Chem/Phys Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Solid–> Liquid –> Gas
Enthalpy and entropy pattern

A

enthalpy increases (least to most heat energy)
entropy increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

surfactant

A

reduces surface tension and total force resisting expansion
decreases work required to expand lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

electrons in smaller orbitals

A

held more tightly to nucleus
harder to eject, higher energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

energy of electron orbit

A

En= RH/n^2
RH= rydberg constant = 1x10^7 m^-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

n

A

energy level
higher= more energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

l

A

azimuthal/angular momentum
Approximate geometric shape of the orbital
l=n-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ml

A

magnetic quantum number (spatial orientation)
ml=-l…,0,…,+l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ms

A

spin quantum number (spin orientation)
ms= -1/2 or +1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

electrons within same orbital

A

are paired and have opposite spins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rutherford

A

gold foil experiment which showed the atom is actually a ton of empty space with a small positively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The bohr model

A

there is a small dense nucleus surrounded by orbiting electrons in different levels (shells) with discrete quanta (essentially energy packets) between them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The heisenberg uncertainty principle

A

as we know more about momentum of a particle the less you know about its position and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

during decay…

A

isotopes are formed, but the atomic mass does NOT change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

gamma rays

A

weightless packs of energy with no charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

electronegativity trend

A

most at top right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

atomic radius trend

A

most at bottom left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Polarizability trend

A

largest on the bottom left (polarizability increases in larger atoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

affinity chromatography

A

separates molecules based on interactions with stationary phase

column has a high affinity for protein of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SDS Page

A

binds anionic detergent to a polypeptide chain
SDS denatures and imparts even charges per mass unit so fractionation occurs by size alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

increased length of chromatography column

A

enhanced resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

reactivity of SN1 mechanism

A

tertiary (most stable and most favored) > secondary > primary

react faster in polar protic solvents

first order with respect to the electrophile (prenyl bromide) and zero order with respect to the nucleophile (methanol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SN1 steps

A

2 step reaction
1. leaving group dissociates and leaves behind unstable carbocation (slow/rate determining)
2. Nu- attacks carbocation + produce even mix of enantiomers (racemic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sn2 steps

A
  1. Nu- displaces leaving group through a backside attack
    R/S becomes inverted
    Central C will have 5 substituents

If the electrophile in an SN2 reaction is a chiral center, its stereochemistry will always be inverted by the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Reactivity of SN2

A

primary favored– steric hinderance is limiting

favors polar, aprotic solvents (acetone/DMSO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lowest priority should be

A

Dashed (in towards page)
if not, switch R and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Galvanic cells

A

have NEGATIVE ΔG
Utilize spontaneous redox reactions to produce electrical potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ΔG Equation

A

ΔG° = -nFE°

The Gibbs free energy ΔG° of an electrochemical cell is related to the number of electrons n transferred in the overall reaction, the overall cell potential = E°cell, and Faraday’s constant F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

E cell

A

E cathode - E anode
E reduced - E oxidized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Capacitance

A

Ability to hold charge

C = q/v

Ratio of magnitude of the charged stored on one plate (pos charge) to the potential difference across the capacitor on the other plate (neg charge)

C =(ϵ0 ϵr A)/d.

C=ϵ0 A / d:

ϵ0is the permittivity of free space (8.85 x 10-12 F/m)

directly proportional to area and charge but inversely proportional to the distance between the two sides of the capacitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Heart Rhythm Control

A

SA node of the right atrium sends out action potentials which use gap junctions to propagate through tissue and contract
Action potential flows from SA node to atria
Atria contracts and sends blood to ventricles, which push blood out of the heart
Signal sped through bundle of His and Purkinje fibers to muscle cells of ventricle

Deoxygenated blood returns to right atrium via superior and inferior vena cavae and coronary sinus (drains coronary veins)
then, pumped into right ventricle through tricuspid valve
from right ventricle to pulmonary arteries through the pulmonary semilunar valves
After oxygenation, returned to heard via pulmonary veins and enters left atrium
Pumped through bicuspid valve from the left atrium to left ventricle which pushes blood into circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Phosphoric Acid

A

H3PO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Phosphorous Acid

A

H3PO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ammonium

A

NH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ammonia

A

NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Common Ion Effect

A

pre existing presence of an ion in solution reduces molar solubility of a substance containing that ion

Ex. If you add NaCl to a solution already containing MgCl, it will not dissolve as well and will precipitate more

the decrease in solubility of an ionic precipitate by the addition to the solution of a soluble compound with an ion in common with the precipitate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ksp

A

the product of each substance’s dissolved ion concentration raised to the power of the stoichiometric coefficient (larger= more soluble)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hooke’s Law

A

F= kx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Potential Energy of a spring

A

1/2 kx ^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Charles’ Law

A

Direct relationship between gas’ volume and temp

if one increases, the other will too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

physics formulas

A

d=vt
vf = vi + at
d = vit + 1/2 at^2
vf^2 = vi^2 + 2ad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

1 atm in Pa

A

10^5 Pa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

PE and KE

A

(1/2) m (vf)^2 = mgΔH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Homotropic Regulation

A

when a molecule serves as a substrate for its target enzyme and regulates enzyme activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

volume of gasses

A

changes as a result of pressure changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

solubility of water vapor in air

A

decreases with decreasing temperature

decreased temp, decreased relative humidity (can hold less water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

1 mol ideal gas

A

occupies 22.4 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Titration equation

A

NaVa=NbVb
N= mol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Agonist

A

chemical that binds to a receptor and activates a biological response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

positive controls

A

known to produce expected effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

PE

A

mgh
in joules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Wnet

A

ΔKE
in joules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Power (Watts)

A

Work (kJ) / Time (s)
W / t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Coulomb’s Law

A

Electrostatic force between 2 charged particles is proportional to individual charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
FE= k q1 q2 / r^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

transition metals

A

create colored solutions because they have unfilled d orbitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

pI (isoelectric point)

A

1/2 (pka1 + pka2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

inert gases

A

Ex. N2
Don’t react with oxygen or other gases, prevent side chain reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

hydronium conc. > 1M

A

pH in negatives becomes possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Protein synthesis

A

from N –> C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Solute concentration increase (in boiling systems)

A

Causes a decrease in the rate at which water molecules escape the liquid surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Boiling point

A

where Pvap = Patm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Beta minus decay

A

move 1 right on periodic table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Beta plus decay

A

Move 1 left on periodic table
same for e capture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Alpha decay

A

Move 2 left on periodic table
Charge -4 on top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Torque formula

A

rFsinΘ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Work

A

fcosΘd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Km

A

the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of its maximal value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Vmax

A

the rate attained when the enzyme sites are saturated with substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Newton’s laws

A
  1. at rest, stay at rest
  2. F = ma
  3. every action has equal and opposite reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Capacitors

A

In parallel= C1+C2+C3+…
In series= 1/C1+1/C2+1/C3+…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Resistance

A

In parallel= 1/R+1/R2+…
In series= R1+R2+R3+…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

H2 w/ Pd

A

catalyzes aldehydes to alcohols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

O3

A

used for oxidative cleavage of alkenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

strong oxidizing agent

A

NaCr2O7
KMnO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

LiAlH4

A

for reduction of aldehyde to primary alcohol

LiAlH4 is a strong reducing agent and will reduce carbonyl compounds, including esters and carboxylic acids, to alcohols.

Reducing agents decrease an atom’s oxidation state and reduce the number of bonds carbon has to electronegative atoms while increasing the number of bonds to less electronegative atoms (commonly hydrogen).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

C-H (ir spec)

A

@ around 3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

OH or NH Peak (IR spec)

A

@ 3300-3500 (broad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

C-O bond (IR spec)

A

@1100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Aromatic Bond (IR Spec)

A

@1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Alkene bond (IR spec)

A

@ 1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Alkyne bond (IR spec)

A

@ around 2200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Carbonyl peak (IR spec)

A

@ 1700 (sharp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Oxygen and  standard reduction potential

A

must possess a highly positive standard reduction potential because it is the final e- acceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ΔG and Keq

A

will be opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Exothermic

A

Release heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Endothermic

A

absorb heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Hess’s Law

A

H reaction = H products - H reactants

whether taking place in one step or multiple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Electrolytic cell

A

uses electric potential to drive a spontaneous redox reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Capacitor

A

uses conducting material between plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Reagents for buffer solution

A

If buffer is acidic, will want a weak acid as reagent
If buffer is basic, will want a weak base as reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

For total internal reflection

A

Light travels from more to less dense medium and can no longer refract

angle of incidence will be greater than the critical angle

only happens when n1>n2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Hydrotropes

A

Water soluble, surface active compounds that increase solubility of poorly soluble drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Sound is attenuated when

A

Attenuation= weakening of ultrasound signal
parts of the signal are reflected, scattered, absorbed, refracted, or diffracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Alkyl groups are electron ____

A

donators
Generate a higher inductive effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Amphiprotic species

A

can act as an acid or a base
ex. sodium bicarbonate NaHCO3 can dissociate into NAOH or HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Efficiency of a system

A

output work/input energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Retention Factor

A

the distance the compound migrated divided by the distance of the solvent front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

TLC
What is it dependent on?

A

Silica gel is polar and hydrophilic while mobile phase is usually a moderately polar, organic solvent
- non polar compounds dissolve in the organic solvent and move faster and further

Mnemonic: no problem fuck face (non polar faster further)

Dependent on polarity, temperature, eluting strength (increases with increasing solvent polarity)
- polar compounds will not move as far, nonpolar will have more affinity for mobile phase
- temp inversely proportional to eluting strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Ideal Buffer

A

Will have a pKa within 1 value of the pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

An aldol condensation

A

results in a new carbon–carbon bond and an α,β–unsaturated enone. The reaction requires two carbonyl groups (from ketones and/or aldehydes) and occurs by the nucleophilic attack of an enolate on a carbonyl followed by elimination

  1. base pulls of a hydrogen to form a carbanion
  2. carbanion attacks carbonyl to create C-C bond
  3. an elimination reaction with heat removes alcohol and adds alkene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In a mixture of isomers…

A

the more stable product will predominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Lactonization

A

the intramolecular reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid that creates a cyclic ester (lactone).

Lactonization can be classified as both a dehydration reaction and a condensation reaction, as a molecule of water is lost when the two functional groups combine to form a lactone. Lactonizations that result in the formation of five- or six-membered rings are especially favorable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

reduction reaction

A

occurs when a substance gains electrons or decreases the number of carbon-heteroatom bonds (carbon to something other than carbon) at a specific carbon atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A lactamization

A

an intramolecular condensation reaction between an amine and a carboxylic acid that forms a cyclic amide (lactam).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A stereoselective reaction

A

results in the preferential formation of a stereoisomer. For example, a reaction that prefers either a cis or trans outcome would be stereoselective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Conformational isomers

A

structures that have the same connectivity and can be interconverted by the rotation of σ bonds. Because conformational isomers are identical except for bond rotations, they are the same compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Constitutional Isomers

A

have the same molecular formula but differ in connectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Enantiomers

A

nonsuperimposable mirror images in which all stereocenters are inverted.

have same chemical properties, but differ in how they rotate the plane of polarized light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Diastereomers

A

stereoisomers with two or more chiral centers in which some, but not all, of the chiral centers are opposite.

have very similar chemical, but less similar physical properties,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for a compound

A

determined by the expression 2^n, where n is the number of stereocenters.

