficient. When the reaction runs to completion the only gas in the container is nitrogen dioxide, so the partial pressure of nitrogen dioxide is the total pressure. The volume and temperature of the container remains constant, so teh pressure is in accordance with teh stoichiometric coefficient of nitrogen dioxide.

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14
Q

A person jumps into a pool foot-first. Where in the body is the hydrostatic pressure the greatest?

A

Answer= pressure=rowpXgXy, since density of water is constant throughout the pool, as is the gravity constant, only the pressure varies directly with depth. For this reason, the deepest or lowest body part listed among the answer choices is hte best answer so it should be your foot* every other answer was above the foot

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15
Q

A clump of malaria parasites blocks 1/4 of the cross sectional area of a horizontal, cylindrical artery. Which of the following statements is true regarding flow through the blocked area, assuming ideal flow?

A

Answer= Blood in the blocked area has a lower pressure……………B/c: the key impact of the blockage is that veloicty is increased based on the continuity equation, Q= AV= constant, A1v1=A2v2. if area is dec than velocity is INCREASED* since the equation stem assumes real flow, choice A presents the opposite effect and can be eliminated. Blood in the blocked area has the same potential energy as other areas of the vessel since the artery is horizontal. Blood in the blocked area will have a lower pressure, chpice C, according to Bernoulli’s equation: P+1/2pv+ pgy = constant, PE density is constant and velocity is increased in the blockage. If velocity is increased, then pressure must be decreased in the bloackage to compensate and maintain Bernoulli’s equation

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16
Q

While a regular sample of blood forms an upward meniscus in the tube, an infected sample forms a downward meniscus. Which of the following is most likely correct?

A

Answer= this question tests the concept of surface tension* an upward meniscus means that cohesive forces are greater than adhesive forces. This is because cohesive forces are between blood molecules and adhesive forces are between blood and the tube. If the meniscus is upwards, this means that blood preferentially interacts with itself. A downward men iscus is the opposite. Adhesive forces are higher than coehsive forces so the most likely change is tha cohesive forces decrease adn adhesive forces increase relative toregular blood, which is choice D. “Parasite presence decreases cohesive forces adn increases adhesive forces***”

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17
Q

The presence of parasites in the bloodstream increases the viscosity of blood. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

A

Answer= Based on the passage, severe infection involves a large number of parasites in the bloodstream. The question states that these parasites inc viscosity. Lack of viscosity is one of the assumptions of ideal flow, Answer “Blood flow is less ideal during severe infections.”

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18
Q

Two ions in the blood -q1 and +q2 carrying equal and opposite charges approach a uniform magnetic field at the same speed. Which of the following conditions is sufficient to guarantee a force on -q1 within the field that has a greater magnitude than that on +q2?

A

Answer: theta 1 is less than theta 2! the mvoement of charge in an electric field will result in a forc according to the equation F=qvBsintheta, notice that it does nto matter that ions carry oppsoite charges becasue thsi question is only asking about the magnitude of force in teh q term. Opposite charges will reverse the direction of force on movign charges. In option I, if -q1 moved faster than +q2, that would not guarantee agreater force on teh charge. it could move in the direction of the magnetic field and the sine term in teh force equation would bring the matngidue of force to zero. Option I is insufficnet, options II or III represent oppposite conditions and given that chocies A and B remain, only one of them must be true. Notice that, in the force equaton, theta refers to the angle between teh charge’s velocity and the gfiel.d In the diagram, theta decribes the angle between the charges’ velocities and the normal. the smaller theta is in teh diagram the greater the theta in teh force equation for charge -q1. notice thta as the theta in teh force eqution increases from 0 to 90 degrees, the sine term must also inc. that makes optoon II true, eliminating chocie B, and leaving choice A as the best answer.

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19
Q

All of the following expressions are equal to an Ohm except (power= IV=I^2R=V^2/R)

A

Answer: A/V–> Choice A comes from V=iR,with I replaced by C/sec, B comes from P= i^2 R, D comes from P=V^2/R

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20
Q

Voltage sources for alternating current are characterized by their average voltage, Vrms (Vrms= Vmax/ squarerrot 2) if the AC current delivered to a home by the electric company is delivered at 120 Vrms, what is the maximum voltage across an outlet?

