Bio/Biochem Flashcards

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1
Q

Acronym for purines and pyrimidines

A

CUT the PY/ Pure As Gold
(Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine are pyrimidines (ONE RING); Adenine and Guanine are Purines (TWO RINGS))

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2
Q

Western Blots

A

Use antibodies as probes to detect proteins, which bind at the epitope

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3
Q

Phosphorylation

A

Occurs where OH group of an amino acid side chain acts as a nucleophile and attacks a phosphate group on ATP (Serine, threonine, tyrosine most common)

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4
Q

Transcription factors

A

Proteins that bind to DNA sequences to regulate transcription (RNA synthesis); impact RNA polymerase binding

are translated in the cytoplasm but act in the nucleus to control gene expression.

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5
Q

Catabolic

A

Break down carbs fats prots –> CO2, H2O, NH3
Produce ATP
Hormones involved: glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol

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6
Q

Anabolic

A

Build up amino acids, sugar, fatty acids, nitrogenous bases –> proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, nucleic acids
Consume ATP
Hormones involved: insulin, growth hormone, testosterone, estrogen

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7
Q

Glycolysis

A

Glucose –> pyruvate
Generates ATP and NADH

glucose –> G6P –> F6P –> F1,6BP–> G3P –> 1,3-Bpg –> 3 pg –> 2 pg –> PEP –> pyruvate

Opposite reaction: gluconeogenesis (pyruvate –> glucose)

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8
Q

glycogen synthase

A

rate limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis

stimulated by G6P and insulin

inhibited by epinephrine and glucagon

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9
Q

Glycogenesis

A

1st you use Glycogen synthase to create alpha-1,4 (create chain)

2nd you use Branching enzyme to create alpha-1,6 (create branch)

glycogen synthase extends both branches

glucose –> glycogen

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10
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

Glycogen –> glucose
1st you use Glycogen phosphorylase to break alpha-1,4
(remove from chain to create new chain)

2nd you use Debranching enzyme which breaks the alpha-1,6 (one catalytic site) and forms a new alpha-1,4 bond in the chain (second catalytic site)
(remove from branch to add to existing chain- see above)

glycogen –> G1P –> G6P –> Glucose

Opposite reaction: glycogenesis (glucose –> glycogen)

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11
Q

Fatty acid oxidation
(What is made? Are coenzymes oxidized or reduced?)

A

fatty acid –> acetyl CoA

Reduced – causes FAD2+ –> FADH2 and NAD+ –> NADH

Opposite reaction: fatty acid synthesis (acetyl CoA –> fatty acids)

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12
Q

Beta Oxidation

A

Generates acetyl CoA to enter CAC
Shuffles into mitochondria by carnitine transferase
1. oxidation (FADH2)
2. hydration
3. oxidation (NADH)
4. thiolysis

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13
Q

Glucagon

A

Released in response to low blood glucose
Released by pancreas
Stimulates fatty acid oxidation to provide energy
Stimulates release of phosphorylated glucose residues from liver glycogen (which is broken down during glycogenolysis to provide glucose)

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14
Q

Low Blood Glucose

A

Hypothalamus sends nerve impulses to adrenal medulla which secretes epinephrine, glucagon released by alpha cells of pancreas, liver releases glucose in response to glucagon and epinephrine

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15
Q

High Blood Glucose

A

Beta cells secrete insulin which promotes glucose absorption in the blood

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16
Q

NADPH produced during

A

PPP and fatty acid biosynthesis

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17
Q

Primary structure stabilized by

A

Covalent peptide bonds

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18
Q

Secondary structure stabilized by

A

hydrogen bonds between amide and carbonyl hydrogens
- backbone

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19
Q

Tertiary structure stabilized by

A

hydrophobic interactions and stabilized by H bonds, electrostatic interactions
(noncovalent interactions between side chains)
- 3D structure

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20
Q

Quaternary structure stabilized by

A

stabilized by hydrophobic interactions
- multiple polypeptides joined

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21
Q

Mechanically gated ion channels respond to

A

pressure/ tension

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22
Q

Voltage gated ion channels respond to

A

changes in membrane potential caused by other channels

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23
Q

Liquid chromatography

A

Separates and Quantifies small molecules (amino acids/dipeptides)
Molecules enter column packed with either hydrophobic or hydrophilic beads– different compounds have different strength of activation (stronger attraction will stay in column longer)

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24
Q

Gel Electrophoresis

A

Used for large molecules (proteins)

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25
Q

Krebs Cycle Products

A

Releases NADH, FADH2, GTP

reduces NAD+ to NADH

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26
Q

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex

A

CONVERTS PYRUVATE INTO ACETYL COA! also CO2 and NADH
this is the link between glycolysis and the CAC

activated by insulin in the liver; not responsive to nervous system hormones

one of three fates for pyruvate; other two: conversion to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase or conversion to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase

another definition: catalyzes the decarboxylation reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. This reaction requires CoA, thiamine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, and NAD+ and links glycolysis to the citric acid cycle. These pathways are essential for maximal ATP synthesis.

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27
Q

Lipoic acid

A

the cofactor of PDH complex that facilitates the transfer of electrons from NAD+ to NADH

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28
Q

Agonists

A

Drugs/substances that bind to a receptor inside a cell/ on cell surface and create the same action as the substance the typically binds the receptor

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29
Q

Schiff Bases

A

formed between a protein and substrate by a primary amine (eg. Lysine side chain)

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30
Q

G Protein Activation

A

requires exchange of GDP for GTP

cAMP is known to be produced during G protein-coupled receptor-triggered signaling.

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31
Q

Titration Curves (flat part? Sloped part?)

A

Flat part indicates pka
Sloped part indicates where group is deprotonated

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32
Q

pKa C terminis

A

2.2

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33
Q

pKa N terminis

A

9.5

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34
Q

Buffering region of titration curve

A

region near pKa that is relatively flat due to addition of a base that only slightly changes pH

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35
Q

Transverse Tubules

A

where action potentials propagate in muscle tissue

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36
Q

Sarcolemma

A

plasma membrane of muscular fiber

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37
Q

Ubiquinone (ox or reduced)

A

oxidized in the ETC

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38
Q

Common oxidoreductases

A

NADH, NADPH, FADH2

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39
Q

Ping pong mechanism

A

a substrate binds enzyme and reacts, then leaves the active site and a second substrate comes and reverts it to its original form

(no ternary complex is formed)

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40
Q

Ternary complex

A

formed in enzymatic reactions when a three membered complex forms

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41
Q

Hill coefficient

A

level of cooperativity for an enzyme
greater than 1 is cooperativity, less than 1 is negative cooperativity and exactly 1 is no cooperativity.

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42
Q

Catalytic efficiency

A

Kcat/Km

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43
Q

Krebs Cycle (activated/inactivated)

A

Activated by ADP (indicate energy is needed) and Ca2+ (allosterically activate Krebs)
Inhibited by those that indicate sufficient energy (ATP, citrate, succinyl CoA, NADH)

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44
Q

Reducing Sugars

A

contain a free anomeric carbon that can be oxidized/act as a reducing agent (not in a glycosidic bond)
linear form: either aldehyde/ketone
cyclic form: hemiacetal/hemiketal at anomeric carbon

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45
Q

Nonreducing Sugars

A

have acetal/ketal groups does not have free aldehyde or ketone

a carbohydrate that is not oxidized by a weak oxidizing agent

ex. sucrose

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46
Q

Glycosidic Bonds

A

Linkage of nucleophilic functional group to anomeric C of sugar

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47
Q

Amino acids with alkyl side chain

A

APLIV

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48
Q

Anomeric carbon

A

A carbon that has two bonds to oxygen

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49
Q

Triglycerides

A

Energy storage lipids
Catabolized to produce ATP
Composed of 3 fatty acids and one glycerol

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50
Q

Sphingolipids

A

Membrane Lipids

organized into ceramide, sphingomyelins, cerebrosides, and gangliosides

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51
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Signaling Lipids

Derived from arachidonic acid; regulate cAMP

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52
Q

Cholesterol structure

A

Hydroxyl group attached to four fused rings

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53
Q

Cytosine

A

becomes deaminated to form Uracil (carbonyl at top)

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54
Q

Fatty acid transport
from where to where?
what activates?
ATP required?