Be careful of meso compounds!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Energy stored in a capacitor

A

U= 1/2 C V^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

voltmeter

A

measures the voltage V between two points in an electric circuit. To measure V across a resistor, the voltmeter is connected in parallel with the resistor because circuit elements connected in parallel have the same V. By Ohm’s law, the resistor’s V equals the product of the current I and the resistance R: V=IR

should behave like an open circuit (ie, have a very large resistance) to ensure accurate voltage measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

electric field E produced by a charge q

A

depends on Coulomb’s constant k and the distance r from q, according to the equation:

E= kq / (r^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Keq and ∆G

A

an equilibrium constant (Keq) > 1 corresponds to a negative ∆G. This makes logical sense, since Keq > 1 indicates that the reaction favors the products, while ∆G < 0 tells us that the reaction is spontaneous as written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Spontaneity at all temperatures

A

occurs when ΔH<0 and ΔS>0.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Vitamin considered an antioxidant

A

Vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

High entropy in the membrane

A

when water is able to bond with hydrophilic (polar) residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

as the surface area of molecules increases,

A

so does the strength of intermolecular forces between molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Peptide bond formation

A

occurs as the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom on the amine attacks, and the amine adds to the carbonyl carbon, making it a nucleophilic acyl substitution.

In the process of bond formation, the hydroxyl group of the carboxylic acid leaves as a water molecule. Therefore, this is a condensation reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Dynein

A

a motor protein that walks towards the minus end of the microtubules, which is oriented towards the center of the cell.

Movement toward the center of the cell is described as retrograde.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Kinesin

A

a motor protein that is responsible for anterograde transport in cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Myosin

A

a motor protein that is primarily responsible for attaching to actin filaments during muscle contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Selectin

A

a class of cell adhesion molecules (CAM) that mediate the inflammatory response, and is not a motor protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

the refractive index (n) of a given material is defined as

A

n = c/vmaterial

This value is 1 for a vacuum and is approximated as 1 for air. For all other materials, n is greater than 1; for instance, window glass has a refractive index of 1.52.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Snell’s law

A

n1sin(θ1) = n2sin(θ2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

when light moves into a medium with a smaller index of refraction (that is, when n2 < n1).

A

(Ex. moving from water to air)
the angle θ with the normal will increase—in other words, the ray of light will bend further away from the normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

critical angle

A

As the angle of the incident ray (θ1) increases, there will come a point where the angle of the refracted ray (θ2) reaches 90°

When angle increases beyond critical angle, the light can no longer refract at all and instead are reflected within the original medium (total internal reflection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Ksp

A

solubility product constant

equilibrium constant for a solid substance dissolving in an aqueous solution

more soluble= higher Ksp value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

getting molar solubility from Ksp

A

Ksp = [products] ^ # molecules

ex. Ca(OH)2

Ksp = [Ca] [OH]^2
Ksp = x(2x)^2

set Ksp = 4x^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Equilibrium constant changes– how does it change?

A

will NOT change from changes in concentration (though concentration may affect whether a precipitate forms)

will only change by changing temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Equilibrium in a reaction where ∆H > 0

A

increasing the temperature will shift the reaction toward the products, while decreasing it will shift the reaction toward the reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Magnetic Field

A

If a sample has nuclear spin due to an odd number or protons or neutrons, will be affected by magnetic field

Atomic nuclei may align with the field (low energy) or against the field (high energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

NMR spectrum

A

resonance frequencies are chemical shifts ranging from 0 on the far right to positive values on the far left

shift of 0 is assigned to TMS as a refernce point

peaks shifted to the right are upfield

peaks shifted to the left are downfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

NMR Signals

A

the distinct peaks (groups of hydrogens) created by hydrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

unique hydrogens

A

hydrogens that are different than others in molecule (will not be unique if there are lines of symmetry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

NMR splits

A

how many individual peaks will be within a signal
n+1 where n = # of adjacent hydrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

NMR shifts

A

how far away a signal is from 0 (on right @ TMS)

depend on electronegative atoms and unsaturated groups
- closer to electronegative atom/unsaturated groups will be downfield (further left) - downfield and de-shielded (When electronegative groups are present, they pull electron density away from the proton and further deshield it.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

IR spectroscopy main regions

A

4000-2500= single bond region
2500-2000= triple bond region
2000-1500= double bond region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

C-H (ir spec)

A

@ around 3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Aromatic Bond (IR Spec)

A

@1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Strong acids to know

A

hydrochloric acid
nitric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Weak acids to know

A

Hydrofluoric acid
Acetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

If the stationary phase has a net positive charge

A

compounds with negative charges will be attracted to stationary phase and move slowly through column

compounds with positive charge will repel and elute through more quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Open System

A

Matter is exchanged; heat E can be exchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Closed System

A

No matter is exchanged; heat E can be exchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Isolated System

A

No matter is exchanged; no heat E is exchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

First law of thermodynamics

A

the internal energy of an isolated system is constant

Inability to create or destroy matter

Energy cannot be added/taken away but can be converted into forms like heat or work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

work can cause a change in…

A

transfer of energy that can cause a change in pressure or volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Negative Latent Heat (enthalpy)

A

Implies that phase change is consuming energy

either melting, evaporation, or sublimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Positive Latent Heat (enthalpy)

A

Implies that phase change is releasing energy

either freezing, vaporization, or deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Q=mL

A

Q= heat change
m= mass
L= specific latent heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

oxidation

A

(1) loss of an electron
(2) increased oxidation state
(3) loss of a C–H bond (e.g. alkane → alkene)
(4) gain of a C–O or C–N bond (or any bond between carbon and a highly electronegative atom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

reduction

A

(1) gain of an electron
(2) decreased oxidation state
(3) formation of a C–H bond (e.g. alkene → alkane)
(4) loss of a C–O or C–N bond (or any bond between carbon and an electronegative atom).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Oxygen-containing organic compounds exist on a spectrum of oxidation

A

from alcohols (most reduced/least oxidized) to aldehydes/ketones (intermediate reduction/oxidation) to carboxylic acids (least reduced/most oxidized)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Optical isomers

A

come in pairs and typically contain one or more chiral centers.

These substituents are arranged differently around the chiral carbon, in such a way that the molecule cannot be rotated to make the two arrangements match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Cis/Z

A

highest priority groups on the same side of the molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

weak reducing agent

A

NaBH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Ozonolysis

A

the cleavage of an alkene or alkyne with ozone (O3) that results in the multiple carbon–carbon bond being replaced by a double bond to oxygen (carbonyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The decibel scale

A

a logarithmic scale expressing the intensity of a sound as its ratio to that of the smallest detectable sound intensity I0). The intensity ratio of sound in decibels is defined as dB = 10log(I/I0), where I0 is 1 × 10−12 W/m2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

range of human hearing

A

from 20 Hz to 20 kHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Synthesis reactions to create amino acids

A

Strecker synthesis is used to generate amino acids by reacting an aldehyde with a desired R group.

Gabriel synthesis can be used to generate primary amines, which can then be immediately followed-up with malonic ester synthesis to create an amino acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

frequency of a spring

A

f = (1 / 2 π)(√k / m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Shwann Cells

A

produce myelin in the PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

atom size

A

Compared to the neutral atom of a given element, its cation will be smaller but its anion will be larger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

strong vs weak lewis acids

A

Metal cations with a smaller ionic radius and a higher positive charge are stronger Lewis acids (electron acceptors) than those with a larger ionic radius and lower charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

∆G°=−RT ln Keq

A

Use when you have equivalent constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Imines

A

are composed of a carbon-nitrogen double bond with either a hydrogen atom or an R group attached to the nitrogen atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

amide

A

a carboxylic acid derivative with a carbonyl carbon atom bonded to an amine group, as opposed to a hydroxyl group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Enamines

A

functional groups that contain an amine group bonded to an alkene. Many imines can be converted to enamines through tautomerization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

imide

A

a functional group with a nitrogen atom bound to two acyl groups (ie, two carbonyl carbon atoms). Imides are structurally similar to acid anhydrides but include bonds with the acyl groups instead of oxygen atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

titration

A

To visually detect when a titration is complete, an indicator that has an endpoint (color change) near the pH of the equivalence point can be added to the solution. Different indicators change color across a particular pH range (endpoint range). The best indicator for a given titration is one that has a pH range that corresponds most closely to the pH of the equivalence point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

good leaving groups

A

The halogens are generally good leaving groups because they can form stable anions. Larger halogens are better leaving groups than small halogens because they can spread the negative charge over a larger surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Acids in reactions

A

Acids catalyze many reactions by donating protons to a reactant. Protonation enhances electrophiles and increases the stability of leaving groups. Acids generally decrease the nucleophilicity of molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Gabriel Synthesis

A

The Gabriel synthesis is a method used to make primary amines, including α-amino acids with potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalonate, (starting materials that have planar reaction sites without chiral centers).

postassium phtalimide acts as a nucleophile and attacks electrophilic C of diethyl bromomalonate in an SN2 reaction where Br leaves. Then, in another SN2 reaction, the α-carbon is deprotonated with a base and attacks an alkyl halide to add the amino acid side chain.Hydrolysis of the phthalimide group and the esters on the α-carbon is followed by acidification of the carboxyl groups and decarboxylation, yielding an amino acid.

Although the decarboxylation step creates a stereocenter, this step is not stereospecific and causes the Gabriel synthesis to yield a mixture of enantiomers (R and S aas).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Resolving Agent

A

creates a mixture of diastereomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Chiral column Chromatography

A

Uses a chiral stationary phase that interacts more strongly with one enantiomer while the other moves more quickly through the column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Vacuum distillation

A

performed under reduced system pressure, thereby lowering a compound’s boiling point.

Compounds with high boiling points (>150 °C) tend to decompose at or near their boiling point. Therefore, vacuum distillation is ideal for compounds with a boiling point over 150 °C to prevent degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Fractional distillation

A

ideal for compounds with boiling points less than 25°C apart and less than 150°C

the initial distillate will be enriched in the lowest boiling point that was placed in the flask. highest boiling point will be in the final fractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Simple distillation

A

if the components have widely different boiling points (greater than a 100 °C difference in boiling points).Aug 11, 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Gas-liquid chromatography

A

a technique that separates compounds based on boiling point. Compounds with lower boiling points have shorter retention times than compounds with higher boiling points. For compounds with a similar number of carbon atoms, the boiling point depends on the functional group and the strength of intermolecular forces present.

branching (decreases surface area and increases steric hinderance) decreases the boiling point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)

A

separates molecules according to their relative polarity and the resulting interactions with the mobile and stationary phases.
nonpolar compounds elute faster than polar (nonpolar compounds have a shorter retention time, and polar compounds have a longer retention time.)

think of “like dissolves like” principle; nonpolar compounds more closely interact with nonpolar, vice versa

on a chromatogram, the area under the curve is proportional to the quantity of material present

In reversed-phase HPLC, the mobile phase is a polar solvent and the stationary phase is made of a nonpolar material. (polar molecules will move up the most)

the stationary phase is polar relative to the mobile phase. Molecules with more polar bonds have a greater affinity for the stationary phase, and thus have a longer retention time than molecules with fewer polar bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Extraction

A

a technique that uses an organic solvent and an aqueous solution to separate molecules based on solubility. Molecules have a greater affinity for solvents with similar polarity (“like dissolves like”).

Modifying a molecule’s charge or polarity changes its affinity for the organic or aqueous layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Exothermic/Endothermic

A

An endothermic reaction has a positive ΔH° and absorbs heat from the surroundings

An exothermic reaction has a negative ΔH° and releases heat into the surroundings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Is the reaction spontaneous? (S and H)

A

When ΔS° is positive and ΔH° is negative (ie, an exothermic reaction), the process is always spontaneous (−ΔG°).