A

A:170V, max voltage is given by vmax= squareroot [2] V rms, squr 2 X 120 V, = 1.4 X 120 V= 168 V which rounds to 170 V

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21
Q

Neurons send messages via electrical impulses along their axons. The impulse called an action potential is propagated when ions enter or exit the cell. Approximately 5.5 X 10^11 Na+ ions [er emeter cross the cell membrane during a second of the propagation of an action potetnal. What is the current caused by the flow of NA+ across 1 cm of the axon? (elementary charge = 1.6 X 10^-19 C)

A

A; 8.8 X 10^-10 C/s; the flow of ions per meter of axon per second is 5.5 X 10^11. the flow of Na+ ions in one centimeter of axon is: (5.5 X 10^11 Na+ ions/meter) X (1 meter/10^2 cm) = 5.5 X 10^9 Na+ ions/cm/sec ………….. each Na+ ion has charge equal to the elementary charge, teh charge of one proton. the total charge flowing across in one second is: 5.5 X 10^9 Na+ ions/meter) X( 1.6 X 10^-19 C/Na+ ion) = 8.8 X 10^-10 C/s

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22
Q

The resting voltage across the membrane of a neuron is measured at -70 mV. In multiple scelorisis, the axons of neurons lsoe their myelin sheath. This results in 30% decreased in teh resistance of the membrane. What is the current flow across one cm of an axon in a patient with multiple scherosis? Assume that the resistance of a healthy axon is 250 Momega cm.

A

A: Ohm’s law i= V/r. the resistnce of one cm of memebrane in a neuron with multipel sclerosis is 0.7 X 250 Momega, = 175 M omega, Do not forget to convert to SI units= i= V/R=7X 10^-2 V/ 1.75 X 10^8 omega= 4 X 10^-10, Answer = 4X10^-4 uA

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23
Q

An MRI has a megnetic field of 1.5 t. What force does the MRI haev on a hydrogen ion at rest in the human brain?

A

A: 0N, the force on the charge moving in a magnetic field due to a magnetic field is F= qvBsintheta. Sicne the hydrogen ion is at rest its velocity is 0 m/s and it will not experience a force due to the magnetic field of the MRI.

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24
Q

Consider a uniform magnetic field coming out of the page. There is a wire loop in teh plane of hte page. Which of the following would induce an electromotive force in the wire loop? I. Inc the magnitude of the magnetic field; II. Rotatig the wire loop to the right; III. Moving the wire loop vertically out of the page

A

A: C= I and II, meaning inc the mag. of the magnetic field, and II rotating the wire loop to teh right. Faraday’s law states that a changing magnetic field will induce an electromotive force EMG, in a wire. the goal of this problem is to figure otu which of hte options given produce a changing magnetic field with respect to teh wire. Changing the magnitude of the magnetic field, option I, certainly does this. eliminate answer choice D, since it does not include option I. moving the wire loop out of hte page moves it along the same magnetic field lines. This does not change anythign about the magnetic field felt by hte wire and will nto induce an electromotive force. Rotating the wire will change the magnetic field lines around the wire and induce an EMF.

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25
Q

Electrophoresis is used to separate proteins accordin to their mass. Proteins are placed into a gel matrix, and an electric field is applied. Which of the followign will increase the speed at which teh proteins move through the gel?

A

A: All of these things will change the magnitude of the force on teh proteins and therefore by Newton’s second law, chang ehow fast they accelerate from rest. The electric field kq/r^2 and the charge are directy related to the electric force felt by the protein. Increasing size of the pores will reduce the “drag” caused by the gel and allow the proteins to move faster. so- if you inc the size f the pores of the gel, inc the strength of the electric field, and inc hte charge on the protein all of these things will inc the speed at which the proteins move through the gel!

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26
Q

Ammonia reacts with water to form the ammonium ion and hydroxide ion as shown. According to the Bronstead-Lowry definition of acid and bases, what is the conjugate acid of ammonia?

A

A: NH4+, ammonia is the base so the conjugate acid of ammonia is NH4+; conjugate acid is a molecule AFTER it accepts a proton

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27
Q

Which of the following is the strongest base in aqeous solution? options Cl-, NH4+, F-, Br-

A

A:F-, NH4+ is an acid and the strongest base is the conjguate of the weakest acid, this is b/c KaKb=Kw, the respective stregnths of the membres of any conjugate pair are inversely related. What this question is really asking is to find the option with the weakest conjugate acid*** that is F- . As the bond strength of the haloen and the hydrogen increases, highest in HF, the strength of the acid decreases.