A

From cytosol to mitochondria requires fatty acid to be activated with CoA then carnitine
Requires ATP

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55
Q

Eukaryotic cells

A

Include protazoa and fungi

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56
Q

Origin of Replication

A

Prokaryotes have a single origin of replication
Eukaryotes have multiple origins of replication

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57
Q

Pyruvate

A

Present in cytoplasm of both prok and euk

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58
Q

zymogens

A

enzymes that must be cleaved to become activated

enzyme precursors

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59
Q

apoenzymes

A

inactive enzymes that are not bound to a cofactor

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60
Q

holoenzymes

A

active enzymes that are bound to a cofactor

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61
Q

Steroid hormones

A

derived from cholesterol (cholesterol synthesized from isoprene –> monoterpene –> squalane (triterpene)
not soluble in water or blood, need protein transport in the bloodstream but can diffuse through membrane with transport proteins

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62
Q

Amphipathic helices

A

have hydrophobic residues every 3/4 residues

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63
Q

Strong Binding Affinity

A

large Kbinding
Small Kunbinding
Small Kd

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64
Q

DNA polymerase

A

copies genetic code onto new dna strand from template strand!

Extends primers, synthesizes DNA (uses original strand as a template and duplicates it) , proofreads DNA
Acts in 5’ to 3’ direction

work in groups to create two identical DNA duplexes from a single original DNA duplex

(Reads template strand in 3’ to 5’ direction while synthesizing in 5’ to 3’)

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65
Q

Exonuclease

A

Act in 3’ to 5’ direction
Remove incorrectly paired nucleotides

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66
Q

Size exclusion chromatography

A

Large molecules elute faster
Small molecules elute slower

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67
Q

Connective Tissues

A

Bone
Blood
Fat
Tendons/Ligaments
Cartilage

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68
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

Skin
Lining of Organs

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69
Q

Types of Muscle Tissue

A

Skeletal
Cardiac
Smooth

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70
Q

Rate limiting step of glycolysis

A

Phosphofructokinase

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71
Q

Rate limiting step of gluconeogenesis

A

Fructose- 1,6- biphosphate

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72
Q

Rate limiting step of TCA cycle

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

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73
Q

Rate limiting step of glycogen synthesis

A

glycogen synthase

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74
Q

Rate-limiting step for glycogenolysis

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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75
Q

Rate-limiting step in FA synthesis

A

acetyl CoA carboxylase

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76
Q

Rate-limiting step in FA oxidation

A

carnitine acyltransferase 1

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77
Q

Rate-limiting step in urea cycle

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1

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78
Q

Rate-limiting step in ketogenesis

A

HMG-CoA synthase

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79
Q

Rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

A

HMG-CoA reductase

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80
Q

What type of bonds are formed by irreversible inhibitors?

A

form covalent bonds with enzymes

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81
Q

Reversible inhibitors

A

form non-covalent bonds with target enzymes

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82
Q

Disulfide bonds

A

form from oxidation of cysteine bonds

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83
Q

Lipid rafts

A

Often rich in cholesterol and poor in phospholipids

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84
Q

Typical amino acid configuration

A

L - except glycine

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85
Q

CNS to periphery pathway

A
  1. Cerebral cortex
  2. Spinal Cord
  3. Efferent neurons
  4. Skeletal muscle cells
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86
Q

Efferent

A

central to outside

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87
Q

Afferent

A

external to central

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88
Q

Muscle activation

A

requires release of calcium
depolarization: Na+ from voltage gated Ca 2+ channels open causing Na+ channels to open- increase membrane potential + likely to fire action potential
Repolarization: K+ efflux (flow out of voltage gated potassium channels)
Hyperpolarization: when membrane potential dips below resting state- neurons unlikely to fire

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89
Q

G1 phase

A

growth (creating organelles + increasing in size)

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90
Q

S phase

A

DNA synthesis
Cell’s genetic info is replicated– each chromosome will have 2 chromatids bound together at centromere

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91
Q

G2 phase

A

growth and mitosis prep (checkpoints)

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92
Q

M phase

A

mitosis

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93
Q

5’ GTP Cap

A

added to the first nucleotide in the transcript during transcription.
A modified guanine (G) nucleotide, it protects the transcript from being broken down.
Helps the ribosome attach to the mRNA and start reading it to make a protein.
Only present in Eukaryotes

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94
Q

Polymerization/ elongation

A

Adding subunits/ nucleotides to form a single stranded RNA

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95
Q

Hybridization

A

process of binding complementary nucleotides due to base pairing of complementary regions

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96
Q

Arrhenius Acids

A

Increases proton conc of solution

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97
Q

Arrhenius Base

A

Increase in hydroxide conc of solution

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98
Q

Bronstead Lowry Acid

A

acids increase proton concentration and are H+ donors

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99
Q

Bronstead Lowry Base

A

Any species that is an H+ Acceptor

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100
Q

Lewis Acids

A

electron acceptors

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101
Q

Lewis Bases

A

electron donors

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102
Q

Conjugate Base

A

created when a proton is lost by an acid

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103
Q

Conjugate Acid

A

created when a proton is accepted by a base

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104
Q

Weak Acids/Bases

A

are stable

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105
Q

Induction

A

when electronegative atom pulls some of charge towards itself; stronger when electronegative atoms are in a closer proximity
stabilizes and creates stronger acids

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106
Q

Resonance

A

stabilizes and creates stronger acids

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107
Q

Large Ka

A

Strong acid, likely to dissociate

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108
Q

Small pKa

A

strong acid

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109
Q

pKa

A

the pH where above it, an atom will lose protons, below it will keep protons

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110
Q

pH>pKa

A

deprotonated

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111
Q

pH<pKa

A

protonated

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112
Q

Eosinocytes

A

Granulocytes; contain membrane bound nucleus with DNA

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113
Q

Parasympathetic response

A

constrict pupils
constrict bronchidea

rest and digest AND urination

deals with decreased blood pressure

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114
Q

Sympathetic response

A

dilate pupils
relax bronchi

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115
Q

Sensory neurons

A

Carry electrical signals to the CNS

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116
Q

Motor Neurons

A

carry signals from CNS to outer parts

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117
Q

Aldosterone

A

Released from adrenal cortex in response to low BP

stimulates the collecting duct to reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+ into the urine. This reabsorption of Na+ increases the osmolarity of the renal interstitial fluid, which promotes water reabsorption.

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118
Q

Autoclave

A

method for sterilization

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119
Q

mitosis

A

considered “cyclical”
separates sister chromatids to create 2 diploid daughter cells

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120
Q

meiosis

A

considered “non-cyclical”
separates homologous chromosomes to create daughter haploid cells

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121
Q

Free radicals

A

highly reactive oxidizing agents

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122
Q

Analogous structure

A

evolved independently to carry out the same function

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123
Q

Homologous structures

A

have similar evolutionary history and serve different functions

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124
Q

lacteals

A

absorb fat into lymphatic system

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125
Q

acrocentric chromosomes

A

centromere is located at the end rather than at the center
humans have 5 pairs

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126
Q

Histone Acetylation

A

When increased, transcription increased, and chromatin/gene expression will be active

decreases positive charge of lysine and weakens interaction of histone with DNA

open chromatin conformation

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127
Q

Histone Deacetylation

A

no transcription will occur, chromatin/gene expression will be depressed

closed chromatin conformation

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128
Q

PTMs

A

can be made in a variety of locations (ER/cytoplasm)

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129
Q

Post Transcriptional Modifications

A

will take place in the nucleus

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130
Q

Transcription

A

Will be consistent among species from various kingdoms

takes place in nucleus and mitochondria

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131
Q

Enantiomers

A

Mirror images, differ at every carbon

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132
Q

Conformers

A

Convert between isomers by the rotation of a single bond

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133
Q

Epimers

A

type of diastereomer- sugars that vary at only one stereocenter

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134
Q

nocireceptors

A

mediate perceptions of pain

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135
Q

Eicosanoid signaling molecules

A

Derived from arachidonic acid
Include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes

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136
Q

Catecholamines

A

Amino acid derived hormones (derived from tyrosine)
Include epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

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137
Q

Bacteria

A

Lack introns and code for proteins or RNA

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138
Q

Gap junctions

A

Located between cytoplasm of adjacent cells

Allow rhythmic depolarization and contraction

Allow cell-cell communication, also called connexons

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139
Q

siRNA and microRNA

A

silence genes by interrupting gene expression

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140
Q

hyperglycemia

A

may result in glucose/ketone bodies in urine

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141
Q

nephron damage

A

may result in presence of protein in urine

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142
Q

Competitive inhibition

A

Km increases, Vmax same

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143
Q

Uncompetitive inhibition

A

Km decreases, Vmax decreases

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144
Q

Mixed Inhibition

A

KM may increase or decrease depending on whether affinity is increased or decreased, Vmax decreases

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145
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition

A

Km same, Vmax decreases

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146
Q

Nucleoside

A

Has nitrogenous base and 5C sugar

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147
Q

Nucleotide

A

Has nitrogenous base, 5C sugar, and P group

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148
Q

Peptide hormones

A

large and polar, move freely through bloodstream but cannot pass through membrane
ex.
FLAT PEG,
ADH, Oxytocin
PTH
Gulcagon, Insulin
Calcitonin

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149
Q

Steroid hormones

A

nonpolar, not soluble, can directly diffuse into membrane but not bloodstream
ex. cortisol, aldosterone, testosterone, progesterone, estrogen

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150
Q

Oxidative Phosphorylation

A

The final major process of aerobic respiration

The majority of aerobically-derived ATP is synthesized

This process begins by passing electrons through the electron transport chain (ETC), to a final electron acceptor, oxygen.