When ΔS° is negative and ΔH° is positive (ie, an endothermic reaction), the process is nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at any temperature.

When both ΔS° and ΔH° are negative, the process is spontaneous (−ΔG°) at low temperatures and nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at high temperatures.

When both ΔS° and ΔH° are positive, the process is spontaneous (−ΔG°) at high temperatures and nonspontaneous (+ΔG°) at low temperatures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

the length of a σ bond

A

can be estimated as the sum of the atomic radii of the bonded atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

liquid-liquid extraction

A

a lab technique to separate materials based on differences in solubility.

Liquid-liquid extraction requires liquids that are not soluble in one another (immiscible) and form two distinct layers when placed in a container.

Extraction liquids typically have different polarities, and dissolved solute(s) partition between the two layers based on the principle of “like dissolves like.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Functional groups on the mass spectrum

A

Amides, amines, and compounds that contain an odd number of nitrogen atoms have a molecular ion with an odd m/z and fragments with an even m/z.

Some alcohols are prone to dehydration, where the molecular ion is apparent 18 m/z below the expected value.

Chlorinated and brominated compounds have peaks determined by their natural isotopic abundance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Specific rotation measures what?

A

measures the direction (+ or −) and magnitude (angle) of rotation by which chiral molecules rotate plane-polarized light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

polarimeter

A

the instrument used to measure the rotation of polarized light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Specific Rotation Equation

A

= observed rotation / (c x l)

c is concentration in g/mL
l is path length in dm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Waxes

A

hydrolyzable lipids that contain an ester bond formed by the linkage between a long-chain fatty acid and a long-chain alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

HOMO/LUMO

A

populated starting with lowest energy MO

HOMO= highest occupied molecular orbital
LUMO= lowest unoccupied molecular orbital

conjugation (more stable, lower energy)–
- decreases the HOMO-LUMO energy difference
- increases the λmax

molecules with a smaller gap between HOMO and LUMO are more easily excited and can absorb longer wavelengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Energy of a photon

A

E = h f

E = h c / λ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Base Peak

A

the m/z value that produces the highest relative abundance (100%) and normally corresponds to a cation that is either especially stable or likely to form.

Mass spectrometry experiments ionize samples and detect the abundance of ions at each mass-to-charge ratio (m/z).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Fingerprint region

A

in IR spec, wavenumbers from 1500 - 400 cm-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Deshielding

A

the more a protons electron density is pulled away (by more electronegative elements), the less it can shield itself from the applied magnetic field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Extraction

A

Two solvents must be immiscible – form two layers and do not mix.

Aqueous phase: polar layer, usually water
Organic phase: nonpolar layer

Separatory Funnel: equipment used to isolate the two phases after they have been given time to spread out again.
Denser layer sink to the bottom due to gravity, and can be removed.

More common for organic layer to be on top, but ultimately depends on density.

Once the desired product has been isolated, it can be obtained by evaporating the solvent by using a rotary evaporator.

Wash: reverse of the extraction process in order to remove unwanted impurities.
Small amount of solute is used to extract and remove impurities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Solubility based separations

A

extraction
filtration
recrystalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

gas chromatography

A

separates molecules primarily on the basis of boiling point.
Compounds with a lower boiling point tend to stay in the gas phase and move through the column quickly, whereas compounds with higher boiling points have a greater tendency to interact with the liquid phase and a longer retention time.

For compounds with the same number of carbon atoms, alkanes have the lowest boiling point, followed by aldehydes and ketones, alcohols, and carboxylic acids.

eluent is a gas instead of a liquid
mobile phase is usually an inert gas

compounds must be volatile (low melting point, sublimable, vaporizable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

IUPAC Naming

A
  1. Identify the Longest Carbon Chain Containing the Highest-Order Functional Group
    The highest priority functional group (with the most oxidized carbon) will provide the suffix
    If there are two or more carbon chains of equal length, then the more substituted chain gets priority as the parent chain.
  2. Number the Chain
    The carbon numbered one will be the one closest to the highest-priority functional group.
    If the functional groups all have the same priority, numbering the chain should make the number of the substituted carbons as low as possible
    The more oxidized a carbon is, the higher priority it has in the molecule.
    Oxidation state increases with more bonds to heteroatoms (atoms beside hydrogen and carbon) and decreases with more bonds to hydrogen.
    For rings, numbers start at the point of greatest substitution, and continues in that direction
    If there is a tie between assigning priority in a molecule with double and triple bonds, the double bond takes precedence.
  3. Name the Substituents
    Substituents are functional groups that are not part of the parent chain.
    Substituents name will be placed at the beginning of the compound name as a prefix, followed by the name of the longest chain.
    Only the highest priority functional group will determine the suffix for the compound
    Carbon chain substituents are named like alkanes, with suffix –yl replacing –ane
    n- prefix indicates that it is normal or is a straight chain alkane.
    If there are multiple substituents of the same type, prefixes such as di-, tri- & tetra- are used.
  4. Assign a Number to Each Substituent
    Pair the substituents that you have named to the corresponding number in the parent chain
    Multiple substituents of the same type will get both the required prefix and a carbon number designation, even if they are on the same number
  5. Complete the Name
    Always begins with the names of the substituents in alphabetical order, and each substituent is preceded by its number.
    Numbers are separated by commas, and word with hyphens
    Name is finished with the name of the parent chain with the suffix being the functional group of the highest priority.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Naming Alkanes

A

Simple hydrocarbons with the formula: CnH2n+2
Goes methane, ethane, propane, butane, pentane, hexane, heptane, octane….
Alkyl halides are alkanes with halogen substituents (common). Have the following prefixes: fluoro-, chloro- , bromo-, or iodo-.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Naming alkenes and alkynes

A

indicated by the lower number carbon that precedes the bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Alcohol naming

A

carbon attached to hydroxyl group gets the lowest possible number

hydroxyl groups on same carbon: germinal diols
hydroxyl groups on adjacent carbons: vicinal diols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

aldehydes/ketone naming

A

contain a carbonyl group; are chain terminating (carbonyl appears at the end of the chain)

replace -e with -al (aldehyde) or -one (ketone)

aldehydes: carbonyl takes precedence and is given the number
ketones: list alkyl groups in order then end with ketone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

state functions

A

Includes enthalpy, entropy, and Gibbs free energy; means they describe the energetic differences between the reactants and the products in their current state. These values are independent of the chemical pathway that a reaction takes to get from reactants to products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Process functions

A

(or path functions) describe the path taken by a system to transition from one equilibrium state to another. A system transitions from one state to another due to a net flow of energy in the form of heat transfer or work. For example, the loss or gain of heat is a process function because it describes the path taken by a system from its current pressure, volume, and temperature to a different set of values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

photoelectric effect

A

when light of a sufficiently high frequency is incident on a metal in a vacuum, the metal atoms emit electrons

electrons produce a current (more intense light, more electrons on electrode, larger current)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Threshold frequency

A

minimum frequency of light that causes ejection of photons

if frequency of photon is more, electron will be ejected with kinetic energy:
Kmax = hf - W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Mass defect

A

difference between theoretical mass of a nucleus and the actual mass; actual mass is smaller (since some has been converted into speed of light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Binding energy

A

allows nucleons to bind in the nucleus; bonded nucleons have lower energy than unbonded constituents; difference is emitted as radiation

higher binding energy= more stable nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

isotope decay

A

When parent nucleus, X, undergoes nuclear decay to form daughter nucleus Y, the balanced reaction is: ZAX=Z’A’Y+emitted decay particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

exponential decay

A

∆n/∆t=-λn

n=n0e^-λt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Conductivity

A

in Siemens/m (vs. conductance which is in Siemens)

measures how well electrons can flow

metallic or electrolytic
electrolytic occurs in an ionic solution when electrodes are placed in an electrolyte solution and a voltage is applied; electrolyte will conduct electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Kirchoff’s Junction Rule

A

I entering at junction= I exciting from junction

must have the same amount of charges going in and out

When a resistor is removed from a series circuit, there is a larger voltage drop across the remaining resistors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Current

A

I=Q/∆t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Insulators

A

internal charge cannot flow freely and cannot conduct electric current; does NOT transmit heat/sound/electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Resistivity

A

the property of a material quantifying how strongly it resists or conducts current; low resistivity indicates ready flow of electric current

p (resistivity) = R x A / L
R= resistance
L = length (if length increases, resistance increases)
A= area (increases number of conduction pathways which reduces resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Properties of resisters

A

Resistivity: intrinsic resistance
Length: longer= increased resistance
Cross Sectional Area: increases number of conduction pathways and reduces resistance
Temperature: typically greater resistance at higher temperatures; increases thermal vibration to increase resistance to e- flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Ohm’s Law

A

V=IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Power (Ohm’s Law)

A

P= I V =I^2 X R = V^2 / R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Potential Energy with Capacitance

A

U=1/2CV^2

222
Q

Dielectric Materials

A

Similar to insulation; will always INCREASE capacitance when placed between the plates, never decreases capacitance

Q=CV

For an isolated and charged capacitor, Q is constant because there’s no battery source that can add any further charge. Since C increases with dielectric, V must decrease.

For a charging capacitor, V is constant and equal to the voltage of the battery source. Since C increases with the dielectric, Q must increase.

Dielectrics are a class of polarizable materials in which electric dipoles can be induced. When a dielectric material is inserted between capacitor plates, the electric field present between these plates causes the dipoles induced in the dielectric material to align, decreasing both electric field strength and voltage. Due to this insulating effect, dielectric substances increase capacitance.

223
Q

Meters

A

Ammeters: measure CURRENT at some point within a circuit; circuit must be on and must be put in series with current voltage to be measured; ideal ammeters have 0 resistance and no voltage drop

Voltmeters: requires circuit to be on, uses magnetic properties of current carrying wires; measures VOLTAGE drop across two points in a circuit that must be wired in parallel; ideal voltmeter would have infinite resistance

Ohmmeters: don’t require circuit to be on; have their own battery w/ known voltage; acts like an ammeter to find RESISTANCE

224
Q

68-95-99 Rule

A

68% of the population is within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
95% of the population is within 2 standard deviation of the mean.
99.7% of the population is within 3 standard deviation of the mean

only applies for normal distribution

225
Q

interquartile range

A

third quartile minus first quartile

226
Q

Stats error types

A

type I : incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis (think it’s wrong when right)
type II : incorrectly fail to reject null hypothesis (think it’s right when wrong)

227
Q

Insulator

A

will not evenly distribute charge over surface or transfer charge well

228
Q

Conductor

A

will distribute any charge approximately evenly across the surface

229
Q

amines as leaving groups

A

they are very stable, and are strong bases
will not participate in nucleophilic substitution unless they are replacing a great leaving group (Cl/Br)

230
Q

stacking of trans fats

A

more stable stacking of trans fats means that they are more likely to be solids—and therefore less likely to be liquids—at room temperature.

231
Q

Saponification

A

involves the conversion of fat or oil or lipid into soap and alcohol by the action of heat in the presence of aqueous alkali

the hydrolysis of an ester with a strong base

232
Q

Phosphatidate

A

monoglyceride or triglyceride that combines with phosphoric acid to form a phospholipid

233
Q

prostaglandins

A

any compounds with varying hormone-like effects; notably the promotion of uterine attraction

cyclic fatty acids

234
Q

Energy of a photon

A

E = hv/λ

(comes from v = λf)

235
Q

Avogadro’s Number

A

6.02 x 10^23 mol-1

Use when wanting to convert moles to molecules

236
Q

Ionization of transition metals

A

During the ionization of transition metals, electrons from 4s subshell orbitals are generally removed before those from 3d subshell orbitals.

ex. ionization of Co 2+ is [Ar]3d7

237
Q

Rules of Oxidation States

A

Diatomic elements have oxidation states of zero. Otherwise, oxidation states are summed to equal the charge of the molecule.