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28
Q

The addition of an electron withdrawing group to teh alpha carbon of a carboxylic acid will: structure of molecule aC-c=0 (c- also attached to OH look on page 235)…. a. inc the acidity of hte prton by making the OH bond more polar, B. inc hte acidity of the proton by making the OH bond stronger, C. decrease the acidity of the proton by making the OH bond more polar, D. dec the acidity of the proton by stabilzing the conjugate base

A

A:The electron withdrawing group will further polarize the Oh bond and polarization inc acidity in aq solution. Even if hte Oh bond became stronger, which it does not, this change would result in a weaker acid. Choice D is false, as stabliztion of the conjugate base would cause teh acid to be stronger more readily turning into the conjugate base. A is hte best answer, inc hte acidity of hte proton by making the OH bond more polar*

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29
Q

Suppose that a student prepares two acidic solutions. Solution A has a hydrogen ion concentration of 6.0 x 10^-5 M. Solution B has a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 X 10^-7 M. The pH of solution A differs from that of solution B by:

A

A: 2.8, pH of solution B is 7. pH of solution A is btw 4 and 5. This is b/c the H ion concnetration of 1 X 106-5 mol/L would result in a pH of 5, and a concentration of 1.0 X 10^-6 mol/L would result in a pH of 6. Additionally, if the hydrogen ion concentration is greater than a known value then teh value for the pH will be smaller adn vice versa. The only pH difference btw 7 and 4 to 5 is choice B 2.8.

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30
Q

An aqueous solution of 0.1 M HBr has a pH of:

A

pH=1, HBr is a strong acid, so it dissociates completely. The concentration of H+ ions will be equal to the cocnentration of HBr, the -log(0.1)= 1

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31
Q

An aqueous solution of 0.1 M HBr has a pH of:

A

pH=1, HBr is a strong acid, so it dissociates completely. The concentration of H+ ions will be equal to the cocnentration of HBr, the -log(0.1)= 1

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32
Q

Carbonic acid has a Ka of 4.3 X 10^-7. What is the pH when 1 mole of NaHCO3 is dissolved in 1 liter of water?

A

10.2 b/c Kw/Ka= Kb= 0.25 X10^-7. we set up the equilbirum expression, remember x in denominator is insignificant to cancel out, x= 1.5 X 10^-4 so the pOH isbtw 3 and 4, when subtract from 14 the pH will be between 10 and 11

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33
Q

Which of the following salts is the most basic? A. NaClO3; B. NH4Cl; C. KBr; D. NaCN

A

NaCN, because CN- is the conjugate base of a weak acid. the wak acid stronger conjugate base and CN- is a very strong base, choices A-C are conjugates of strong acid and therefore weaker bases. this is due to teh inverse relationship between the strength of conjugates.

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34
Q

A solution of soapy water has a pH of 10. What is the hydroxide ion concentration?

A

10^-4 M, if the pH is 10, the pOH is 4, it must be 4. If the pOH is 4, then the hydroxide ion cocnentration must be 10^-4 M. Chocie A gives the correct hydronium ion cocnegration, but thsi is nto what the question asks for.

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35
Q

A meteror with a mass of 1 kg moving at 20 km/s collides with Jupiter’s atmosphere. The meteor penetrates 100 km into the atmosphere and disintegrates. What is the average force on the meteor once it enters Jupiter’s atmosphere?

A

Answer= 2 X 10^3 N. At disintegration the velocity of the meteor is 0 m/s. the friction force acts on teh meteor such that its velocity decreases from 20 km/s to 0 m/s. That is the force does work equal to change in KE of the meteor* W=fd=F(100 km) = 1/2mvf^2-1/2mvi^2= 0.5 (1 g) (20 km/s)^2-0.5 (1 kg) (0 km/s)^2. So, F(100 X 10^3 m)= 0.5 (1 kg) ( 20 X 10^3 m/s)^2

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36
Q

Objects A and B are placed on the spring as shown. object A has twice as much mass as object B. If the spring is depressed and released, propelling the objects into the air, object A will:

A

c- raise to the same height as object b. A simple technique for solvign this and many other physics problems is to consider situations at their extremes* Here the examples are reasonabvly close in mass. what if object A were 1 million times as massive as B? If A was a paino and B was a dime; now place them on a spring adn propel the piano one inch into teh air. Will the dime be propelled one million inches into teh air at the same time? Of course not. Mass is not proportional to the h** since all answers are given with proportions, only c can be the best answer.