This is the only time in eukaryotic aerobic respiration where oxygen is directly required.

NADH and FADH2 are oxidized to create NAD and FAD.
ADP becomes ATP and H2O is produced

These reactions take place in specialized proteins where NADH and FADH2 are used up, molecular oxygen is reduced into water, and approximately 30-36 ATP are created

energy is harnessed through electron transport chain and ATP synthase to create ATP.

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151
Q

ETC

A

Uses free oxygen as the final electron acceptor of the electrons removed from NADH and FADH2 formed in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
Complexes I-IV embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane and two small electron carriers shuttling electrons between them.
Energy released from electron transfers used to pump H+ across membrane. The unequal concentrations of H+ ions = electrochemical gradient, leading to chemiosmosis (the passive diffusion of the protons down their concentration gradient) which is coupled to ATP synthase
This proton movement generates 90% of the ATP synthesized during oxidative phosphorylation. The electrons passing through the electron transport chain lose energy until eventually they are donated to O2, which accepts two H+ ions and is transformed into water.

NADH to NAD+

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152
Q

Complex I

A

NADH dehydrogenase

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153
Q

Complex II

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

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154
Q

Complex III

A

Cytochrome C

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155
Q

Complex IV

A

cytochrome c oxidase

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156
Q

Aldosterone

A

Mineralocorticoid

Increases sodium absorption in distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct and therefore water reabsorption in blood

Decreases Urine output

Increases excretion of potassium (K) and hydrogen ions in the urine

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157
Q

ADH

A

Peptide hormone, also known as vasopressin.
INCREASING WATER REABSORPTION (increase permeability of distal tubules and collecting ducts).
Causes excretion of more concentrated urine
Acts to DECREASE OSMOLARITY of blood by increasing the amount of water present without changing the solute levels.
Increase blood volume and pressure

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158
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

A

Used by endocrine system to deal with excess blood volume

Aids in loss of salt within the nephron and acts as a diuretic

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159
Q

SDS-PAGE

A

allows proteins to be separated by mass alone.
More complex than gel electrophoresis (effective for DNA/RNA which are negatively charged)
Proteins can have positive, negative, or neutral charges, and these charges may not be uniformly distributed throughout the molecule.

Uses a strong anionic detergent: sodium dodecyl sulfate. The “sulfate” portion of this name denotes the negatively-charged head, while the “dodecyl” refers to a long hydrocarbon chain that forms the molecule’s tail.
Denatures native proteins into their unfolded polypeptide states to prevent protein shape from impacting the separation.

SDS coats proteins with even distribution of charge per unit mass + when highly anionic SDS associates with polypeptide backbone, charge of polypeptide becomes negligible in comparison to imposed charges of SDS– now they will all travel towards POSITIVE END

The larger the protein, the more hindered it is as it moves down the gel. Smaller proteins can travel through the pores of the gel more easily + migrate farther toward the positive pole.

If a heterodimer is sent through an SDS page, add up the two bands to get the accurate kDa

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160
Q

passive immunity

A

the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of ready-made antibodies, from one individual to another

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161
Q

cell-mediated immunity

A

an immune response that does not involve antibodies, but rather involves the activation of PHAGOCYTES, antigen-specific lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen

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162
Q

Prolactin

A

the hormone responsible for stimulating the mammary glands to produce milk

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163
Q

Luteinizing hormone

A

a hormone produced by gonadotropic cells in the anterior pituitary gland.
In females, rise of LH triggers ovulation and development of the corpus luteum.
In males, LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone.

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164
Q

Vitamin D

A

Activated by parathyroid hormone; promotes bone resorption (breaking down bone)

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165
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

antagonistic to calcitonin- raises blood calcium levels
decreasing bone formation by osteoblasts and increasing bone degradation by osteoclasts (bone resorption to break down tissue)

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166
Q

Calcitonin

A

a thyroid hormone responsible for lowering blood calcium concentrations.

limits blood calcium concentration by limiting calcium loss from bone

stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity and decreasing osteoclast activity

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167
Q

Epinephrine

A

a hormone secreted by the medulla of the adrenal glands
redirection of bodily blood flow, increased heart rate, dilation of bronchioles, and the release of sweat on the skin surface.

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168
Q

NADH

A

a 2 electron carrier

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169
Q

Cori cycle

A

The process of carrying lactate from cells undergoing anaerobic metabolism to the liver where it provides glucose and moves regenerated glucose from the liver back to cells (muscles)

Connects gluconeogenesis and glycolysis

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170
Q

Native Page

A

Gel electrophoresis in the absence of any denaturants– the protein will maintain its structure

Useful to compare molecular size or charge of proteins known to be similar

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171
Q

Valid

A

both precise and accurate

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172
Q

Precise

A

give you the same results multiple times

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173
Q

Affinity columns

A

isolate molecules that bind a particular ligand

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174
Q

Enzymes

A

lower activation energy but do not change deltaG

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175
Q

Cooperativity

A

Will often be denoted by a sigmoidal curve

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176
Q

Adrenal Medulla

A

Secretes amino acid based hormones (norepinephrine/epinephrine)

Is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system

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177
Q

Adrenal Cortex

A

Secretes steroid based hormones (glucocorticoids for glucose levels and protein metabolism/mineralocorticoids for salt and water homeostasis)

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178
Q

Aldosterone

A

Secreted from the adrenal cortex
Stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased water retention due to osmosis
Increased water retention increases blood volume and blood pressure

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179
Q

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

A

Secreted from the adrenal medulla
Mobilize body under stress and promote rapid information processing by maximizing blood flow to organs.
Regulate blood flow by:
Vasoconstriction
+
Vasodilation

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180
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Narrowing of blood vessels supplying the intestines, kidney, and other abdominal organs decreases blood flow to these organs and conserves oxygen/nutrients for other tissues.
Warms the body by reducing heat loss

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181
Q

Vasodilation

A

Widening of blood vessels leading to the heart and skeletal muscles increases oxygen/nutrient delivery to these organs.
Cools the body

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182
Q

Adrenal gland function

A

regulate blood pressure and respond to stress

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183
Q

Products of fatty acid oxidation

A

NADH, FADH2, Acetyl Co-A

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184
Q

Current

A

will flow more easily with a decreased electric resistance

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185
Q

Peroxisome

A

organelle that breaks down long chain fatty acids

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186
Q

Microfilaments

A

Made up of solid rods of actin; provide protection for cell; participate in cytokinesis

found in cytoplasm and muscles

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187
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

filamentous proteins including keratin, desmin, vimentin, and lamins
Involved in cell-cell adhesion/maintain cytoskeleton

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188
Q

Eukaryotes and archaea both

A

start translation with methionine, contain similar RNA polymerase, and associate DNA with histones

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189
Q

Peptidoglycan comprised of

A

Sugars and amino acids

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190
Q

Reverse Transcriptase

A

Carried by retroviruses
Synthesizes DNA from a single stranded RNA

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191
Q

lytic life cycle

A

phages replicate rapidly and release progeny via lysis of host cell

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192
Q

lysogenic life cycle

A

phages integrate genome with the host cell and replicate as the cell divides

the virus is dormant and its DNA is integrated with that of the host’s genome. All of the daughter cells from the initial infected cell will carry the virus’s genetic information. At some point, the virus will be triggered and will hijack the cellular machinery in order to produce viral progeny. (will then enter lytic phase)

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193
Q

G0 phase

A

most cells are arrested in this phase

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194
Q

Prophase

A

Condensation of chromatin into chromosomes
Centriole pairs move towards opposite ends
Spindle Fibers form
Nuclear membrane dissolves and genetic info exposed
Kinetochore are the attachment points for fibers of spindle apparatus– appear at centrosome

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195
Q

Metaphase

A

Centriole pairs at opposite ends
Kinetochore fibers align chromosomes at metaphase plate

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196
Q

Anaphase

A

Centromeres split, allowing sister chromatids to separate towards opposite poles
Nondisjunction in this phase may result in wrong number of chromosomes

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197
Q

Telophase

A

Spindle apparatus (microtubules) disappears, nuclear membrane reforms, chromosomes uncoil into chromatin

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198
Q

Synapsis (think of cell cycle)

A

major distinction between mitosis and meiosis; where homologous chromosomes come together and intertwine

the pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.