The oxidation state of F is -1, because it is the most electronegative element. Other halogens will usually have an oxidation state of -1, unless they are bonded to a more electronegative halogen, N, or O. In that case, their oxidation state may be +1, +3, +4 (for Br), +5, or even +7.

The oxidation state of H is +1, except when it is bonded to a more electropositive element, in which case it will be -1. The examples you are most likely to encounter of this on the MCAT are the reducing agents NaH, NaBH4, and LiAlH4.

The oxidation state of O is usually -2, with some important exceptions, such as peroxides, in which it is -1.

The oxidation state of alkali metals (the first column in the periodic table) is always +1, and that of alkaline earth metals (the second column in the periodic table) is always +2.

238
Q

H NMR breakdown

A

Peaks that appear between 0-5 ppm are indicative of sp3 hydrogens.

Peaks around 5-8.5 ppm are indicative of amide (R(C=O)NR2) hydrogens.

239
Q

enols/enolates

A

Enols are alkenes with a hydroxyl group attached to one of the double bonds’ carbon atoms.

Enolates are the deprotonated anions of enols.

240
Q

mass of glucose

A

180 g (C6H12O6)

241
Q

Young’s modulus

A

a measure of the stiffness of an elastic solid material. The slope of the graph (stress/strain) is equal to the Young’s modulus. The higher the Young’s modulus, the stiffer the solid material is.

242
Q

Planck’s Law

A

E = h x f

243
Q

Laminar flow

A

due to shear forces (friction) between the fluid and the solid surface of the tube. This results in layers having a gradient of velocities, in which:

flow is the fastest in the middle of the tube (where friction is low) and slowest near the surface (where friction is high).

244
Q

Flow Rate

A

Q = (ΔP x pi x r^4) / (8ηL)

the flow rate (Q), the pressure drop between both ends of the tube (∆P), the radius of the tube (r), the length of the tube (L), and the viscosity (η)

245
Q

At higher altitudes

A

there is less oxygen in the air

246
Q

Force when there is friction

A

Fnet = ma = Fapplied – Fk, where Fk is the force of kinetic friction

F applied = ma

if you want to convert to Work,
W= Fd cosΘ

247
Q

When carbon dioxide dissolves in water…

A

slowly establishes equilibrium between the dissolved carbon dioxide and carbonic acid (H2CO3), which is a weak acid that would lower the pH

248
Q

Fischer esterification

A

an acid-catalyzed reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid

The Fischer esterification requires an acid catalyst (usually sulfuric acid, H2SO4) and heat, and is a condensation reaction that eliminates a molecule of water from the reactants alongside ester formation.

249
Q

Esters (naming)

A

named by first stating the prefix that corresponds to the alcohol alkyl chain followed by the name of the carboxylic acid. The carboxylic acid suffix –ic acid is replaced by –ate.

250
Q

boiling point and IMFs

A

Boiling points are dependent on a molecule’s intermolecular forces, and strong intermolecular forces lead to higher boiling points.

Carboxylic acids contain a hydrogen bond donor (hydroxyl hydrogen) and hydrogen bond acceptors (carbonyl oxygen, hydroxyl oxygen), and therefore can hydrogen bond with themselves. Because hydrogen bonds are strong intermolecular forces, carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than molecules of a similar molecular weight that cannot hydrogen bond to themselves and have weaker intermolecular forces.

251
Q

Stop Codons (tRNA) are recognized by

A

stop codons are recognized by release factors, not tRNA molecules. Therefore, the last tRNA brought into the ribosome binds the codon directly upstream of the stop codon

Stop codons do not code for amino acids and are recognized by release factors instead of tRNA

252
Q

Respiration and pH

A

Changes in respiration affect blood pH levels, with increased respiration tending to cause increased blood pH.

253
Q

pressure

A

equal to the liquid density multiplied by the gravitational acceleration multiplied by 10 cm.

254
Q

exergonic

A

release of heat energy

255
Q

pyrrole

A

a five-membered aromatic heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom.

found in heme

256
Q

The continuity equation

A

vπ r^2 = vπ r^2
v= velocity
r= radius
characterizes flow

257
Q

Imidazole

A

group attached to histidine

formula: C3N2H4 (cyclic with 2 amine)

258
Q

Indole

A

group attached to tryptophan

formula: C11H12N2O2 (two rings with an amine)

259
Q

Ionic compounds with ammonium

A

Ammonium formate is NH4HCO2

Ammonium carbonate is (NH4)2CO3

Ammonium bicarbonate is NH4HCO3

Ammonium acetate is NH4CH3CO2

260
Q

activation energy

A

energy to be overcome before forming products

261
Q

Esterification

A

An esterification reaction results in the formation of a new ester linkage. Direct esterification reactions between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol occur slowly at room temperature and in the absence of a catalyst.

262
Q

enolates

A

organic anions derived from the deprotonation of carbonyl compounds

263
Q

Retro-aldol reaction

A

retro-aldol reaction is the reverse of an aldol condensation. When heated and treated with an aqueous base, the dehydration product (enone or enal) is first hydrated into the aldol product (β-hydroxy ketone), and then the carbon-carbon bond between the α- and β-carbons breaks. The retro-aldol reaction yields two products: either two ketones, two aldehydes, or one of each.

264
Q

pKa

A

the pH value at which the protonated and deprotonated forms of the functional group are present in equal concentrations.

Influenced by local environmental and structural factors that affect the stabilities of the protonated vs. deprotonated forms.

If the protonated form is stabilized, the functional group resists deprotonation until higher pH values, raising the pKa.

Destabilization of the deprotonated form allows the group to pick up a proton more easily, raising the pH at which significant protonation can occur, and thus raising the pKa.

265
Q

glycosidic bond
What is it made of? How is it broken?

A

the linkage between monosaccharides and is made up of a hemiacetal or hemiketal from one sugar and the hydroxyl group of another molecule. The glycosidic bond is broken through a hydrolysis reaction in which water cleaves the bond, splitting the sugar molecule.

266
Q

Pyranoses

A

six-membered rings; cyclical structure of sugar

267
Q

Furanoses

A

five-membered rings; cyclical structure of sugar (more common form)

268
Q

Tollens test

A

used to identify the presence of aldehydes and hydroxy ketones, and uses the oxidizing agent [Ag(NH3)2]+ to oxidize aldehydes to carboxylic acids. Ketoses can undergo tautomerization via an enediol intermediate to their aldose form, resulting in a positive Tollens test and the formation of a silver mirror appearance.

269
Q

IR Spectroscopy

A

a technique used to determine the functional groups present in a sample; the data collected are plotted as percent transmittance vs. wavenumber. The signals in the spectrum correspond to bond-stretching vibrations and rotations at a certain frequency, and the signal intensity is dependent on the amount of energy absorbed.

270
Q

Naming, specifically endings

A

ending for aldehyde = al
ending for ketone = one

271
Q

Triacylglycerols

A

composed of three fatty acyl groups bonded to glycerol through ester linkages.

272
Q

Kinetic vs. Thermodynamic Products

A

A reaction at a low temperature (−78 °C) with a bulky base, such as (LDA), favors formation of the kinetic over the thermodynamic enolate because it requires a low activation energy to form.
The kinetic product is a result of deprotonation of the less substituted α-carbon (ie, contains more hydrogen substituents and is sterically more accessible to a bulky base).
- kinetic forms faster but is less stable (forms less substituted alkene)

A reaction at a higher temperature with a smaller base such as (NaH) would lead to deprotonation of the more substituted α-carbon and formation of the thermodynamic enolate (ie, enolate C=C double bond more stabilized by substituents) and therefore formation of the thermodynamic product.
- thermodynamic forms slower but is most stable because it forms the most substituted alkene

273
Q

acetal

A

A common protecting group used for aldehydes; characterized by two –OR groups in place of the carbonyl.

274
Q

Hemiacetals and hemiketals

A

originating from aldehydes and ketones, respectively, each contain one –OR group and one –OH group.

275
Q

What kind of molecules rotate plane polarized light?

A

chrial molecules

enantiomers rotate them in opposite directions

276
Q

Enthalpy

A

ΔH is negative when heat is released
- the temperature of the system and its immediate surroundings increase– think about a piece of wood burning and heating up surroundings

ΔH is positive when heat is gained
- the temperature of the system and its immediate surroundings decreases.

277
Q

If you add heat to a liquid at it’s boiling point…

A

will continue to vaporize to gas

It must gain an amount of heat equal to its heat of vaporization before all the liquid turns to gas and the temperature increases.

278
Q

Thermodynamic processes (isothermal/adiabatic/isochoric/isobaric)

A

Isothermal processes, in which the temperature of the system does not change.

Adiabatic processes, which occur with no heat exchange between the system and the environment.

Isochoric (isovolumetric) processes, in which the volume of the system does not change.

Isobaric processes, in which the pressure of the system does not change.

279
Q

Types of heat transfer

A

Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct physical contact.

Convection is the transfer of heat through the flow of fluids. Fluids absorb heat from hotter regions and deliver it to colder regions.

Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic radiation, such as infrared light. Radiation heat transfer is significant only for high temperatures.

280
Q

Specific heat and heat capacity relationship

A

C = mc = q/ΔT

C= heat capacity
c= specific heat

281
Q

Unit of charge

A

coulomb
e= 1.6 x 10^-19 C

282
Q

Insulators

A

do not easily distribute charge

molecules tend to be closely linked with nuclei; most nonmetals are insulators; serve as dielectric materials for capacitors and prevent grounding

283
Q

grounding

A

removal of a charge by transferring electrons between it and another object

284
Q

conductors

A

distribute charge approximately evenly across surface; used in circuits and electrochemical cells; generally metals and ionic solutions

285
Q

Coulomb’s Law

A

Quantifies the magnitude of electrostatic force between two charges: Fc=kq1q2 / r^2

k is Coloumb’s constant = 8.99 x 10^9 Nm^2 / C^2

286
Q

Magnitude of Electric Field=

A

E= Fe / q = kQ / r^2

Fe= electrostatic force
Q = source charge
q = test charge

287
Q

Electric field lines strength

A

field is stronger where lines are closer together

288
Q

Electric potential energy

A

defined as the amount of work necessary to move a test charge from infinity to a point in space in an electric field

U=kQq/r

289
Q

Electric potential

A

the ratio between the charge’s electrical potential energy and the magnitude of the charge itself

gives you potential of field without test charge

V= U/q = KQ/r

290
Q

Voltage

A

potential difference between two points at a different distance within the same magnetic field

∆V=Vb-Va=Wab / q

Wab is the work needed to move a test charge

291
Q

Equipotential Lines

A

A line on which the potential at every point is the same. So the potential difference between any two points is zero.

292
Q

Electric Dipoles

A

Results from two equal and opposite charges being separated by a small distance, d from each other. These can be transient (London dispersion) or permanent.

293
Q

Magnetism

A

Any moving charge creates a magnetic field

the units for this strength are in Tesla [1 T = 1 N∙s/mC]

small magnetic fields are measured in gauss [1 T=10^4 gauss]

294
Q

Diamagnetic materials

A

made of atoms with no unpaired electrons and have no net magnetic field.

These are slightly repelled by magnets (weakly antimagnetic).

E.g – wood, plastic, water, glass, skin

295
Q

Paramagnetic materials

A

Do have unpaired electrons so that they do generate a net magnetic dipole moment.