37
Q

A spring powered dart- gun fires a dart 1 m vertically into teh air. in order for the dart to go 4 m, the spring would have to be depressed:

A

Proportions problem, set inelastic potential energy= PE, and notice the square of the displacmeent of the spring is proportional to the height, x^2 ~ h, inc the height by a factor of 4 requires inc the displacement of hte spring by a factor of 2

38
Q

Energy consumption in the home is generally measured in units of kilowatt hours. a kilowatt hour is equal to:

A

Kw are units of power** which is measure of energy transfer per unit time. 1 W= 1 J/s, 1 kW= 10^3 J/s, 1 kW hour= 10^3 J/s X 60 s/min X 60 min/hour = 3600 X 10^3 J = 3,600,000 J

39
Q

A winch is used to lift heavy objects to teh top of a building under construction. A winch with a power of 50 kW was replaced with a new winch with a power of 100 kW. which of the following statements about the new winch is NOT true? A. new winch can do twice as much work in teh same time as the old winch; B. the new winch takes twice as much time to do the same work as the old winch; C. the new winch can raise objects with twice as much mass as the same speed as the old winch; D. the new winch can raise objects with the same mass at twice the speed of the old winch.

A

the equation = p=w/t, or p= change in E/t, so change in energy is equal to work done. Notice hte power and work are directly proportional to one another. If P is doubled from 50 to 100 kW, then work done in a given amount of time is also doubled. Choice A is correct. W= mgh in this case, w is directly proportional to m, so then C is also correct because it states the new winch can raise an object with a mass of 2m in teh same amoutn of time that hte old winch can raise a mass of m, this is true because the new winch can do twice as much work as the old winch in a given amount of time. D suggests if the old winch can do work W in time t, then the new winch can work W in time t/2. this makes sense givne that the new winch has twice the power of the old winch

40
Q

The frictionless pulley system below redcues the force ncessary to lift any mass by a factor of 3. How much power is rquired ot lift a 30 kg object 2 meters in 60 s using this pulley system?

A

Like all ideal machines, the pulley changes only teh force required to do a given amount of work in a given amount of time. It does not change either the amount of work done or the time during which the force acts. Recall power is change in energy per unit time. In this case, chjange in E=W=Fd=mgh =(30X10X2)= 600 J. So P=600 J/t=600 J/60 s= 10 J/s=10 W

41
Q

An electric pulley can be used on a compound bow to inc the velocity of an arrow. the pulleys pivot around the dots as shown. Below is a compound bow in two position. The tension at point A compared to point B is most likely:

A

the points of rotation of eccentric pulleys are off center, they function as modified levers. Notice that in position 1, the distance from point A to the point of rotation ofteh top pulley is greater than the distance from point B to teh point of rotation of the bottom pulley. Therefore, in position 1, teh lever arm for the tension at point A is greater than that for the tesnion at point B. If the components of the compound bow are sgationary, then the sum of the torques acting on teh components must be zero and the tension at point A must be less than the tension at point B. So C and D can be eliminted. In position 2, distance from point A to the point of rotation of the top pulley is less than teh distance from point B to point of rotation of the bottom tension at point B. B is best answer, A can be eliminted. Always assume that pulleys are simple and points of rotation corresponds with their geometric centers*

42
Q

A crate is lifted to a height of 3 m with the assistance of an inclined plane. If the inclined plane is a nonideal machine, which of the following statements is most likely true?

A

answer= B, the nonideal inclined plane dec the force rquired and increases the work*. Both ideal and nonideal machines reduce the force required to perform a task. An ideal machine is a system in which work done on the machine by an applied force is transferred, undiminished, into work done by the machine on the surroundings. Therefore, an ideal machine reduces the force required without changing the work rquired. By contrast, nonideal machine is a system in which some of the energy transferred as work done on macjine is lost to FRICTIOn, deformation, and/or other inefficiencies. Therefore more work is required than would be in the absence of the amchine. Non-ideal machjien reduces the force required but increases the work required. So know difference btw ideal and nonideal machine, THINK LAB

43
Q

The pulley system shown below operates as a modified lever. Pulley A and Pulley B turn together, so when a person pulls on rope A the mass attached to rope B will be lifted. Which of the following changes ot the system will reduce the force needed to lift the mass?

A

C. increasing the diameter of pulley A. In the case of levers, F1L1=F2L2. The radii of the 2 pulleys act as the lever arms for hte system, so inc hte diameter of pulley A will dec the force required to pull rope A. Changing the lengths of the ropes will have no effect on the machine.

44
Q

The mechanical advantage for a machine is defined das the output force divided by the input force. Since the output force is typically greater than the input force, this value is normally greater than one. for an ideal machine, what would be another way of representing the mechanical advatange?

A

A. input distance/output distance = the formula relating work done on and by machines is FinputDinput=FoutputDoutput. Where D is the distance over which teh input and output forces act. If mecahnical advntage is equal to output force/input force, then it must also be euqal to input distance/output distance

45
Q

floating objects

which of the following is best explanation of why a helium filled balloon rises whereas an air-filled balloon sinks?