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199
Q

Estrogen
in response to which hormone?

A

Secreted in response to FSH
Development and maintenance of female reproductive system

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200
Q

Progesterone
Secreted by?
Controlled by?
Involved in?

A

Secreted by corpus luteum (then placenta), controlled by LH
Involved in development and maintenance of endometrium; prepares uterus for implantation of fertilized ovum

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201
Q

Ectoderm

A

outermost layer
generates integument, epithelia of nose/mouth/anus, lens of eye, nervous system

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202
Q

Mesoderm

A

develops into musculoskeletal, circulatory, excretory,
gives connective tissue layers to digestive and respiratory systems and adrenal cortex
give rise to gonads

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203
Q

Endoderm

A

Innermost layer of cells
Make up lining of digestive and respiratory tracts
pancreas, thyroid, bladder, and distal urinary tract and liver are derived from this tissue

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204
Q

Senescence

A

biological aging, eventually results in cell dealth

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205
Q

Myelin produced by

A

Oligodendrocytes in the CNS and Schwann cells in the PNS

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206
Q

Glial cells/neuroglia

A

Support and myelinate neurons
include:
Schwann cells to wrap the axons of some neurons with myelin

Satellite cells to provide structural support and supply nutrients to neuron cell bodies in sensory, sympathetic, and parasympathetic ganglia (groups of cell bodies); similar to astrocytes in the CNS

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207
Q

Astrocytes

A

nourish neurons and form blood-brain barrier (control transmission of solutes from bloodstream into nervous tissue)

make extensive contact with blood vessels and regulate blood flow; maintain homeostasis

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208
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Line ventricles of brain and produce cerebrospinal fluid (supports brain/acts as shock absorber)

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209
Q

Microglia

A

Phagocytic cells that ingest and break down waste and pathogens

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210
Q

Depolarization

A

Influx of Na+
Causes excitatory signals to increase membrane potential, neurons become more likely to fire action potential
Voltage gated Ca 2+ channels open up, causing exocytosis of neurotransmitters which open up Na+ channels and trigger action potential

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211
Q

Repolarization

A

Efflux of K+
Cell membrane potential decreases
K+ cations are driven out of cell, negative membrane potential will be restored

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212
Q

What impacts the speed of action potentials?

A

Has to do with length and cross-sectional area
More length= more resistance, slower conduction
More cross-sectional area= faster propagation, decreased resistance

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213
Q

Central Nervous System

A

Brain and Spinal Cord

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214
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

Motor Neurons (to muscles and glands) and sensory neurons
Motor neurons include Somatic and Autonomic Nervous System (includes Sympathetic and Parasympathetic division)

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215
Q

Vagus Nerve

A

main nerve of parasympathetic nervous system
inhibition of this nerve causes increased cardiac output

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216
Q

Tropic hormones

A

Require an intermediary to act

Endocrine cells to rest of body

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217
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Bridge between nervous and endocrine system
Controls homeostasis and hormones
Regulated by negative feedback
Hypophyseal portal system connects hypothalamus to anterior pituitary

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218
Q

Diaphragm Contraction

A

Causes increase in volume of thoracic cavity
Causes decrease in the inter pleural pressure between thoracic wall and lung

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219
Q

Respiratory Pathway

A

Nares, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronichiles, alveoli

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220
Q

Fixing error in DNA

A

When the error is at either end of the DNA strand, the DNA backbone is cleaved by exonucleases, Endonucleases repair DNA in middle of strand
After damaged base is removed, DNA polymerase corrects base to pair with the opposite strand, and a ligase enzyme catalyzes formation of new phosphodiester bonds.

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221
Q

DNA Sugars

A

linked to nitrogen bases at the 1′ carbon of the sugar. The 3′ and 5′ carbons are linked to phosphate groups, which each link to the rest of the DNA backbone.

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222
Q

behavioral isolation

A

occurs from different mating behaviors

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223
Q

hybrid breakdown

A

F1 and offspring are viable and fertile, but F2 is sterile

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224
Q

Troponin

A

Binding of Ca2+ causes troponin to shift the position of tropomyosin on the actin filament so it is no longer blocked and myosin can bind and allow force production

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225
Q

Type I fibers

A

slow-twitch fibers have the slowest contractile velocity but are rich in mitochondria and capillaries. These fibers are fatigue resistant and are the most recruited fibers

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226
Q

Type Ila

A

(fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic) fibers contract several times faster than type I fibers but have similar mitochondrial density to type I fibers (mitochondria rich). Also fatigue resistant

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227
Q

Type Ilx

A

fast-twitch, glycolytic fibers, contract faster, typically have lower mitochondrial density than type I or IIa fibers.
More reliant upon anaerobic metabolism (ie, glycolysis, fermentation) than are type I and IIa fibers, which are more reliant on aerobic respiration.

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228
Q

Sarcoplasmic Reticiulum

A

Found in skeletal muscle fibers
Store Ca2+ so that they are not present in the cytosol to activate processes

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229
Q

Stratum Corneum

A

epidermis layer composed of dead skin cells; layer helps repel water

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230
Q

Stratum lucidum

A

epidermis layer found on palms of hands and soles of feet

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231
Q

Stratum Granulosum

A

epidermis layer where keratin production occurs

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232
Q

Stratum Spinosum

A

epidermis layer that gives skin strength and flexibility

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233
Q

stratum basale

A

where keratinocytes are formed before moving up to the epidermis and being shed; also contains melanocytes

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234
Q

stratum basale

A

epidermis layerwhere keratinocytes are formed before moving up to the epidermis and being shed; also contains melanocytes

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235
Q

epidermis

A

has 5 strata; It is composed of epithelial tissue and is continuously sloughed off (superficial layer) and reproduced (deep layer). Merkel cells, Langerhans cells, melanocytes, and keratinocytes are all cell types in the epidermis.

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236
Q

dermis

A

composed of a matrix of connective tissue embedding several cell types

contains blood vessels to nourish skin with oxygen and nutrients; nerves; glands; hair follicles; collagen

contribute to strength and flexibility

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237
Q

subcutaneous layer

A

contains blood vessels/nerves AND a layer of fat which maintains body temp

“shock absorber”

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238
Q

Hypothalamic Pituitary Thyroid Axis

A

pathway containing linked activities of hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid glands

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239
Q

Parathyroid Hormone

A

The role is to maintain an adequate calcium concentration in the blood
Stimulates three processes:
1) intestinal absorption of calcium from the diet,
2) reabsorption of calcium filtered by the kidney (ie, reducing urinary calcium loss),
3) promoting release of bone calcium into the blood.

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240
Q

Above normal thyroid hormone concentrations can lead to

A

Overstimulated bone resorption and reduced bone density

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241
Q

Calcitriol

A

the most active form of vitamin D and stimulates intestinal calcium absorption

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242
Q

Kidney Anatomy and Steps

A

In the renal cortex, blood is first filtered through glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule (a cup-shaped structure) of each nephron. The filtered fluid (filtrate) then flows through the tubular segments of the nephron. The proximal tubule is the first segment the filtrate traverses. Next, the filtrate flows into the loop of Henle, a two-limbed structure stretching into the medulla that reabsorbs water and salt (NaCl) from the filtrate into the body via countercurrent multiplication:

Filtrate flows through the descending limb of the loop, which is highly permeable to water but impermeable to NaCl. Water will move from areas of low solute concentration to areas of high solute concentration. Accordingly, because salt concentration in the medulla is high, water is passively reabsorbed (via osmosis) from the filtrate flowing through the descending limb into the salty medulla, where it is taken up by blood vessels.

Filtrate then flows into the ascending limb, which is highly permeable to NaCl but impermeable to water. Initially, NaCl is passively reabsorbed into the medulla as filtrate moves up the ascending limb. However, as the ascending limb nears the cortex, NaCl is actively transported from the filtrate into the medulla, preserving the medulla’s high salt concentration. Because water follows NaCl, the saltiness of the medulla promotes continued water reabsorption from the descending loop of Henle and the collecting duct.