Will become very weakly magnetized in the presence of an external magnetic field. This magnetic behavior is only temporary (only occurs while in presence of magnetic field).

E.g – aluminum, copper and gold

296
Q

Ferromagnetic Materials

A

have unpaired electrons and permanent atomic magnetic dipoles. Oriented randomly so that the material has no net magnetic dipole naturally.

Will become strongly magnetized when exposed to a magnetic field or at certain temperature. E.g – iron, nickel, cobalt, bar magnets.

297
Q

For magnetic field of linear wire

A

B=u0 x I / 2π x r

u0=permeability of free space=4π x 10-7 T∙mA

298
Q

For magnetic field at the center of a circular loop

A

B=u0 x I / 2 x r

299
Q

Lorentz force

A

the sum of the electrostatic and magnetic forces.

300
Q

For when a charge moves in a magnetic field

A

FB=qvB sinΘ

v is the velocity, B is the magnitude of the magnetic field and is the smallest angle between the velocity vector and B.

301
Q

Force on a current carrying straight wire

A

For a straight wire: : FB=ILB sinΘ

I is the current, L is the length of the wire and B is the magnitude of the magnetic field, and is the angle between L & B.

302
Q

Poiseuille’s law

A

used to model fluid flow in pipes, assuming laminar flow of viscous and incompressible fluids. According to Poiseuille’s law, the flow rate is directly proportional to vessel radius and pressure difference, and inversely proportional to viscosity and vessel length.

303
Q

SI units

A

length L and radius r in meters (m)
pressure change ∆P in pascals (Pa)
volumetric flow rate Q in cubic meters per second (m^3/s).

304
Q

Resistors in parallel (voltage drop/current)

A

For resistors connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each resistor is the same and the equivalent resistance increases if a resistor is removed.

The current through each resistor in parallel is independent of the others, and the sum of each component current equals the total current.

305
Q

Resistivity

A

an intrinsic property of materials and varies with changes in the material’s temperature. (temp up, resistivity up)

306
Q

Constructive Interference

A

If waves are in-phase, the displacements always add together. Resultant amplitude will be 2x the original amplitudes.

happens when two waves overlap in such a way that they combine to create a larger wave.

Vs Destructive interference happens when two waves overlap in such a way that they cancel each other out.

307
Q

Destructive interference

A

Two out of phase waves cancelling each other out completely.

308
Q

phase

A

used to compare two waves- whether they start at the same time or not

If completely out of phase, expressed as a difference of 2 or 180 degrees.

For circular polarization, only a 90° phase difference is required because only a 90° phase shift yields both the positive and negative oscillations along each axis and the symmetry necessary to produce a circular polarization pathway.

309
Q

how to get the mass percent

A

the component mass divided by the total mass of the formula unit or mixture expressed as a percentage. The total mass of a solution mixture equals the combined mass of solute and the solvent!

310
Q

Can HF participate in hydrogen bonding?

A

Yes, H–F bond is highly polar, and the fluorine atom has three pairs of nonbonding electrons.

H bonds are likely to form with N, O, and F to form noncovalent dipole-dipole attractions known as hydrogen bonding.

311
Q

Are sigma bonds stronger or weaker than pi bonds?

A

They are stronger.

A double bond will be stronger than a single bond though because it is a combination of a pi and sigma bond

312
Q

van der waals

A

noncovalent interactions are weak attractions between atoms that do not share electrons but have dipoles with opposite partial charges.
Noncovalent dipole interactions include attractions between two permanent dipoles, between a permanent dipole and induced dipole, and between two induced dipoles.

313
Q

London dispersion forces

A

the weakest of the noncovalent van der Waals forces. These interactions occur between two atoms or molecules that are close to each other, creating a temporary dipole

London dispersion forces tend to be more pronounced in larger molecules with larger, more polarizable electron clouds (more branched nonpolar molecules)

314
Q

Coordination Number

A

the coordination number of a complex ion is the number of coordinate bonds to the central atom

315
Q

The percent yield

A

the ratio of the actual yield (the amount obtained) to the theoretical yield (the amount possible) expressed as a percentage.

316
Q

Kinetic Products

A

HIGHER in free energy than thermodynamic products and can form at lower temperatures. “Fast” products because they can form more quickly under such conditions.

317
Q

Thermodynamic Products

A

LOWER in free energy than kinetic products, more stable. Slower but more spontaneous (more negative DG)

318
Q

Transverse Wave

A

direction of particle oscillation is perpendicular to the propagation of the wave. Think above moving a string with a fixed point by moving hand up and down.

Includes electromagnetic waves like visible light, microwaves and x-rays.

appear as waves along path

319
Q

Longitudinal Waves

A

particles of wave oscillate parallel to the direction of transfer

Sound waves, causes air particles to oscillate through cycles of compression and rarefaction (decompression) along the direction of the wave.

appear as lines along path

320
Q

Angular frequency

A

ω=2 π f=2π / T

321
Q

Speed of sound

A

v= (rad (B/p))

B is the bulk modulus increases from gas to solid
p is the density

fastest in solids, slowest in gasses

322
Q

Doppler Effect

A

Describes the differences between the actual frequency of a sound and the perceived frequency of a sound.

If the source and the detector are moving towards each other, then the frequency is perceived to be higher. when source and detecter moving away, perceived to be lower.

323
Q

velocity of a wave

A

v = fλ

324
Q

Intensity of sound

A

I=PA

P is the power & A is the Area
(Area = A=4π r^2)
Intensity is proportional to the square of amplitude (A^2)

Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source (1/d^2)

325
Q

If intensity of sound doubles…

A

+ 6 dB

326
Q

Formula For a change in intensity

A

If intensity is changed by some factor, can use: Bf = Bi+10 log If / Ii

327
Q

Rectlinear propagation

A

light goes in a straight line when it is a homogenous medium

328
Q

law of reflection

A

Θi = Θr

the perpendicular line in between them is called the normal

329
Q

real image

A

converges where the image appears; can be projected to a screen

Formed when rays of light are directed out of a fixed point

330
Q

virtual image

A

converges somewhere else, looks like it’s somewhere it’s not
Occurs one reason only appear to diverge

331
Q

focal length of a concave spherical mirror

A

half the radius of curvature and is positioned in front of the mirror.

focal length = radius of curvature / 2

332
Q

curved/ spherical mirrors

A

center of curvature C
radius of curvature r

focal length = radius of curvature / 2

inside of curve is concave (converges); outside of curve is convex (diverges)

Equation
(1/f) = (1/o) + (1/i) = (2/r)
o= object ; i = image ; r = radius
object distance (o) will always be positive because we think of things in terms of the object
if image is a real image i>o
if image is a virtual image i<o

333
Q

magnification equation (optics)

A

m = i / o

if positive, image is upright

if negative, image is inverted

334
Q

Mirrors Summary

A

positive i = in front
negative i = behind

positive r= concave (converging)
negative r= convex (diverging)

positive f= concave
negative f= convex

positive m= upright
negative m= inverted

335
Q

Snells Law

A

Applies to refracted rays of light

n1sinΘ1 =n2sinΘ2

if n1<n2>n2 will bend away from normal</n2>

336
Q

Normality

A

in the context of acids, refers to the number of moles of protons per liter of solution
(Molarity x #protons)

337
Q

Refraction

A

when light goes to different medium and changes speed & bends

n = c / v

338
Q

lens

A

real and virtual images are opposite to mirrors
sign for concave lens will be negative (diverging)
sign for convex lens will be positive (converging)

339
Q

to fix myopia would use…

A

a diverging (concave) lens because rays are converging too soon before retina

340
Q

to fix hyperopia would use…

A

a converging (convex) lens because rays are converging too far away from retina

341
Q

Power for lenses

A

P = 1 / f
f is focal length

342
Q

Single slit diffraction

A

asinΘ= nλ

a= slit width
n = fringe number

dark bands that result from light passing through a diffraction grate are caused by destructive interference between light waves. Conversely, Light bands are caused by constructive interference between light waves.

343
Q

double slit diffraction

A

dsinΘ= (n+(1/2)λ)

d = distance between slits
n = fringe number (all the peaks, largest one in the middle)

dark bands that result from light passing through a diffraction grate are caused by destructive interference between light waves. Light bands are caused by constructive interference between light waves.

344
Q

Polarization

A

linearly polarized light indicates presence of chiral center

345
Q

Equilibrium Constant

A

Determines the amount of product formed in a reaction. This constant is not changed by a catalyst, which only changes the rate at which equilibrium is achieved.

346
Q

Boyle’s law

A

says that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume it occupies.

347
Q

Henry’s law

A

states that the amount of a gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.

348
Q

law of mass action

A

states that the rate of a reaction is proportional to the molar amount of each reaction component raised to the power of its reaction order. The reaction order of each species is equal to its stoichiometric coefficient.

349
Q

Thin film interference

A

light waves reflected by the upper and lower boundaries of a thin film interfere with one another, either enhancing or reducing the reflected light

Differences in the thickness of a thin film (top media) contribute to changed interference patterns that produce the colorful array.

350
Q

Avogadro’s law

A

indicates that at constant temperature and pressure, the number of moles of a gas within a container is directly proportional to the volume of the gas.

ex. if

(v1/n1) = (v2/n2)

351
Q

To get to kelvin from celsius

A

+ 273

352
Q

Dalton’s law of partial pressures

A

the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of each of the individual gases. The partial pressure of an individual gas can be found using the mole fraction of the gas multiplied by the total pressure.

353
Q

Why does the intensity of light decrease when passing through a linear polarization filter?

A

Because only ELECTROMAGNETIC radiation with an electric field oriented parallel to the axis of polarization passes through, the total intensity of light will therefore decrease by 50% when nonpolarized light passes through a linear polarization filter.

354
Q

Multi Lens Systems with Magnification

A

multiply M1 x M2

355
Q

How to determine speed of electromagnetic radiation?

A

will always be equal to the speed of light when in a vacuum

356
Q

The refractive index of a material

A

equals the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the material.

n = c / v

n = refractive index
c = speed of light in vacuum
v = speed of light in material

357
Q

Electric field lines

A

indicate the direction and relative strength of E.

Begin at positive charges and end at negative charges (they point away from regions of higher voltages and toward regions of lower voltages) POS TO NEG and BIG TO SMALL VOLTAGE

E induces positive charges to move in the same direction as the field lines and induces negative charges to move in the opposite direction.

358
Q

speed of sound

A

equal to the product of the wavelength and frequency of the sound waves. When sound travels through different mediums, its speed and wavelength may change, but the frequency remains constant.

359
Q

wavelength of a harmonic

A

λ=4L / n

n = harmonic number; must be odd when the harmonic series of a pipe is closed at one end because the closed end of a pipe is always a node and the open end is always an antinode.

360
Q

kinetic molecular theory of gasses

A

states that the average molecular kinetic energy of an ideal gas is proportional to the product of Boltzmann’s constant kB and the temperature TK in Kelvin according to the equation KE = ((3/2)kB) x TK

361
Q

Diffraction grating

A

refers to passage of light through an array consisting of numerous slits. Diffraction grating may be used to determine the components of polychromatic (eg, white) light and other mixed electromagnetic wavefronts.

362
Q

focal length of a concave spherical mirror

A

half the radius of curvature and is positioned in front of the mirror.

363
Q

Order of stability for carbocations and carbanions

A

Carbocations are strong electrophiles and a common intermediate in SN1 and E1 reactions. Nearby alkyl groups will stabilize them because they are electron donating
Carbocation: tertiary > secondary > primary > methyl

Carbanions act as strong nucleophiles due to the lone pair of electrons on the charged carbon. Nearby alkyl groups will destabilize them because they are electron donating.
Carbanion: methyl > primary > secondary > tertiary

364
Q

Newman Projection

A

Eclipsed bonds generate torsional energy due to the steric repulsion of electrons between the aligned groups. Larger alkyl groups generate greater torsional energy for eclipsed bonds.