A

look at difference pieces, fb=rowVsubg

upward buoyant force felt by balloons is the same, so not a greater force acting upward on one ballon versus the other. So the correct answer is look at weight of two different balloons, if g is the same for both balloons same object, but the He balloon has lesser density* so each balloon will feel same upward buoyance force, He weight less, will rise as opposed to air filled balloon weight allows it to sink=so there is a greater force acting upward on an air-filled ballon than on an He-balloon

46
Q

Hydrodynamics

flow rate =

A

volume of fluid moving through a particular cross sectional are per unit time

  • its VOLUME not speed*
  • Units= f = volume/time so m^3 /s
47
Q

volume flow rate=

A

FAV
f=Av

48
Q

flow continuity

A

assuming flow speed v is constant across area A, A1v1=A2v2*

for an incompressible p constant fluid, flow rate is constant throughout a pipe
- reduced area–> inc flow speed*

if F is constant, then when we use a smaller area we will have to pair that with a greater flow speed V, set up of garden hose put thumb on end blocking some of the exit*

CONTINUITY REPRESENTS CONSISTANT VOLUME

49
Q

ex flow rate and continuity 1

If the radius of a pipe decreases by a factor of 10, what happens to the flow speed of the fluid within?

A

area= pie r^2, so overall change of V to match that is increases by a factor of 100. so when comes to dealign with proportions make sure to watch out for squares, cube adn square roots*

f=pier^2 v

50
Q

Bernoulli’s equation

A

describes ideal fluid flow
-conservation of energy for fluids

P1+pgy1+1/2pv^2= P2+pgy2+1/2pv2^2

51
Q

ideal fluid flow

A
  • incompressibility, p constant
  • negligible viscosity= no intrafluidic friction: “gooiness”

-laminar (streamline) flow= fluid, no turbulence, no eddies or crossing flow sections
so there is laminar vs. turbulent flow

  • flow rate is stead= no fluid is added or substracted!

violations= gas getting compressed, expanding; flow of viscous fluids (molasses), air turbulence in storms

52
Q

viscous fluid

A

= molasses, honey, syrup etc.

53
Q

Charge on a capacitor

A
  • larger capacity, larger ability to store charge
  • when connected to a battery in a closed circuit, the capacitor will store charge!
  • Q=CV, V= voltage difference btw the two plates of the capacitor, not necessarily the voltage of a battery in the circuit
  • stored energy is the area under the curve Q vs. V graph, PE cap= 1/2QV= 1/2CV^2 or = q^2/2C

so when a capacitor is charged, it is also storing energy!

54
Q

At a given voltage, how does an increase in capacitance affect the energy stored in the capacitor?

What about at a given charge?

A

PE= 1/2CV^2, so PE inc! v same, C inc

drop in PE, PE dec = Q^2/2C which is inc, Q is same*

if battery is there** Q is constant***

55
Q

Electric field in a capacitor

A
  • charge on a capacitor create a uniform electric field between the plates
  • positive create electric fields point away from ech other, negative create electric fields towards each other, so supports constant uniform electric field, V=Ed, what this does for us is it gives us a second way to explore electric field8

individual charges= E=k Q/r^2 in N/c
but with capacitors or planes of charge E= v/d in v/m, equivalent sets of units

56
Q

Ohm’s law

A

V= IR

R= Slope
constant of proportionality between voltage and the current it induces

57
Q

Resistance

A

How much an object opposes the flow of charge through it

  • units r= Omega for
58
Q

which has the greater resistivity: a long, slender copper wire or a short, thick copper wire? what has the greater resistance?

A

The wires have equal resistivites because they’re both made of copper

  • resistance, equation R= pL/A, so if think about proportions row constant, same for both wires with same material, but if I want to look at wire has a greater resistance, both longer and smaller cross sectional area more slender, gives away the answer to the problem. A long slender wire has the greater resistance. **
59
Q

resistors

A

like a light bulb
- how much charge you get can figure out from Ohm’s law

  • resistors are segments of a circuit with known reistance. use up energy in a circuit 9e.g. light bulb, toaster oven)
  • represented b jagged lines!
60
Q

one resistor, one battery

A

voltage of battery determines the voltage across the resistor, Ohm’s Law v=IR directly to solve for total current

61
Q

resistors

series

A

ONE PATH through the resistors, everything all in a row! same current through each, charges have to get buy each resistor, so all three of them are working together to resist that flow! so if I wanted to model these three by directly adding resistances

Req= R1+R2+R3….

62
Q

resistors
parallel

A

geometrically parallel* but multiple paths through the resistor, same voltage across each, charge is split some current goes through each path and only has to deal with R 1 or R2 only or R3 only, so in that way each piece of charge is only dealign with one resistor easier to get your charges across this parallel network, charges basically dividing an concurring, math will reflect that reduction in resistance as some division*

sum of reciprocals, 1/Req= 1/R1 + 1/R2…..