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243
Q

order of peristaltic contraction frequency

A

most frequent to least frequent, is cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon

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244
Q

Osmolarity of blood

A

Decreases when large amounts of water are consumed; higher concentration of solutes will be reabsorbed and more water excreted by the kidneys (more dilute urine)

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245
Q

Blood in Kidney Pathway

A

blood enters via renal arteries which branch into smaller arterioles that branch into glomerulus (filtration occurs)

Glomerular capillaries have large pores that blood passes through as it is filtered based on particle size

Water, solutes, and small proteins can pass through

The filtrate is collected by the Bowman’s capsule and is delivered to the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), the next section of the nephron.

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246
Q

Microfilaments

A

thin protein filaments made of actin, are involved in cytokinesis and determining cellular shape.
Also responsible for cellular movement, muscle contractions, and movement of vesicles within cells.

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247
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

made of protein subunits (ie, keratin, lamins, vimentin, and desmin).
Involved in determining the shape of the cell and make up the nuclear lamina;
Help anchor organelles to specific areas of the cell.

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248
Q

Myosin

A

a protein that can function as a motor protein
Interacts with actin (not tubulin) during muscle contraction.

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249
Q

Microtubules

A

made of alternating α- and β-tubulin subunits, which assemble into hollow tubes.
Involved in cell movement
Involved in cell motility, forming the core of cilia and flagella, and the formation of the mitotic spindle during cell division

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250
Q

Muscle force development

A

detection of depolarization by t-tubules
Ca2+ is released from SR through channel
Rise in cytosolic Ca2+ leads to binding of Ca2+ to troponin which enables stronger binding

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251
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase

A

Mediates between
H2O + CO2 and H2CO3 in bicarbonate buffer system

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252
Q

Cadherins

A

Transmembrane proteins (glycoproteins)
Role in cell-cell adhesion

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253
Q

Integrins

A

Transmembrane proteins
Role in cell-extra cellular matrix adhesion

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254
Q

Macrophages

A

Found in the blood are derived from monocytes that originate in the bone marrow
In the tissues may be derived from the embryonic yolk-sac.

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255
Q

Osteoblast Activity

A

Build bone; Bone depositing cells; secrete new bone matrix
Promoted by calcitonin

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256
Q

Osteoclast Activity

A

Bone resorbing cells; break down old bone
Promoted by PTH

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257
Q

Operators

A

structures in operons, which are involved in prokaryotic gene expression.

bind to the repressor

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258
Q

Promotors

A

upstream DNA sequences in the eukaryotic genome that bind with transcription factors.

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259
Q

Myelin

A

Insulates axons so that action potentials can move more quickly

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260
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Gaps in the myelin sheath where Na+ and K+ ions can cross the membrane when gates are open
Result in a strong and consistent signal

Na+ enters at each node of ranvier

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261
Q

Tetany

A

a state of constant contraction

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262
Q

Zygote development mnemonic

A

More Blasting Gas, I’m Nervous
Morula
Blastula
Gastrula
Neurulation

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263
Q

Trophoblast

A

Outer layer of blastula

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264
Q

Blastocoel

A

a fluid-filled central region present in the blastocyst during mammalian embryogenesis.

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265
Q

Glycolysis upregulated/downregulated

A

Upregulated: ADP, AMP, inorganic phosphate
Down-regulated: ATP, NADH, citrate

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266
Q

NADH from glycolysis

A

contributes to oxidative phosphorylation
or converted back to NAD+ for glycolysis to continue (through ETC or fermentation)

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267
Q

Lactic acid fermentation

A

pyruvate converted to lactate (by lactate dehydrogenase) in a coupled reaction with conversion. of NADH to NAD+

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268
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

Premature stop codon

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269
Q

Conservative missense mutation

A

one nucleotide replaced by an aa that has similar characteristics

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270
Q

RNA polymerase

A

binds to promoter region; travels along the template strand in the 3’-5’ direction, synthesizing an antiparallel complement in the 5’-3’ direction.
The template strand is known as the antisense strand, and the opposite strand is known as the sense strand (corresponds to the codons on the mRNA that is eventually exported to the cytosol for translation)

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271
Q

3’ poly-A tail

A

a string of approximately 250 adenine (A) nucleotides added to the 3’ end of an hnRNA transcript to protect against rapid degradation in the cytosol

Once RNA leaves the nucleus, will rapidly degrade from 3’ end

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272
Q

splicing

A

noncoding sequences (introns) are removed and coding sequences (exons) are ligated together.

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273
Q

modifications that can be made to pre mRNA

A

splicing (ie, removal) of noncoding introns as well as the addition of a 3′ poly-adenine (poly-A) tail and a 5’ GTP cap.

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274
Q

ligase

A

connects okazaki fragments

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275
Q

enzyme activity dependent on

A

catalytic efficiency, concentration, inhibitors/activators, temperature, pH

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276
Q

Gluconeogenesis upregulated/downregulated

A

It is upregulated by glucagon and the presence of surplus pyruvate/acetyl-CoA
Downregulated by insulin

The steps in glycolysis that require investment of ATP cannot be reversed by gluconeogenesis

Gluconeogenesis takes place in both cytosol and mitochondria (after transport of malate/PEP to cytosol)

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277
Q

Lipases

A

Digest lipids/fats (often stored as triglycerides)

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278
Q

Lyases

A

cleave bonds through non-hydrolysis mechanisms

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279
Q

Ligases

A

join molecules together with covalent bonds

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280
Q

Inhalation

A

active and requires the external intercostal muscles to expand the thoracic cavity, increasing the intrathoracic volume (which causes intrapleural pressure to decrease)

281
Q

Exhalation

A

passive and initiated by relaxation of the internal intercostal muscles; relaxation causes the chest cavity to decrease in volume

282
Q

Bicarbonate buffer system

A

less breathing= more CO2
More CO2= more acidic
More acidic= liver will excrete HCO3 (basic)

283
Q

Cardiovascular Pathway

A
  1. Deoxygenated blood from body tissues enters the right atrium via the (superior and inferior) vena cavae
    2, The right atrium contracts, forcing the deoxygenated blood through the tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle.
  2. The right ventricle contracts to propel the blood through the pulmonary valve and into the pulmonary arteries
  3. The pulmonary arteries carry blood from the heart to the capillary beds of lung alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.
  4. In pulmonary capillary beds, the blood unloads carbon dioxide and loads oxygen (ie, becomes oxygenated) and returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary veins.
  5. The left atrium contracts, pushing the oxygenated blood through the bicuspid (mitral) valve and into the left ventricle
  6. The left ventricle contracts to pump blood through the aortic valve to the rest of the body via the aorta.
  7. The blood flowing through systemic blood vessels delivers nutrients and oxygen to the body tissues before returning to the heart.
284
Q

Blood in pulmonary artery

A

lower in oxygen, higher in CO2 and has a lower pH than arterial blood in the aorta; essentially the same as venous blood.
Passes through the tissues of the body– gives up oxygen and takes on CO2.
It has been pumped through the right side of the heart from the veins and headed for the lung where it will become oxygenated and will dispose of its CO2 load.

285
Q

Pulmonary valve

A

separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary circulation

286
Q

Aortic valve

A

separates the left ventricle from the aorta

287
Q

Systole

A

when the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood from the chambers into the arteries

288
Q

Diastole

A

when the heart muscle relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood

289
Q

osmotic pressure

A

the force drawing water into a solution by osmosis, the passive movement of water molecules from an area of low to an area of high solute concentration across a semipermeable membrane. Osmotic pressure increases as solute concentration (osmolarity) increases.

increase of osmotic pressure causes water to be retained

290
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

Force that pushes fluid out of the blood capillaries

291
Q

Oncotic pressure

A

Force that pushes the fluid into the blood capillary

292
Q

Albumin

A

Transport protein made by liver

Prevents loss of fluid from blood vessels/ maintains osmotic pressure

Carries hormones, vitamins, enzymes

293
Q

Superior Vena Cavae

A

returns blood from portions of body above the heart

294
Q

Inferior vena cavae

A

returns blood from portions of body below the heart

295
Q

Deoxygenated blood path

A

enters right atrium, travels through tricuspid valve, enters right ventricle; on contraction, blood from right ventricle passes through pulmonary valve and enters pulmonary arteries– here it travels to the lungs in smaller vessels; when blood reaches capillaries that line alveoli, gas exchange begins (CO2 leaves, and O2 enters)

296
Q

Oxygenated blood pathway

A

enters the left atrium, travels through mitral (bicuspid) valve, enters left ventricle; on contraction, blood from left ventricle passes through aortic valve and enters aorta

297
Q

Granulocytes

A

Involved in inflammatory reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction of bacteria and parasites

Type of leukocyte

Includes neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

298
Q

Agranulocytes + give examples

A

Important in specific immune responses

Type of leukocyte

Includes lymphocytes, monocytes

299
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Those that mature in lymph nodes/spleen are B cells

Those that mature in the thymus are T cells

B cells generate antibodies

T cells kill virally infected cells and activate immune cells

300
Q

Monocytes

A

Phagocytize bacteria– once they leave bloodstream and enter organ, they are called macrophages

301
Q

Thrombocytes/platelets

A

released from megakaryocytes (bone marrow cells) and assist clotting

development stimulated by thrombopoietin

302
Q

hematopoiesis

A

production of blood cells/platelets

303
Q

erythropoietin

A

stimulates red blood cell development

304
Q

Antigens

A

a toxin or other foreign substance which induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies.

