Chem/Phys Flashcards

1
Q

What would happen if a ligand gated ion channel was left open due to a toxin?
course test 2

A

It would continue to depolarize and have excessive excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How will ions act in a solution with a common ion and how do you know which one will precipitate first?
course test 2

A

The compound with the lowest KSP value will percipitate first if it is put into a solution with a common ion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you check which elemant will have the highest ionization energy?
course test 2

A

The most stable ion will resist losing an electron and have the highest energy. Check to see the state of the octect and which ion would benefit from losing an electron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The linear magnification

course test 2

A

m is given by the expression –i/ o.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Reactions of Aldehydes and Ketones: Redox Reactions

course test 2

A

look into

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Redox Chemistry: Oxidizing Agents/Reducing Agents

course test 2

A

OIL RIG know key oxidizing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does B- decay effect a molecule

course test 2

A

Each β– decay increases the number of protons by 1, but leaves the total number of protons and neutrons unchanged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does a decay effect a molecule

course test 2

A

Each α decay decreases the number of protons by 2 and decreases the total number of protons and neutrons by 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If 99% of the H+ ions in a solution of pH 1.3 were neutralized, what would be the final pH?
course test 2

A

If only 1% = 1/100 of the H+ ions remained, then the number of H+ ions would drop by a factor of 102. Therefore, the pH would increase by log(102) = 2 units. In this case, the pH would rise from 1.3 to 1.3 + 2 = 3.3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What makes a substance a strong reducing agent?

course test 2

A

The strongest reducing agent is the species that it most easily oxidized. The reduction must be a spontaneous reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Snells Law - Reflection/Refraction

course test 2

A

Snell’s Law gives n1 sin θ1 = nX sin θX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

LEWIS acids/base
Bronsted
course test 2

A

electron

hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

start again at question 21 for course test 2

A

GO BACK AND DO IT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A scientist adds reactants and an enzyme to a beaker placed on the benchtop. As the reaction proceeds, which of the following events would have the smallest effect on the rate of the forward reaction?

TPR test 1

A

Temperature, reactant concentrations, and activation energy are the three major factors that play a role in a reaction’s kinetics. If the temperature of the beaker changes, the rate of the forward reaction will be affected. When more reactants are added or the mixture stirred, the probability of collisions among the molecules increases. Thus, the forward reaction rate will increase. While removing products will shift the equation to the right (favoring the production of more products) by Le Chatelier’s Principle, this is an effect on the equilibrium, or thermodynamics, of the reaction and does not affect the rate of the forward reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

As the temperature at which a reaction takes place is increased:

TPR test 1

A

As the temperature at which a reaction takes place is increased the reaction rate and the rate constant will increase.

An increase in the rate constant always corresponds to a faster reaction rate, so the statements “the reaction rate will increase, but the rate constant will remain constant” and “the reaction rate will remain constant, but the rate constant will increase” are eliminated. Increasing the temperature of a reaction always increases the reaction rate, so the statement “the reaction rate and the rate constant will increase” must be correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

apoenzymes

TPR test 1

A

Enzymes lacking their cofactors, which are required for their function, are known as apoenzymes

17
Q

What are the benefits of bonding with cysteine and not methionine
TPR test 1

A

cysteine is less sterically hindered

18
Q

Role of the sphingolipid

TPR test 1

A

Sphingomyelin, a type of sphingolipid is a key component of mylein sheath

19
Q

How does diluting a solution effect the rate of a 0 order reaction? First order?
TPR test 1

A

0 order - no effect

1st order - change the rate to the same ratio

20
Q

What can and cant HNMR spectrums provide?

TPR test 1

A

This question is asking for the FALSE statement. The number of signals in a 1H NMR spectrum indicates how many different types of hydrogens a molecule has (eliminate choice B). The splitting pattern of each signal provides insight into the connectivity of the atoms since nonequivalent neighboring hydrogens split the signals of their neighbors (eliminate choice A). The chemical shift of a signal generally indicates what types of groups are near the hydrogens in the molecule (eliminate choice C). While 1H NMR provides information about the splitting patterns of hydrogen atoms in a molecule, splitting effects only apply between nonequivalent hydrogens (not equivalent hydrogens). This answer choice is false, thus choice D is correct.

21
Q

urea cycle

TPR test 1

A

The urea cycle occurs primarily in the human liver, the site of most amino acid catabolism (elements of the urea cycle also take place in the kidneys; choice C is false and the correct answer). Increased dietary intake of protein leads to increased protein catabolism and ammonia production. Ammonia nitrogen is excreted in the form of urea (choice B is a true statement and not the correct answer). Urea cycle disorders are caused by deficiencies in various urea cycle enzymes and can lead to the build-up of intermediates of the urea cycle (choice A is a true statement and not the correct answer). Such disorders are often characterized by progressive liver failure and accumulation of ammonia. Both arginosuccinase and arginase are components of the urea cycle (choice D is a true statement and not the correct answer).

22
Q

need to know protein/fat metabolism. ammonia. nitrogen. urea

TPR test 1

A

re urea to be excreted (choices A and B can be eliminated). Note that both remaining choices include Item III, so Item III must be true and we can focus only on Item II. Item II is false: if ammonia reabsorption is impaired, more ammonia will be lost in the urine (choice C can be eliminated and choice D is correct). Item III is in fact true: glycolysis is a primary pathway of pyruvate production. Since transport of ammonia from the muscle to the liver is pyruvate-dependent, reduced pyruvate production would impair ammonium excretion

23
Q

Which of the following will bring about an increase in the ratio of separated charge stored on the plates to the potential difference between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor?
An increase in the distance between the plates
An increase in the area of the plates
An increase in the dielectric constant of the material between the plates
TPR test 1

A

The ratio of the separated charge stored on the plates to the voltage between them, Q / V, is the definition of the capacitance, C. If a dielectric is in place, the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is given by the equation C = K(ε0A /d), where K is the dielectric constant, A is the area of each plate, d is the distance between the plates, and ε0 is a constant. Therefore, increasing A (Item II) or increasing K (Item III) will increase C, but increasing d (Item I) will cause a decrease in C.

24
Q

If a drug inhibited the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase in neurons, this would result in:
course test 2

A

decreased cellular glucose uptake via secondary active transport.
The Na+/K+ ATPase is used to generate a Na+ gradient which is then used for glucose uptake by cells via secondary active transport (choices B and C are wrong). Uptake of glucose is mediated by the Na+-glucose cotransporter. Inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase would destroy the Na+ gradient and in turn decrease glucose uptake (choice A is wrong and choice D is correct). Remember that secondary active transport does not directly use ATP, but instead relies on the gradient established by the direct use of ATP.

25
Q

Bond strength and potential energy

course test 2

A

https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-chemistry/chapter/bond-energy-and-enthalpy/

26
Q

Breaking bonds

course test 2

A

the amount of energy needed to break bonds must add up to the energy for all bonds

27
Q

A strong reducing agent

course test 2

A

A compound that is most easily oxidized. Ex) most easily gains electrongs

28
Q

What is the molecular formula for acetic acid?

A

CH3CO2H

29
Q

What is the discerning factor to separate compounds through distillation?

A

Boiling point.

30
Q

IF you see Br bonded to an R group —> SN1/SN2

A

Know substitution