63
Q

Resistors parallel 2

A

In parallel, Req is LESS than R1, R2, and adding another resistor in parallel lowers our R equivalent! That can be counter intuitive because adding more resistors but get less resistance in the end, when add in more providing another branch for current to split and divide and concur so makes it easier to get through that network

64
Q

battery

A

supply voltage in circuits, versus charges or current dont supply, supply only voltage.

65
Q

Capacitor

A

stores charges! build up charge and as a result of that, , one plate positive one negative creates uniform field

  • so capacitance, potential energy, charge, voltage, electric field
66
Q

Q=CV

A

connects capacitance to charge, and voltage

67
Q

V=IR

A

R=stands for resistance, sitting besides R in circuit diagram. Resistors are resisting the current, certain Potential difference or voltage is what pushes the current through
I= current

resistance, current and voltage are connected through Ohm’s Law V=IR

68
Q

Chemistry Ch1 EK

atomic number

A

number of protons

  • identity of element b/c each element has a unique number of protons, if we know atomic number we know the identity of the element
  • an element can have any number of neutrons or electrons, but only one number of protons
69
Q

Chemistry Ch1 EK

mass number= atomic weight

A

protons plus neutrons
- given on periodic table can be assigned either of units amu or u, or grams/mole

  • not every atom of a given element will have a mass equal to the mass number because isotopes of an atom have different number of neutrons
  • atomic weight is equal to the weighted average of the naturally occurring isotopes of that element
70
Q

Chemistry Ch1 EK

isotopes

A

two or more atoms of the same element that contain different numbers of neutrons, nucleus of specific isotope is called a nuclide

-isotopes have similar chemical properties

71
Q

BP Qbank
Serotonin, a monoamine and mood-altering neurotransmitter, is the study of numerous pharmacological investigations.

How does the bond length between ring carbons on the six-membered structure differ from the length of the single bonds outside of the ring?

A

The bonds within the ring are shorter than the outside bonds because they have higher bond energies.
The six-membered ring component of serotonin is aromatic; additionally, it displays resonance, allowing each C-C bond to display a bond order of 1.5. In other words, these bonds are halfway between single and double bonds. Multiple bonds possess higher energy than single bonds (with triple bonds being the most energetic) since more electrons are involved. Remember, higher-energy bonds are shorter and stronger than ones containing lower amounts of energy.

72
Q

Which of these choices correctly places three nitrogen-nitrogen bonds in order of increasing bond energy?

A

As bond order increases, bond length shortens and bond energy increases. Therefore, the nitrogen-nitrogen single bond should have the lowest energy of the three, followed by the double and triple bond, respectively.

N-N, NdbN, NtriplebondN

73
Q

Why is carbon monoxide a polar molecule, even though carbon dioxide is nonpolar?

A

A.Carbon dioxide has a symmetrical structure.
true- Even when a molecule contains polar covalent bonds, it can lack an overall molecular dipole if its structure is symmetrical. Here, the dipole along one of the C=O bonds cancels out that of the other, yielding no net dipole.***

B.Carbon dioxide does not contain any polar covalent bonds. NO C=O bnds are covalent since a carbon and oxygen have different electronegativies

C. Carbon dioxide tends to form a three-dimensional polymer that acts as an effective molecular unit.
NO This statement is entirely untrue; additionally, it does not directly explain how CO2 can be nonpolar.

D. Carbon monoxide has a triple bond, while carbon dioxide contains only double bonds in its Lewis structure.
true but bond order does not relate to bond polarities*

74
Q

Two nucleotide triphosphates bond together and release a small molecule. In an aqueous solution, what is likely to happen to this molecule?

A. It will form a soluble salt.
B. It will form an insoluble salt.
C. It will degrade into an organic phosphate.
D. It will degrade into an inorganic phosphate.

A

D. It will degrade into an inorganic phosphate.

Two high-energy molecules like nucleotide triphosphates will release a molecule of pyrophosphate. This species will likely be hydrolyzed into inorganic phosphate, or Pi.

75
Q

Which types of intramolecular bonds are found in an ethanol molecule?

I. Nonpolar covalent

II. Polar covalent

III. Coordinate covalent

A

I and II only
Covalent bonds are formed when the two atoms involved share electrons. In a nonpolar covalent bond, these electrons are distributed equally, requiring the two atoms to have similar electronegativities. Here, such a bond certainly exists between ethanol’s two carbons; additionally, its C-H bonds can be considered nonpolar (I). In contrast, a polar covalent attachment requires that electrons are shared in an unequal fashion. These bonds connect C-O and O-H (II).