Surface proteins in red blood cells
ABO or Rh factors
Can be targeted by an antibody
Ex. macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells, epithelial cells

305
Q

Baroreceptors

A

a type of mechanoreceptors allowing for relaying information derived from blood pressure within the autonomic nervous system

306
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

sense high blood osmolarity and promote ADH to increase reabsorption of water to increase blood volume and pressure

307
Q

Dendritic cells

A

immune cell

identifies foreign pathogen

308
Q

macrophages

A

degrade pathogens and dead body cells

309
Q

basophils

A

release chemical mediators (histamine) that enhance immune response

310
Q

mast cells

A

release chemical mediators (histamine) that modulate allergic reactions

311
Q

neutrophils

A

kill and phagocytize bacterial cells

312
Q

eosinophils

A

defend against parasitic infections and modulate immune responses during allergic reactions

313
Q

natural killer cells

A

release toxins to induce apoptosis virus infected body cells

314
Q

Humoral Immunity

A

an antibody-mediated immune response by B lymphocytes binding to antigens and dividing to create cells

some new cells will differentiate into short lived plasma cells to secrete antibodies
others will differentiate into long lived memory cells and respond to future infection

315
Q

Innate Immune System consists of

A

Skin (defensin enzymes and sweat)
Respiratory system (mucous membranes and lysozyme enzymes secreted in tears and saliva)
GI tract (acidity eliminates pathogens)

316
Q

Interferons

A

proteins that prevent viral replication and dispersion– cause nearby cells to decrease production of viral and cellular proteins and decrease permeability so viruses can’t infect

317
Q

Major histocompatibility complex

A

Group of membrane bound proteins that display or present antigens for inspection by T cells
MHC I for endogenous antigens (within cell)
MHC II for exogenous antigens (only in phagocytic cells)

All nucleated cells have MHC I molecules, but certain immune cells (eg, macrophages, lymphocytes, dendritic cells) also contain MHC II molecules

Dependent on a cell’s transcriptional and translational machinery

318
Q

Antibody structure

A

Y shaped; made up of 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains held together by disulfide linkages and noncovalent interactions

synthesized and secreted by effector B cells

a variable region that interacts with a specific antigen, and a constant region that interacts with the cells (eg, phagocytes) and proteins of the body to facilitate antigen destruction.

319
Q

T cells 3 types

A

Helper T cells (CD4+)– secrete lymphokines
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)– directly kill virally infected cells
Suppressor/regulatory T cells– express CD4 and Foxp3– tone down immune response once infection contained

320
Q

Small Intestine

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Illium

321
Q

Gastrin

A

secreted by G cells and stimulates secretion of HCl

322
Q

Chief cells

A

Secrete pepsinogen into the stomach, where its active form (ie, pepsin) aids in protein digestion

323
Q

Mucous cells

A

produce mucus and bicarbonate, which both function to protect the walls of the stomach from self-destruction in the stomach’s acidic, proteolytic environment

324
Q

Parietal cells

A

secrete H ions as hydrochloric acid; cleave pepsinogen into pepsin; secrete intrinsic factor

325
Q

Liver

A

Produces bile (salts, cholesterol, bilirubin) and albumin (transport hormones, filter toxins, stores/creates energy stores by storing nutrients as glycogen/triaglycerols or undergoing gluconeogenesis/glycogeneolysis)

Receives blood draining from digestive tract through hepatic portal vein

326
Q

Enteropeptidase

A

cleaves trypsinogen into trypsin

327
Q

Bile releasing hormones and digestive enzymes

A

Secretin and Cholecystokinin

328
Q

Pancreas digestive enzymes

A

Maltase: digests maltose
Exopeptidase: removes aas until dipeptides are left
Nuclease: digests RNA and DNA
Dipeptidase: digests dipeptides into single amino acids
Lactase: digests lactose
Sucrase: digests sucrose

329
Q

Small Intestine Enzymes

A

Lipase- digests triglycerides in fats and glycerol
Amylase- digests starch into maltose
Phospholipase- digests phospholipids into fatty acids + glycerol and phosphate group
Insulin- regulates glucose in blood
Endopeptidase- digests proteins into polypeptides

330
Q

Filtration (urine production)
where does it occur?
where does fluid come from?

A

takes place in the glomerulus
capillaries meet in nephron, part of fluid passes through the Bowman’s capsule; fluid comes from our blood and contains water, nutrients, and waste (urea)

331
Q

Nephron

A

Where reabsorption of protons and bicarbonate from filtrate contributes to acid base balance within the body

332
Q

Nephron anatomy

A

glomerulus
bowman’s capsule
proximal convoluted tube (descending)
loop of henle
proximal convoluted tube (ascending)
distal convoluted tube
collecting duct

All within cortex of the kidney

333
Q

Horizontal segments of kidney

A

focus on keeping what body needs and losing what it doesn’t

334
Q

Vertical segments of kidney

A

focus on the volume and concentration of urine

Ascending loop is permeable to salts
Descending loop is permeable to water

335
Q

Glomerulus

A

collection of blood vessels where fluid is displaced

336
Q

Renal artery/vein

A

renal artery brings in impure blood to kidney
renal vein sends away filtered blood

337
Q

Medulla

A

Inner part of kidney containing renal pyramid

338
Q

Renin

A

released as a result of low BP

from juxtaglomerular cells of kidney

cleaves angiotensin to promote release of aldosterone

339
Q

ADH

A

a peptide hormone synthesized by the hypothalamus and released by posterior pituitary

allows more water to be reabsorbed by making cell junctions of duct leaky

340
Q

If one needed to conserve water in body, aldosterone secretion would ______

A

increase; this would promote retention of sodium ions and promote osmotic reabsorption of water by kidneys

341
Q

When blood osmolarity is high…

A

water absorption increases and solute extrection increases

342
Q

Reabsorption

A

movement of solutes from filtrate back into blood

343
Q

Solute concentration in parts of kidney

A

Lowest in cortex, then medulla, then most in renal pelvis

Gradient allows water to be reabsorbed; excretion of concentrated urine limits water loss and preserves blood volume

344
Q

Sarcomere

A

basic contractile unit; made of thick and thin filaments

thick filaments: organized bundles of myosin

thin filaments: actin/troponin/tropomyosin

345
Q

Calcium (skeletal muscle)

A

released into cytosol from SR

Induced when a depolarizing current runs along sarcolemma and down T tubules

346
Q

Acetylcholine
released via…
triggers what?

A

released at neuromuscular junction via exocytosis from presynaptic motor neurons

binds to receptors on motor end plate and TRIGGERS MUSCLE CONTRACTION

347
Q

Sliding Filament Model

A

(after Ca+ binds so myosin can bind) conformational change causes the actin filament to slide relative to the myosin

ATP binds myosin, causing it to detach and recharge

348
Q

White muscle fibers

A

Fast twitch
Have less mitochondria; rely on glycolysis and fermentation for ATP

349
Q

Red muscle fibers

A

Slow twitch, more mitochondria to carry out ox. phos. and high myoglobin

350
Q

Tendons

A

muscle to bone

351
Q

Ligaments

A

bone to bone

352
Q

Codominance

A

Both phenotypes fully present

353
Q

Incomplete Dominance

A

Phenotypes combined

354
Q

Hardy Weinberg Principles

A

Population is large w no genetic drift
No mutations that affect the gene pool
Mating is random
No migration in or out of population
Genes are all equally successful at reproducing

355
Q

Nonpolar Amino Acids

A

GAVCPLIMWF
Glycine
Alanine
Valine
Cysteine
Proline
Leucine
Isoleucine
Methionine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine

356
Q

Positively Charged Amino Acids

A

KRH
Lysine
Arginine
Histidine

357
Q

Negatively charged amino acids

A

DE
Aspartic Acid
Glutamic Acid

358
Q

Polar Amino Acids

A

STYNQ
Serine
Threonine
Tyrosine
Asparagine
Glutamine

359
Q

Polypeptide

A

Longer than 20 amino acid chain residues

Less than 20= oligopeptide

360
Q

Trypsin and Chymotrypsin

A

catalyze hydrolysis; only cleave at specific points in peptide chain

361
Q

Fat Soluble Vitamins

A

A, D, E, K

362
Q

Lineweaver Burke Plot- X intercept

A

-1/KM

363
Q

Lineweaver Burke Plot- Y intercept

A

1/Vmax

364
Q

Lineweaver Burke Plot- X axis

A

1/[S]

365
Q

Lineweaver Burke Plot- Y axis

A

1/v

366
Q

Silly ETC mnemonic

A

Complex I

electrons flow from NADH -> FMN -> CoQ to form CoQH2

We’re in the kitchen. Someone orders Nuggets (NADH) and Fries (FMN) for the cook (CoQ) to prepare.