Staggered conformations have Newman projection groups oriented at 60° intervals and are lower energy than eclipsed conformations.

Alkyl groups with a θ = 60° (a gauche conformation) exhibit modest torsional energy.

the anti conformation (when methyl is far from other functional group, limiting electron- electron repulsion) is the most stable – want groups to be as far apart as possible

365
Q

What makes a stable carbocation intermediate?

A

having more alkyl attachments (tertiary)
these are favored in SN1

366
Q

relationship between electronegativity and nucleophilicity

A

as the electronegativity of a negatively charged atom decreases from right to left across a period on the periodic table, its nucleophilicity increases–

less electronegative atoms stabilize a negative charge less effectively, have a weaker hold on electrons, and more readily donate electrons to an electrophile.

367
Q

how do EWGs and EDGs impact carbocations?

A

electron withdrawing groups destabilize
electron donating groups stabilize

Carbocations are stabilized by electron donating groups because they donate electrons to the positively charged carbon; they are destabilized by electron withdrawing groups because they pull electrons away from the carbocation, creating two adjacent positive charges.

368
Q

melting point and branching?

A

is decreased when a molecule is more branched

369
Q

boiling point and branching?

A

is decreased when a molecule is more branched

370
Q

Circular Dichromism

A

CD spectra is the difference in absorption between left and right handed circularly polarized light

absorption differs because of chirality– will be negative when Aright > A left and positive when Aleft > A right

371
Q

Markovnikov Addition

A

when an pi electrons grabs an H to generate a carbocation

makes an even mixture of primary carbocation and secondary carbocations; the secondary will be more stable

372
Q

Acidity of Alcohols

A

as you add more electron withdrawing groups, will become more acidic

373
Q

TsCl and MsCl

A

they are good leaving groups and will be used in reactions when you want to replace a poor leaving group

The hydroxyl O acts as the nucleophile to attack the S of TsCl, and Cl acts as the leaving group.

374
Q

Tautomers (keto-enol) which is favored?

A

keto- enol tautomerization will typically favor keto, except for phenol due to resonance stabilization

375
Q

Lactones

A

cyclical esters

376
Q

reactivity of carbonyl derivatives

A

Acyl halide > anhydride (3 Os) > ester > amide
weakest base/ most stable leaving group to strongest base/least stable leaving group

377
Q

Decarboxylation

A

a reaction that removes a carboxyl group from a carboxylic acid with a β-carbonyl, releasing the carboxyl group as CO2 gas.

A β-carbonyl (two carbons away from other carbonyl) is necessary for decarboxylation because a cyclic transition state incorporating both carbonyls is formed.

378
Q

anhydride

A

a CA derivative– contains two carbonyl groups linked together by an oxygen atom and is made by the condensation of two CAs

379
Q

Why are esters more reactive than amides?

A

Esters are more reactive than amides due to a stronger electron-withdrawing, inductive effect caused by the greater electronegativity difference between the C and O atoms in esters compared to the C and N atoms in amides.

Dipole created by ester increases electrophilicity

The amide also can resonate, which makes it less electrophilic

380
Q

SN1 reactions

A

proceed in two steps and involve the formation of a carbocation intermediate

381
Q

Transesterification

A

the exchange of alcohol and alkoxy R groups between an ester and an alcohol.

break a C-O bond and form a new C-O bond

382
Q

Why can tertiary bonds not be oxidized?

A

When carbon atoms are oxidized, they lose bonds to hydrogen and/or gain bonds to oxygen. Therefore, oxidizing agents convert primary alcohols to aldehydes and carboxylic acids, and secondary alcohols to ketones. However, tertiary carbon atoms have no bonds to hydrogen.

383
Q

What does NaH at high temperatures do?

A

deprotonates the most substituted alpha carbon

384
Q

Forming enolates (kinetic/thermodynamic)

A

Kinetic enolates are formed by deprotonation of the least substituted α-carbon of a carbonyl compound using a bulky base, such as LDA at low temperatures.

Thermodynamic enolates are formed by deprotonation of the more substituted α-carbon using a small base, such as NaH, at higher temperatures.

385
Q

What base to use to form more substituted alkene?

A

NaH at high temperature

386
Q

What base to use to form less substituted alkene?

A

LDA at low temperature

387
Q

How do you find the strength of a two lens system?

A

Add up both strength values (in diopeters)

388
Q

Malonyl-CoA help me

A

helps regulate fatty acid metabolism by inhibiting long-chain fatty acid transport into the mitochondria. Processes that decrease malonyl-CoA levels are likely to increase fatty acid transport to the mitochondria and, as a result, increase beta oxidation.

389
Q

Acetyl CoA

A

material used for the synthesis of fatty acids

390
Q

Primary optical components of the eye

A

cornea and lens, both of which form a biological converging lens that focuses incoming light rays onto the retina, a structure analogous to the film or sensor within a camera.

391
Q

hyperopia

A

farsightedness

a condition that results when the optical power (S) of the eye is insufficient to refract light rays from nearby objects. Cannot sufficiently refract light rays that approach the eye at an angle (eg, light rays from nearby objects), producing an image of nearby objects that is sharpest at a location behind the retina.

392
Q

How to fix hyperopia

A

by placing a converging lens in front of the eye, forming an optical system with greater optical power.

Consequently, placing a corrective lens in front of the hyperopic eye shifts the focal length towards the eye’s lens and light from nearby objects is focused onto the retina.

393
Q

Myopia

A

nearsightedness

a visual condition in which the eye forms an image of distant objects at a focal point in front of the retina. Correcting myopia (not hyperopia) shifts the image away from the lens.

394
Q

Spherical aberration (in the eye)

A

refers to the optical deficiencies of lenses with perfectly spherical surfaces.

395
Q

Properties of sound waves

A

This vibration creates oscillations of compressions (areas of high pressure) and rarefactions (areas of low pressure), resulting in a propagating pressure wave

Attenuation (damping) is the decrease in the amplitude (intensity) of a wave due to absorption and scattering. The magnitude of the attenuation depends on the properties of the medium; attenuation is greater for softer materials

The speed of sound is slowest in gases, faster in liquids, and fastest in solids. Because sound propagates through the vibrations of the molecules in a medium, sound cannot propagate through a vacuum.

396
Q

The decibel (dB) scale

A

The decibel (dB) scale is logarithmic and relates the perceived loudness of a sound to its actual intensity.

ex. For each 10-fold decrease, sound intensity decreases by 10 dB. Therefore, a 100-fold decrease in sound intensity corresponds to a decrease by 20 dB.

397
Q

Period of a wave

A

period (T) of a wave is the amount of time for one cycle (or one wavelength) to pass through a fixed point. Period is the reciprocal (inverse) of frequency:

T=1 / f

398
Q

The fundamental frequency of standing sound waves

A

The fundamental frequency of standing sound waves in a tube of fixed length depends on whether the pipe is open at both ends or closed at one end.

pipe open on both ends will resonate at the fundamental frequency when antinodes are formed at each end. A pipe with one end open will resonate at the fundamental frequency when a node is formed at the closed end and an antinode is formed at the open end.

frequency when pipe is closed will be double the frequency of when the pipe is open (fo = 2fc)

399
Q

how to tell harmonic in open pipes

A

number of nodes will tell you the harmonic (can’t count nodes for closed ends)

400
Q

formula for wavelength of a closed pipe

A

4L/n

401
Q

formula for wavelength of an open pipe

A

2L/n

402
Q

what happens when sound crosses from one medium to another?

A

a portion of the wave’s energy is reflected. Therefore, sound waves lose energy (are attenuated) and their intensity decreases when passing from air to a solid structure, such as the tympanic membrane.

v = λf

frequency does not change.
Changes in wave velocity cause the wavelength to change:
- Velocity increases with temperature.
- Velocity is slowest in gases, faster in liquids, and fastest in solids.
- Within a phase of matter, velocity increases with stiffness and decreases with density.

403
Q

High + Low Frequency Sounds

A

The frequency of a sound is associated with its perceived pitch; high-frequency sounds have high pitches. The low-frequency sounds that cause resonance near the apex of the basilar membrane are characterized by low pitches.

404
Q

When given length and need wavelength…

A

L = λ / 2

405
Q

What impacts chromatography?

A

Hydrogen bonding determines how far a mixture will migrate (stronger hydrogen bonding –> migrate more slowly)

solute concentration will affect the size of the spots

the thickness of the paper will affect the amount of each component that can be fully separated

406
Q

Rf

A

distance traveled / distance to the solvent front

407
Q

Peptide bonds are represented by…

A

amide groups

408
Q

Will a more substituted C-O bond be stronger or weaker?

A

weaker

409
Q

Which peak will emerge first in gas-liquid chromatography?

A

The first peak will be the least polar and most volatile compound

a volatile compound will have weak attractions (likely to vaporize)

410
Q

What will increase ionization of an acid ?

A

Stabilizing a negative charge by adding an electronegative atom

Diluting a solution (Le Chat)

411
Q

What will increase ionization of an acid ?

A

Stabilizing a negative charge by adding an electronegative atom

Diluting a solution (Le Chat)

Adding a basic indicator (increases the amount of dissociated (ionized) acid)

To decrease ionization… could add HCl– as a strong acid, the amount of H+ will be increased and will therefore decrease the percentage of an acid that will ionize

412
Q

What is the intensity of radiation proportional to?

A

energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the number of photons

the intensity of electromagnetic radiation is defined as energy emitted per unit time

intensity is directly proportional to the number of photons emitted.

413
Q

THz to Hz

A

x 10^12

414
Q

Standard atmospheric pressure in mmHG

A

760 mmHg

415
Q

What type of bond is a disulfide bridge?

A

Intermolecular covalent bond; will make a compound more structurally rigid

416
Q

Asp

A

Aspartic Acid (D)
carb acid 2 carbons away from amino group

417
Q

Glu

A

Glutamic acid (E)
carb acid 3 carbons away from amino group

418
Q

Asn

A

Asparagine (N)
has amide

419
Q

Why is the velocity of blood flow slower in capillaries than arteries?

A

the total cross sectional area of capillaries is larger (since there are more of them in the body); this decreases the velocity of blood

420
Q

Blood pressure in capillaries vs arteries

A

the increased ration of surface area to blood volume in the capillaries compared to arteries means that the blood contacts more blood vessel surface area; this slows down the velocity and drops the blood pressure

blood pressure is lower in capillaries than arteries

blood travels slower in capillaries than arteries

421
Q

Resistance in capillaries

A

due to small diameter, capillaries have highest resistance (except for arterioles)

422
Q

Blood flow and cross sectional area

A

blood flow is inversely proportional to the total cross sectional area

423
Q

Ideal Gas Properties

A

The gas particles have negligible volume.

The gas particles are equally sized and do not have intermolecular forces (attraction or repulsion) with other gas particles.

The gas particles move randomly in agreement with Newton’s Laws of Motion.

The gas particles have perfect elastic collisions with no energy loss.

424
Q

Enzymes

A

ATP hydrolysis hydrolyzes ATP
Protease cleaves peptide bonds
Lipase hydrolyzes triacylglycerides
Transferase transfers carboxyl groups

425
Q

Glycogen contains glucose subunits that are connected to an adjacent glucose subunit by what kind of bond?