76
Q

Why should the synthesis of ethyl ethanoate NOT be performed in an aqueous solution?

A. The reactants are too nonpolar and would be insoluble.
B.Water molecules would hydrolyze the product into ethanoic acid and ethanol.
C. The hydrogen bonding of the environment would prevent the addition mechanism.
D. The parent carboxylic acids are water-soluble.

A

B. Water molecules would hydrolyze the product into ethanoic acid and ethanol.

Esters can be hydrolyzed by water to form carboxylic acids and alcohols. The water acts as a nucleophile and attacks the electrophilic carbonyl carbon, breaking the bond between that carbon and the non-carbonyl oxygen.

77
Q

If hexanamide is treated with ethanol, what would be the expected products?

A. Hexanamide
B. Hexanamide and water
C. Hexanoic acid and an amine
D. Hexanoic acid

A

A. Hexanamide

The amine group is a stronger nucleophile than ethanol, and thus has less propensity to leave the amide. Amides are significantly more stable than esters.

78
Q

The creation of anhydrides via the condensation of two carboxylic acids occurs very slowly. How can the forward reaction be favored?
A. Lower the pH of the solution
B. Add a nonpolar solvent to the solution
C. Raise the temperature of the solution
D. Add water to the solution in a 3:1 ratio

A

C. Raise the temperature of the solution
Heat is used to drive the reaction forward in the synthesis of anhydrides.

79
Q

Compared to UV-Vis spectroscopy, IR spectroscopy is:
A.more likely to be used to detect conjugated systems.
B. less likely to separate compounds on the sole basis of molecular weight.
C. reliant on the use of higher-frequency light.
wrong to correct
D. reliant on the use of lower-energy radiation.

A

A. No- UV-Vis spectroscopy is often used to analyze conjugated species.

B. No-Neither of these analytic techniques deals directly with the weight of the species involved.

C.No
D.Yes- reliant on the use of lower-energy radiation.
As their names imply, IR spectroscopy utilizes infrared radiation, while UV-Vis uses ultraviolet light. Infrared radiation has a lower frequency, longer wavelength, and lower energy than UV rays.

80
Q

Which of the following molecules is most likely to be analyzed using ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy

A. 1,3,5,7-octatetraene
B. Dicyclohexane
C. Ethanol
D. 3-methyl-2-hexanol

A

A. 1,3,5,7-octatetraene
You should know that it is typically used to assess the presence of highly conjugated systems. Conjugation refers to the presence of alternating double bonds within the structure of an organic molecule. From its name alone, we can see that 1,3,5,7-octatetraene has such a structure.

81
Q

A sample of decanoic acid is analyzed using nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy. Which of this molecule’s protons will exhibit a peak that is farthest downfield?

A

A. The proton(s) on carbon 10, which will display a shift of around 1.0 ppm
=While this alkyl proton likely will exhibit such a shift, low numbers like this one are located upfield, not downfield.

B.The proton(s) on carbon 10, which will display a shift of around 11.5 ppm
=The ppm value for this hydrogen nuclei should be closer to 1.0 ppm.

C. The proton on the –COOH group, which will display a shift of around 1.0 ppm
=The ppm value for this hydrogen nuclei should be closer to 11.5 ppm.

D.The proton on the –COOH group, which will display a shift of around 11.5 ppm
=With regard to NMR, “downfield” refers to the left-hand side of a spectrum. Here, signals appear if they correspond to nuclei that are “deshielded,” or near electronegative atoms. In this case, the carboxylic acid proton is very close to two oxygen atoms, causing it to shift a large distance downfield. Specifically, -COOH signals typically appear between 10 and 13 ppm on an NMR spectrum.

82
Q

Several researchers test out a new mass spectrometry apparatus using a known sample of 3-pentanone. They note several peaks, one of which corresponds to an m/z value of 15. How can this reading be interpreted?
A.One of the fragments has a mass of 15 amu, likely a methyl group.

B.One of the fragments has a mass of 15 amu, likely the carbonyl functionality.

C.One of the fragments has a mass-to-charge ratio of 15 amu/charge, likely a methyl group.

D. This scenario is impossible, since 3-pentanone is not an ion.

A

A. No- The term “m/z” implies that charge, as well as mass, is involved in this measurement.

B. No- Since an oxygen atom alone already weighs 16 amu, the given value is too light for a carbonyl group with a likely charge of +1.