Complex II

succinate -> FAD -> FADH2 -> CoQ to form CoQH2

Someone orders salad (succinate) and falafel (FAD/FADH2) for the cook (Coq) to prepare.

Complex III

The food has been made and the cook with the food (CoQH2) hands it off to the host (heme) who brings the food to the customer (cytochrome C)

Complex IV

now that the customer (cytochrome c) has the food, in order to eat it, their mouth has to make an O (oxygen)

367
Q

Lymphatic System
fluid flow

A

Fluid is collected by lymph capillaries, flows into larger lymph vessels, and is transported into lymph ducts that drain into veins near the heart.

368
Q

Helper T cells

A

recognize foreign antigens displayed by MHC proteins of other immune cells, such as:

B lymphocytes, cells that bind and engulf a foreign antigen. The antigen is broken down into fragments within the B lymphocyte, and these fragments are transported to be displayed on MHC proteins present on the cell membrane. A helper T cell binds the foreign antigen presented by the B lymphocyte and releases signaling molecules (cytokines) that induce division of the B lymphocyte into many identical cells, some of which differentiate to secrete antibodies against the invading pathogen.

Macrophages and dendritic cells, which engulf foreign antigens (via phagocytosis) and present these antigen fragments on the MHC proteins found on their cell membrane. Upon binding these antigens, helper T cells release cytokines that enhance other immune responses, including the phagocytotic activity of macrophages and the activation and proliferation of cytotoxic T cells, immune cells that release toxins to induce apoptosis in infected cells.

369
Q

uniport/symport/antiport

A

Transport of a single molecule is called uniport.

When two molecules are transported in the same direction, it is known as symport

When two molecules are transported in opposite directions, it is called antiport.

370
Q

Precursor for fatty acid synthesis

A

malonyl-CoA
similar structure to acetyl CoA

fatty acid synthase carries out reaction; contains acyl carrier protein

371
Q

In ETC, less oxygen consumed means

A

More ADP present, less ATP produced

372
Q

Hydrolysis

A

consume water to break bonds

373
Q

Condensation

A

join two molecules together, and release one or more water molecules in the process

374
Q

High KM value

A

Low binding affinity

375
Q

Oxaloacetate

A

An intermediate in several metabolic pathways, including gluconeogenesis, the citric acid cycle, and amino acid degradation.

Precursors:

In gluconeogenesis, pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of PYRUVATE to form oxaloacetate. In this reaction, CO2 is added to pyruvate, and ATP is hydrolyzed to provide the necessary energy.

In the final step of the citric acid cycle, oxaloacetate is synthesized by the oxidation of MALATE, a reaction catalyzed by malate dehydrogenase. This reaction requires the simultaneous reduction of NAD+ to NADH. NADH can then enter the electron transport chain and provide electrons necessary for the production of ATP.

In amino acid degradation, amino acids are converted to α-keto acids by transamination, in which an amino group is transferred from an amino acid to α-ketoglutarate to synthesize glutamate. The α-keto acid derivative of ASPARTATE is oxaloacetate.

376
Q

Statistically Significant p-value

A

less than .05

377
Q

kcat

A

the number of reactions each enzyme catalyzes per second under saturating conditions

378
Q

Vmax

A

Kcat x Enzyme Conc.

379
Q

Michaelis Mentin

A

The y-intercept represents the reciprocal of the maximum reaction velocity 1/Vmax; the x-intercept represents the negative reciprocal of the enzyme’s Michaelis constant −1/Km; and the slope of the line is the ratio Km/Vmax.

380
Q

What happens during fasting?

A

During periods of fasting, the liver helps maintain blood glucose levels. The liver initially synthesizes glucose by degrading glycogen. However, after glycogen stores are depleted in prolonged fasting, gluconeogenesis is upregulated, increasing the synthesis of glucose from precursors such as pyruvate. In the fasting state, the liver downregulates key enzymes of glycolysis and upregulates enzymes of gluconeogenesis.

During fasting, glucose consumption and storage are downregulated in the liver and glucose synthesis is upregulated. Newly formed glucose is exported into the blood to keep levels constant. In the early stages of fasting, the liver synthesizes glucose by degrading glycogen (glycogenolysis). However, if fasting is prolonged, glycogen stores are depleted, and the liver must upregulate the synthesis of glucose from smaller precursor molecules (gluconeogenesis).

381
Q

Pyruvate Carboxylase (fasted/fed)

A

In the well-fed state, pyruvate carboxylase is downregulated so that pyruvate can be used in other pathways

During prolonged fasting, pyruvate carboxylase activity is upregulated in the liver to increase the rate of gluconeogenesis.

382
Q

Column Chromatography

A

Less polar compounds will elute faster

Used to separate and collect macromolecules besides proteins

383
Q

Size exclusion chromatography

A

Small molecules will slow down while large molecules quickly move around the pores

384
Q

Used to determine protein structure

A

X Ray Crystallography and NMR

385
Q

Fischer Projection Lines

A

Vertical lines represent going into the page (dashed lines)
Horizontal lines represent going out of the page (wedges)
All D-sugars have the hydroxide on the right, and L-sugars have the hydroxide on the left

386
Q

Cyclic Sugars

A

Contain both a hydroxyl group and a carbonyl group

Can undergo intramolecular reactions to become cyclic hemiacetals and hemiketals

387
Q

Stable sugars

A

furanose and pyranose

388
Q

Cyclic sugar configuration

A

α-glucose has the –OH group of C-1 trans to the CH2OH substituent (axial and down)

β-glucose has the –OH group of C-1 cis to the –CH2OH (equatorial and up)

389
Q

Saturated Fatty Acid Tails

A

will have only single bonds!

tend to be solid at room temp

390
Q

Unsaturated fatty acids

A

contain double bonds which introduce kinks and make it difficult to stack

have lower melting point due to decreased van der waals forces from lack of stacking

tend to be liquid at room temp

391
Q

Micelles

A

important in the body for absorption of fat soluble vitamins and lipids

392
Q

DNA ends

A

5’ end will have OH or phosphate bonding to C5’ of sugar
3’ end will have a free OH on the C3’ of sugar

393
Q

DNA backbone- what is joined?

A

created as nucleotides are joined by 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds (3’ carbon of one sugar to 5’ phosphate of the next)

394
Q

Aromatic

A

cyclic, planar, conjugated (alternating single/multiple bonds)
Huckel’s rule: 4n + 2 p electrons

395
Q

Heterochromatin

A

compacted, inactive chromatin; composed of deacetylated histones

396
Q

Euchromatin

A

dispersed, active chromatin

397
Q

topoisomerases

A

in DNA, introduce negative supercoils which alleviate torsional stress; work ahead of helicase to nick one or both strands

398
Q

Leading strand

A

strand of replication fork that is continuously copied in same direction as advancing replication fork

399
Q

Lagging strand

A

strand that is copied in opposite direction to that of the replication fork

400
Q

5 DNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells

A

DNA polymerases a & s work together to synthesize both the leading and lagging strands. DNA s also fills in the gaps left behind when RNA primers are removed

DNA polymerase g replicates mitochondrial DNA

DNA polymerase b & e are used in the process of DNA repair

DNA polymerase b & e are assisted by PCNA protein. This assembles into a trimer to form a sliding clamp, that helps to strengthen the interaction between these DNA polymerases and the template strand

401
Q

Oncogenes

A

mutated genes that cause cancer

proto oncogenes are before oncogenes are mutated

402
Q

DNA repair

A

demination converts cytosine to uracil
uracil detected and removed
hole filled with correct base by DNA polymerase and sealed by ligase