A

α-1,4-glycosidic bond

426
Q

Mnemonic for sugars

A

Glucose - is sweet like a milk DUD (carbon #234 is down up down)

Galactose - in this galaxy DUU you (Carbon #234 down up up)

For glycogen I need to know It’s alpha 1,4 bonds ( move 4RWARD) to keep the chain growing

And alpha 1,6 = put a branch in the mix (six = mix)

Fructose - is fudge (FUD) fructose ( up down for carbon number 2 and 3) -remember fructose is a furanose ring

427
Q

How does negative charge impact dissociation?

A

compounds with negative charges will have decreased dissocation

428
Q

Thin lens equation

A

1 / f = 1 / u + 1 / v

f= focal length
u= object distance
v= image distance

429
Q

how to figure out the ratio of the height of an image ot the height of an object?

A

the ratio of the image height to the object height is equal to the ratio of the lens-image distance to the object-lens distance.

430
Q

Are electropositive elements likely to be oxidized?

A

yes, they are okay as reducing agents

431
Q

When will a spontaneous reaction occur? (E°)

A

when E° is greater than 0

432
Q

How is a watt (POWER) defined?

A

J / s = ft x lb / s = kg x m^2 / s ^3​.

433
Q

What is the molar volume of gas at STP?

A

22.4 L / mol

434
Q

How does having less hydrogen bonding impact boiling point?

A

Will decrease boiling point– Having fewer H bonds decreases the extent of hydrogen bonding and lowers the energy required to overcome the intermolecular attractions.

435
Q

Reaction Energy Diagrams

A

ΔG is the difference between products and reactants
Ea is the difference between the reactants and the top of the transition state

436
Q

Arrhenius Equation

A

k=Ae^(−Ea/RT)

(k = rate constant of the reaction; A = constant that represents the collision frequency and structural factors specific to the reactants; The exponential term e^((−Ea)/(RT)) corresponds to the fraction of collisions with enough kinetic energy to overcome the activation energy Ea at a given temperature T. R is the gas constant (8.314 J∙mol^−1∙K^−1).)

The collision theory of kinetics assumes that molecules must collide for a reaction to occur. The collisions must have enough kinetic energy to overcome the activation energy. Arrhenius equation describes this concept mathematically.

437
Q

What is a buffer made of?

A

Buffers consist of a mixture of either a weak acid and a salt of its conjugate base, or a weak base and a salt of its conjugate acid.

ex. CH3COOH(weak acid) and CH3COONa (Na acts as salt)

438
Q

What is the bronsted lowry base here?

H2SO4+HNO3 ⇄ HSO−4+H2NO+3 ⇄ HSO−4+H2O+NO+2

A

Remember a BL base is a hydrogen acceptor

HNO3

molecule that is accepting! not the one that accepted

439
Q

Where does oxidation take place? (anode/cathode)

A

oxidation occurs at the anode

reduction occurs at the cathode

  • electrons flow from the anode to the cathode.
440
Q

Is the Ka larger or smaller for stronger acids?

A

Larger

441
Q

What is the relationship between Ka and pKa?

A

A large Ka and a small pKa will indicate a strong acid

pKa = -log Ka

442
Q

Relationship between angle of incidence and angle of reflection

A

the angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of incidence, irrespective of the refractive index on either side of the media interface

θi=θr

443
Q

Inertia

A

Inertia refers to the ability of an object in motion to stay in motion and an object at rest to stay at rest. An object’s inertia depends on its mass and is also proportional to the maximum static friction force it experiences when stationary. Therefore, a stationary object with a large inertia could remain stationary when another smaller object strikes it.

444
Q

Mechanical equilibrium

A

occurs when the net external force acting on an object is equal to zero. This does not imply that no forces are acting on the object, but rather that all forces acting on the object are balanced

two forms: Static equilibrium occurs when the object has zero velocity, and dynamic equilibrium occurs when the object has a constant nonzero velocity.

445
Q

work-energy theorem

A

states that work W done by a force on an object can be calculated as the change in the object’s kinetic energy ΔKE.

446
Q

Ultrasonic sound waves (ultrasound)

A

mechanical waves that propagate at a frequency above the upper bound of the human auditory spectrum (~20 kHz).

One example is shock wave therapies which use high frequency waves to cause destructive, high amplitude vibrations; to be most effective, frequency of the shock waves should match the resonance frequency of the target structure

447
Q

Torque Equation

A

T = r x F

When in static rotational equilibrium, there is no net rotational movement, and the sum of all torques is zero.

448
Q

Pressure formula

A

P = F / A

449
Q

How does kg / m⋅s^2 compare to N / m^2?

A

kg / m⋅s^2 is equivalent to N / m^2

450
Q

mechanical advantage

A

the ratio of the output force Fo to the input force Fi and. due to the conservation of energy, also equal to the ratio of distances

Fo / Fi = di / do

where di and do are the distances from the pivot point to the input and output forces

451
Q

Friction equation

A

F=μN

452
Q

Friction equation delete

A

F=μN

453
Q

Cosine at 90° help me

A

The cosine function takes the parallel component of a vector, and its magnitude is lowest at 90

454
Q

Sine at 90°

A

The sine function takes the perpendicular component of a vector, and its magnitude is greatest when θ is 90°

455
Q

How is total energy quantified?

What is the conservation of energy?

A

the total energy (U) of an object is quantified by the sum of kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE):

U=KE+PE

Conservation of energy requires that an object’s total energy observed between two points (A and B) remains the same, but contributions from potential energy may convert to kinetic energy (or vice versa) within mechanical systems:

1/2 mvA^2 + mghA=1/2 mvB^2 + mghB

456
Q

relationship between W and ΔU

A

potential energy measures the potential of conservative forces to do work, the change in potential energy (ΔU) relative to this point is equal and opposite to the work (W) done by conservative forces within the system

457
Q

What would happen to energy after an object is launched into the air?

A

The kinetic energy would be converted into potential energy

458
Q

X rays will be ___ than infrared light

A

hotter; because of the high energy

Objects with high energy have a higher temperature and emit EM waves with relatively higher frequencies and energy.

459
Q

Kirchhoff’s loop rule

A

circuits exhibit conservation of energy around a closed path (loop) in the circuit, in which the direction of the path matches the direction of the current in the loop. As a result, Kirchhoff’s loop rule states that the sum of the voltage drops V around any closed loop in a circuit equals zero:

∑i=1nVi=V1+V2+⋯Vn=0

460
Q

Solving for Voltage/Resistor/Current

A

Unknown currents in different branches of a circuit can be found by applying the junction rule, which states that total current entering a junction must equal the total current exiting the junction.

Ohm’s law and the loop rule (the sum of all the electric potential differences around a loop is zero) are used to determine voltage and resistor values.

461
Q

centripetal force equation

A

Fc=mv^2 / r

n uniform circular motion the instantaneous velocity vector is always tangent to the circular path. The inertia of the object wants it to continue going straight, but this is stopped by the centripetal force, which is always pointed radially inwards.

462
Q

a higher index of refraction (n) will be associated with a _____ speed?

A

lower

n = c / v

463
Q

Properties of waves

A

As a wave propagates, it carries energy from one location to another. The energy contained in a wave is directly proportional to the square of its amplitude but is independent of the wavelength and frequency.

When a wave moves from one medium to another, the amplitude and wavelength change but the frequency of the wave remains constant.

464
Q

Is frequency dependent of the medium?

A

no - Wavelength and amplitude depend on the type of medium, but frequency is independent of the medium.

465
Q

How to figure out the fraction submerged for an object when given density?

A

For a floating object, the fraction submerged is equal to the ratio of the object’s density to the fluid’s density:

fraction submerged= ρobject / ρfluid

466
Q

Does current change in a resistor?

A

The current entering and exiting a resistor remains the same because electric charge is always conserved.

467
Q

Archimedes principle + Buoyant force

A

According to Archimedes principle, a submerged object experiences an upward buoyant force FB due to the displaced fluid. Therefore, an object will appear to weigh less than its in-air weight Wair when submerged in water, given by the object’s apparent weight Wapparent:

FB=Wair−Wapparent

buoyant force experienced by the individual is equal to the weight of the displaced fluid, which is the product of the density of water ρ, the displaced volume V, and the gravitational acceleration g:

FB=ρVg

468
Q

specific gravity of a liquid or solid substance

A

the ratio of its density to the density of water:

specific gravity=ρsubstance / ρwater

469
Q

buoyant force with 2 different fluids

A

for an object fully immersed in two different fluids (1 and 2), the ratio of buoyant forces is equal to the ratio of fluid densities:

FB,1 / FB,2 = ρ1V1g / ρ2V2g = ρ1 / ρ2

470
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

the pressure exerted by the weight of a static (nonmoving) fluid.

The magnitude of P is the product of the fluid density ρ, the gravitational acceleration g, and the height h of the fluid above the point of interest:

P=ρgh

471
Q

Friction help me

A

μk= FA / mg

472
Q

What info do you need to calculate kinetic friction coefficient?

A

If the object is sliding with constant velocity on a flat surface, the coefficient of kinetic friction is calculated from the force applied to the object and the mass of the object.

473
Q

How to calculate cardiac output?

A

cardiac output is the volume of blood the heart pumps in 1 minute. It is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume of the heart and the heart rate.

474
Q

The absolute temperature of any system is directly proportional to the _____ of molecules within the system.

A

average kinetic energy

475
Q

Ideal Fluid Characteristics

A

Ideal fluids are totally nonviscous and incompressible; they exhibit smooth, laminar flow without viscosity. Bernoulli’s equation dictates that an increase in the velocity of an ideal fluid is accompanied by a decrease in fluid pressure.

476
Q

The maximum value of static friction is proportional to the _______, which is the perpendicular force one surface exerts on the other.

A

normal force

477
Q

How would kinetic friction on a ramp change as the ramp became steeper?

A

The kinetic friction force between two surfaces is proportional to the normal force exerted by the surfaces. For an object on a ramp, the normal force is equal to the perpendicular component of object’s weight, which decreases as the angle of inclination increases.

478
Q

Projectile motion- how to get Vx and Vy

A

Vx= V⋅cos θ

Vy= V⋅sin θ

479
Q

What will the E and G of a charging battery be?

A

When a battery is charging, it functions as an electrolytic cell because an external potential drives the oxidation-reduction reaction to proceed in a nonspontaneous direction (ie, ΔG > 0; Ecell < 0).

When charging a battery, an external positive electric potential must be applied to force the spontaneous (ΔG < 0) oxidation-reduction reaction in the nonspontaneous (ΔG > 0) direction. The net ΔG for the system must be negative to charge the battery.

480
Q

Does oxidation occur at the anode or the cathode? Wb reduction?

A

In either case, oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode, and electrons flow from the anode to the cathode.

481
Q

Does a charging battery behave as an electrolytic or galvanic cell? Wb discharging?

A

When a battery is discharging, it behaves as a galvanic cell; when it is charging, it behaves as an electrolytic cell.

482
Q

Relationship between Keq and enthalpy

A

The equilibrium constant Keq expresses the relationship between products and reactants at equilibrium. When temperature increases, Keq decreases for exothermic (ΔH° < 0) reactions and increases for endothermic (ΔH° > 0) reactions.

483
Q

Why is water a good solvent?

A

As a polar compound, water is an efficient solvent due to its ability to interact with other polar or charged compounds.
The polar nature of water is due to the difference in the electronegativities of oxygen and hydrogen, along with a bent geometry.
The small size of the water molecule allows efficient interactions with solutes, forming a hydration shell around and dissolving them.

484
Q

Freezing point is determined by ________

A

intermolecular forces between molecules.

These interactions are affected by the presence of solutes. As a colligative property, the extent of freezing point depression of a solution is a function of the amount of solute added.