C. yes- Mass spectrometry peaks represent mass-to-charge ratios. More specifically, mass spec involves the fragmentation and ionization of the molecule in question. Typically, this ionization simply entails the removal of one electron, leaving the mass of the fragment virtually unchanged. Here, the molecule was likely broken so as to remove a methyl group, and that group was likely made to carry a charge of +1. As a result, we see an m/z reading of (12 + 1 + 1 + 1) / (1) or 15.

D. No-Molecules are ionized in the mass spectrometry apparatus, not before.

83
Q

Alkali metals are defined by their:

I. reactivity with water.

II. ability to act as strong reducing agents.

III. ability to form strong acids when bound to hydrogen.

IV. ground-state valence shell configuration of ns1.

A

**** NO III: Alkali metals form hydrides, such as NaH, when they bind to hydrogen. These compounds are actually basic, not acidic.****

C. YES
I, II, and IV
C is correct. Alkali metals are located in the first column of the periodic table; they include sodium and potassium. These metals are highly reactive with water. Due to their extreme tendency to lose a single electron and reach a noble gas configuration, they serve as good reducing agents.

84
Q

Is a halogen more likely to be reduced or oxidized, and why?

A

=Reduced, because a halogen will gain one electron to fill its valence shell.

Halogens have seven valence electrons. To obtain a stable noble gas configuration, they must pick up an additional electron. When an element gains an electron, it is reduced.

85
Q

An unknown molecule, which has the ability to form multiple stable oxidation states, tends to exist in brightly-colored compounds. This species is most likely a:
A.Noble Gas.
B.halogen.
C.alkaline earth metal.
D.transition metal.

A

-Some halogens are brightly colored in their atomic states. They do not, however, have multiple stable oxidation states.

D. transition metal.
D is correct. Two of the most well-known chemical hallmarks of transition metals are their ability to possess multiple oxidation numbers and their tendency to form brightly-colored compounds. This second characteristic stems from the arrangement of their d electrons.

86
Q

Isooctane and n-octane are best described as:
A. conformational isomers
B. structural isomers.
C. geometric isomers.
D. enantiomers.

A

Isooctane and n-octane are best described as:
A. Conformational isomers differ in the rotation around a single bond. Examples of this form of isomer are much more structurally similar than isooctane and n-octane.

B. Correct

Isooctane is also known by its IUPAC name, 2,2,4-trimethylpentane. While you need no familiarity with this compound for the MCAT, we can infer that it differs from n-octane only in the branching of its carbons. Structural isomers are compounds that share a molecular formula but have different bonding configurations.

C. Typically, geometric isomers involve the presence of a double bond or ring. Neither of the mentioned species have these structural features.

D.These molecules are not stereoisomers of any kind.

87
Q

For two carbohydrates to be considered anomers, what must be true?

A

A. They need to have different stereochemistry solely at the anomeric carbon, which is the atom that serves as the carbonyl carbon in the molecule’s straight-chain form.

**An anomer is a specific type of epimer that differs only at the anomeric carbon. This position, derived from the carbonyl carbon in the sugar’s straight-chain aldehyde or ketone form, can be spotted in a cyclic structure as the only member of the ring that is bound to two oxygen atoms.

B. They need to have different stereochemistry solely at the anomeric carbon, which is the atom that serves as the alpha carbon in the molecule’s straight-chain form.
(this is epimers)

C.They need to have different stereochemistry at only one stereocenter, but it can be any carbon on the molecule.

D. They need to have different connectivity or bonding between atoms. (this is structural isomers)

88
Q

enatiomers and optically active?

A

In relation to each other, these compounds represent non-superimposable mirror images. (Specifically, each contains a single chiral center, for which the left-hand structure is S and the right-hand molecule is R.) This perfectly exemplifies a pair of enantiomers (I).

***By definition, a pure solution of either enantiomer must be optically active; only if two enantiomers are present in the same vessel in equal concentrations would the result be an optically inactive racemic mixture (II).

89
Q

Which of the following accurately describe(s) a function or characteristic of chromatography?

I. Size-exclusion chromatography can be used to purify proteins.

II. Thin-layer chromatography is effective at separating nonpolar compounds.

III. Affinity chromatography sometimes contains a stationary phase coated in immunoglobulins.

A

I and III ONLY.

Size-exclusion chromatography is commonly used to purify proteins based on size, making I correct. Affinity chromatography is a highly specific form of purification in which the stationary phase is known to bind to the protein of interest. A specific type of this procedure is immunoaffinity chromatography, which utilizes antibodies (or immunoglobulins) within the column.

= While thin-layer chromatography does relate to polarity, it would not be effective at separating one nonpolar compound from another (II).****