485
Q

Relationship between vapor pressure and presence of a solute

A

According to Raoult’s law, the vapor pressure of a liquid decreases (dashed line) at any given temperature when solute is added. Briny water will therefore need to be heated to a higher temperature for its vapor pressure to reach the same ambient pressure and begin to boil. Therefore, the boiling temperature (boiling point) of briny water is higher than that of pure water under the same atmospheric conditions.

486
Q

Sound intensity and distance

A

I = 1 / r^2

intensity is inversely proportional to squared distance

487
Q

Electromagnetic radiation from lowest to highest

A

ERadio waves < EMicrowaves < EInfrared light < EVisible light < EUltraviolet light < EX-rays < EGamma rays

488
Q

Can X Rays determine 3d structure?

A

Yes, X-ray diffraction through a sample of a purified and crystallized material can be used to determine its three-dimensional molecular structure and packing

489
Q

Wave speed is determined by…

A

the medium it travels in (specifically the medium’s temperature, elasticity, and density)

490
Q

How to calculate the wavelength of a string?

A

λn=2L / n

491
Q

How to calculate the wavelength of a string?

A

λn=2L / n

492
Q

The energy carried by a mechanical wave depends only on its _______________.

A

Amplitude

Mechanical waves with a higher amplitude carry greater energy than waves with a lower amplitude.

493
Q

Spherical aberration

A

occurs when lenses with perfectly rounded surfaces focus light at multiple focal points. Spherical aberration is most pronounced among light rays entering and exiting the periphery of converging lenses.

494
Q

Spherical aberration

A

occurs when lenses with perfectly rounded surfaces focus light at multiple focal points. Spherical aberration is most pronounced among light rays entering and exiting the periphery of converging lenses.

495
Q

Nucleophilic acyl substitutions

A

involve the displacement of one group for another on a carbonyl carbon.

496
Q

Substitution/addition/elimination

A

Substitution reactions involve the displacement of one group by another.
Addition reactions involve two groups adding across a pi bond, consuming the pi bond in the process.
Elimination reactions involve the loss of two groups from adjacent carbon atoms and the formation of a new pi bond.

497
Q

Steric effects and electronic effects on reactions

A

Steric effects - size or proximity of functional groups near a reaction center, where larger groups tend to decrease the rate of reaction.

Electronic effects - molecular features involving electron density, including polarity, resonance, or conjugation. The major players in electronic effects are lone pairs or pi bonds.

498
Q

Soaps + how to determine number of unique soaps

A

A soap is a sodium carboxylate salt of a fatty acid.

Soaps can be produced through basic hydrolysis of fatty acyl–containing lipids like triacylglycerols or phospholipids. The number of unique soap molecules that can be generated is dependent on the number of unique fatty acyl groups (hydrocarbon tail connected to carbonyl) in the source lipid.

499
Q

Normal polar and reverse polar HPLC

A

NP-HPLC consists of a polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase (non polar elutes faster)

RP-HPLC consists of a nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase. Molecules with polarity similar to the stationary phase interact with it more and have longer retention times. (nonpolar retained longer, polar elutes faster)

500
Q

What molecules are likely to be visualized by UV systems?

A

Molecules with UV chromophores (double and triple bonds, carbonyls, conjugated systems)

p.s. UV excites electrons into a higher energy state

501
Q

Can heating too quickly ruin the results of a distillation?

A

yes, must heat slowly so they can be separated by boiling points

502
Q

How to calculate theoretical yield?

A

First, determine which of the reactants is rate limiting by calculating the moles of both reactants (use mol ratios), then convert to grams to get theoretical yeild

503
Q

The zeroth law of thermodynamics

A

If two systems are in thermal equilibrium, and one is in thermal equilibrium with a third system, all three systems will be in equilibrium

504
Q

Static Friction formula

A

Static Friction = Normal Force x Static Friction coefficient.

Uk = Fs / FN

505
Q

Friction Equations

A

On a sliding ramp: FN=FWcosθ

FN= mg

Kinetic friction = Uk x FN = Fwsinθ

506
Q

Effective Nuclear Charge

A

Zeff = Z – S
Z = nuclear charge
S = core electrons

The core electrons partially shield the valence electrons, decreasing the nuclear charge

507
Q

What will the Ka and Hydronium concentration of a strong acid be?

A

In aqueous solutions, strong acids ionize essentially 100%, giving large values of Ka and high [H+].

Weak acids ionize only to a small extent, giving small values of Ka and [H+] that are much lower than the concentration of the non-ionized acid.

508
Q

Group 1 of the periodic table

A

Alkali metals

509
Q

Group 2 of the periodic table

A

Alkaline earth metals

highly reactive family of metals with only two valence electrons that are readily lost to form cations with an oxidation state of +2. Alkaline-earth metals react with water to form hydrogen gas and either a basic hydroxide or an oxide, and the reactivity increases with increasing atomic number.

510
Q

How to convert Faradays to moles?

A

It is a 1:1 ratio; Faraday’s constant is 9x10^4

511
Q

How to convert from K to C

A

-273

512
Q

balanced redox reactions

A

the total number of electrons released from the oxidation half-reaction must equal the total number of electrons used by the reduction half-reaction.

513
Q

hydrolysis vs dehydration

A

hydrolysis requires water
dehydration loses a water molecule

514
Q

How are imines formed?

A

Imines are formed from a ketone or aldehyde and NH3 or a primary amine via an acid-catalyzed addition of the amine followed by an acid-catalyzed dehydration.

515
Q

When do strong bases form ionic salts easily?

A

when weak acids are added to a mixture.

516
Q

How to protonate / deprotonate an amine / phenol

A

Amines are weak bases that require strong acids to be protonated.
Phenols are weak acids that are only deprotonated by strong bases.

517
Q

how to get the amount of neutrons in an element

A

mass number - protons (atomic number)

518
Q

Ionization energy and reactivity

A

Elements with a lower first ionization energy are easier to ionize and more reactive than elements with a higher ionization energy.

(Ionization energy has the same trend as electronegativity)

519
Q

Bohr Model

A

electrons move around the nucleus in fixed circular orbits at particular intervals.

Electrons in orbits farther from the nucleus have higher energy!

Energy equal to the difference between two orbits is absorbed by an electron moving to a higher orbit and is emitted by an electron moving to a lower orbit.

520
Q

Ksp and dissolution/precipitation

A

If [X]^c[Y]^d < Ksp, the solution has not reached the solubility limit and will permit more ions into solution (dissolution).

if [X]^c[Y]^d > Ksp, the solubility limit of the solution has been exceeded and the solution will not accept any more ions (precipitation). This will cause any ions in excess of the Ksp to come out of solution as a precipitate!

521
Q

Rate law

A

relates k value and conc of reactants

522
Q

Heat and Equilibrium

A

An exothermic reaction (-ΔH°) releases heat. increasing the temperature causes the reaction to shift toward the reactants (ie, Keq decreases) to compensate for the heat gain in accordance with Le Châtelier’s principle.

An endothermic reaction (+ΔH°) absorbs heat. increasing the temperature causes the reaction to shift toward products (ie, Keq increases).

523
Q

Ideal gas law

A

PV=nRT

where P is the pressure, V is the volume occupied, n is the number of moles, T is the absolute temperature (in Kelvin!!!!!), and R is a constant.

524
Q

Power in a parallel circuit

A

The power dissipated in a circuit is the product of current and voltage. (P=IR) In a parallel circuit, the branch with the lowest resistance has the largest current and the largest power dissipation.

525
Q

Can you hear sound on the moon?

A

no- sound waves are mechanical and require a medium;

526
Q

Can you hear sound on the moon? Delete

A

no- sound waves are mechanical and require a medium;

527
Q

What happens when you add acid to a solution?

A

Will impact the molecules that are able to become protonated/deprotonated and therefore decrease the amount of these molecules in solution

528
Q

Will a smaller or larger Ksp be more responsive to changes in common ion concentrations?

A

If the Ksp is small, then small changes to [A2+] or [X−] have a much larger impact than would be the case if the Ksp were large.

529
Q

Relative speed

A

The relative speed between two objects depends on their directions of motion. The minimum relative speed occurs when two objects move in the same direction, and the maximum relative speed occurs when two objects move in opposite directions.

530
Q

Relationship between buoyant force and weight

A

buoyant force experienced by an object floating at the surface is equal to the weight of the object

531
Q

diffraction

A

is the bending of light around physical corners or very narrow gaps

532
Q

Dispersion

A

the spreading of light into its different frequencies (colors) due to differences in the index of refraction for different frequencies of light.

533
Q

Polarization

A

aligns transverse electromagnetic radiation along a specific orientation, such as vertical, horizontal, etc.

534
Q

Charge of an electron

A

1.6 x 10^-19

535
Q

How many isoprene units are in a steroid?

A

6

536
Q

are steroids hydrolyzable?

A

Steroids are classified as nonhydrolyzable lipids because they do not contain any hydrolyzable ester or amide linkages.

537
Q

Which will elute the furthestduring TLC?
two hydroxyl groups, one hydroxyl/one carbonyl, two carbonyl groups?

A

two carbonyls (H bond acceptors) will elute furthest; weakest interactions with stationary phase and fastest migration

one hydroxyl group (H bond donor + acceptor) and one carbonyl will elute the second fastest

two hydroxyl groups (H bond donor + acceptor) have strongest interactions and slowest migration

538
Q

Which will elute the furthest during TLC?
two hydroxyl groups, one hydroxyl/one carbonyl, two carbonyl groups? Delete

A

two carbonyls (H bond acceptors) will elute furthest; weakest interactions with stationary phase and fastest migration

one hydroxyl group (H bond donor + acceptor) and one carbonyl will elute the second fastest

two hydroxyl groups (H bond donor + acceptor) have strongest interactions and slowest migration

539
Q

Fatty acids (structure)

A

made up of a nonpolar hydrocarbon chain with a polar carboxyl head group, and can be classified as either saturated or unsaturated.

540
Q

Ether formula

A

R-O-R

541
Q

Surface Tension is a result of…

A

The surface tension of a liquid is a result of strong cohesive forces between its molecules. Surface tension creates a tendency to decrease exposed surface area due to a net inward force at the surface molecules.

542
Q

current in series circuits

A

Current flow is equal through all elements of a series circuit.

543
Q

Electric Power

A

P = I V

the product of the current and voltage.

544
Q

Viscosity

A

an intrinsic property of a fluid that characterizes the amount of friction resisting motion inside the fluid itself.

545
Q

What is an acetyl group?

A

R-C=O

546
Q

Fluorescence

A

Occurs when a species absorbs high-frequency light and then returns to its ground state in multiple steps. Each step has less energy than the absorbed light and is within the visible range of the electromagnetic spectrum.

can occur when the absorbed radiation has a photon energy larger than the photon energy of the radiation emitted through fluorescence.

547
Q

Do electric field lines travel in the same direction as positive charge?

A

Yes- electric field lines are used to denote the direction that a positive charge would be accelerated in an electric field. (point toward negative)

548
Q

Electric field definition + equation

A

represents a space that exerts a force on charged particles.

The magnitude of a uniform electric field E is the voltage difference V divided by the distance d of the field:

E=ΔV/d

549
Q

Radiation

A

transfer of heat from skin into environment

550
Q

convection

A

transfer of heat from tissues to skin

551
Q

Conversion from eV to Joules

A

1.6 x 10^-19

552
Q

The x and y axes of a mass spectra

A

y-axis representing ion abundance and the x-axis representing the mass-to-charge ratio (m/z).

remember, peaks represent ionized fragments