403
Q

PCR

A

produces millions of copies of DNA sequence without amplifying DNA in bacteria

combine target sequence, heat stable DNA polymerase, primers (short pieces of DNA complementary to each end of the target sequence), and deoxynucleotides

404
Q

steps of PCR

A
  1. denaturation
  2. annealing
  3. DNA synthesis
405
Q

Transgene

A

a cloned gene that is introduced for an experiment

often microinjected into the nucleus of a newly formed ovum

406
Q

mRNA

A

carries information that specified the amino acid sequence of the protein to the ribosome

the only type of RNA that contains info to be translated into a protein

407
Q

Transfer RNA

A

converts language of nucleic acids to language of amino acids and peptides

408
Q

ribosomal RNA

A

important for protein assembly

may function as ribozymes– enzymes made of RNA molecules instead of peptides

409
Q

Codons of mRNA

A

recognized by a complementary anticodon on the tRNA

410
Q

Wobble position

A

after first two nucleotides on an mRNA codon which require traditional base pairing, the third may undergo less stringent base pairing at third position of of the codon and anticodon

mutations here are silent (degenerate)

411
Q

Gene making occurs in the…

A

Cytoplasm

DNA may not leave the nucleus and uses RNA to transmit info

412
Q

Transcription

A

creation of mRNA from a DNA template

produces a copy of only one of the two strands

413
Q

Coding strand

A

DNA strand that is not used as a template for mRNA

Has exact same codons as mRNA strand (except ts replaced by us)

414
Q

hnRNA

A

primary product of transcription

mRNA is derived from this

415
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription and Translation

A

occur at separate times in separate locations

416
Q

Translation’s 3 steps

A

Initiation: small subunit binds to 5’ cap structure- Kozak sequence (euk) or Shine Dalgarno sequence (prok)

Elongation:
peptide chain is made longer

Termination: ribosome encounters stop codon

417
Q

Operon

A

Cluster of genes transcribed as a single mRNA

418
Q

Operator site

A

Binds a repressor protein so that cell will stop producing proteins for metabolism and wasting energy

419
Q

Promoter site

A

where RNA polymerase binds

420
Q

Regulator gene

A

codes for a repressor protein

421
Q

Inducible System

A

contain genes involved in the metabolism of a specific substrate– the expression of the operons is induced in the presence of the substrate

Positive control mechanisms; binding of a molecule increases transcription

ex. Lac operon; in order to be expressed, lactose must be present; if not present, operator will bind to repressor

422
Q

Repressible systems

A

contain genes encoding enzymes require for a biosynthetic pathway

Negative feedback

Ex. tryptophan– when it is the final protein, acts as a corepressor when concentrations get too high

product of biosynthetic pathway controlled by operon regulates expression of operon

423
Q

transduction

A

the process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus

424
Q

conjugation

A

transfer of genetic material, ordinarily in the form of a plasmid, between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or via a bridge-like connection between two cells

the transfer of a plasmid through a bridge that is created when a sex pilus on one bacterium (often known as F+, which refers to the presence of the fertility factor, or as male) attaches to another bacterium (generally known as F−). During this process, the fertility factor itself is duplicated and transferred, converting the F− cell into an F+ cell.

proceeds unidirectionally, from a bacterium possessing the F factor (and hence able to form a pilus) to a bacterium lacking the factor.

425
Q

transformation

A

the genetic alteration of a cell resulting from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous genetic material from its surroundings through the cellular membrane

the simple uptake of DNA (either a linear fragment or a plasmid) from a recipient bacterium’s extracellular fluid through membrane pores or transport proteins.

426
Q

angiogenesis

A

development of new blood vessels

427
Q

I band

A

exclusively thin filaments

428
Q

I band

A

exclusively thin filaments

429
Q

H zone

A

exclusively thick, myosin filaments

430
Q

A band

A

area in the center where thick and thin filaments overlap

“all the myosin” is located here

does not move when muscles contract

431
Q

z bands

A

delineate regions between adjacent sarcomeres; give striped appearance

does not change in response to contraction

432
Q

Aerobic pathways

A
433
Q

Anaerobic pathways

A
434
Q

Triggers for metabolic pathways

A

Glycolysis, TCA and ETC are triggered when the Energy levels are low. These are primarily signaled by Low ATP and high ADP levels

Gluconeogenesis is triggered by low Blood Glucose. A healthy blood glucose level has its own purpose aside from Energy. This cycle can turn on regardless of if the ATP levels are high or low. This is because Glucose setpoints will act as a homeostasis marker of health for our cells just like temperature, pH and ionic concentrations

Pentose Phosphate Pathway is triggered by the need to prepare for nucleotide synthesis and dealing with Reactive Oxygen Species

Beta Oxidation is triggered when energy levels and glucose levels are low. But ultimately it is connected to a timing factor of waiting to finish the 12-18hours

Glycogenolysis is also triggered by low blood glucose levels in response to Glucagon. But it is more connected to energy levels during the 12-18 hour window

Glycogen Synthesis and Fatty Acid Synthesis is triggered by having excessive resources

435
Q

glycolysis irreversible steps

A

hexokinase
phosphofructokinase (stimulated by insulin and inhibited by glucagon)
pyruvate kinase

436
Q

anaerobic glycolysis

A

less energy efficient

converts pyruvate to lactate or ethanol (produce CO2 and ethanol) to replenish NAD+
Will not be converted to acetyl CoA or enter CAC

437
Q

aerobic glycolysis

A

pyruvate fed into ox phos, pyruvate oxidation, CAC, etc

438
Q

alkaline

A

basic

439
Q

High blood osmolality

A

solute concentrations in the blood are high (in other words, the blood is very concentrated). This would provoke the body to attempt to conserve water, not excrete it

440
Q

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

A

produces DNA from an RNA template

441
Q

Sertoli cells

A

nourish the developing sperm cells

activated by FSH

442
Q

Granulosa cells

A

follicular cells closely associated with the developing female oocyte (egg). They function to convert thecal androgens to estradiol prior to ovulation. After ovulation, they give rise to the corpus luteum and begin producing high levels of progesterone.

443
Q

Chromaffin cells

A

catecholamine-secreting neuroendocrine cells of the adrenal medulla.

444
Q

Leydig cells

A

adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testicles. In response to stimulation by LH, they produce testosterone and other androgens.

445
Q

The midpiece

A

In the sperm contains mitochondria, which generate ATP from fructose. This energy is used to propel the sperm through the female reproductive tract by utilizing a flagellum.

446
Q

head (sperm)

A

contains the genetic material and is also covered by an acrosome, which is necessary to penetrate the ovum.

447
Q

Enhancers

A

response elements outside of promotor region

can enhance transcription levels

a DNA region that is able to bind transcriptional activators in order to increase the expression of a particular gene.

448
Q

DNA methylation

A

add methyl groups to cytosine and adenine nucleotides

methylation linked with silencing

heterochromatin regions more heavily methylated

449
Q

Glycerophospholipids

A

one fatty acid chain of a triglyceride is substituted with a phosphate group

450
Q

tight junctions

A

prevent solutes from leaking into space between cells

found in epithelial cells, function as a physical link between them

451
Q

desmosomes

A

bind adjacent cells by anchoring to their cytoskeletons

formed by interactions between transmembrane proteins and their associated intermediate filaments

452
Q

hypotonic

A

concentration of solutes inside the cell higher than the surrounding solution

453
Q

Colligative properties

A

dependent on the concentration of dissolved particles, not chemical identity

454
Q

vant hoff factor

A

equal to number of particles obtained from the molecule when in solution

455
Q

endocytosis

A

cell membrane invaginates and engulfs materials to bring it into the cells

456
Q

pinocytosis

A

endocytosis of fluids and dissolved particles

457
Q

phagocytosis

A

ingestion of large solids like bacteria

458
Q

exocytosis

A

when secretory vesicles fuse with the membrane and materials are released from the inside of the cell to the extracellular environment

459
Q

nernst equation

A

determines membrane potential from intra and extracellular concentrations of various ions

460
Q

outer mitochondrial membrane permeability

A

highly permeable; has many large pores for ions and small proteins to pass through

461
Q

mitochondrial membrane

A

more restricted permeability; contains cristae (interfoldings that increase available surface area)

462
Q

mitochondrial matrix

A

where CAC produces high energy electron carriers that are used in the ETC

463
Q

Glucose Transporters

A

GLUT 2 and 4 are highly regulated

glut 2: low affinity transporter in hepatocytes and pancreatic cells; higher kM value (14 mM)

glut 4: responds to glucose concentration in peripheral blood; found in adipose tissue and muscles; kM value ~same as glucose (-5mM)

464
Q

Important glycolysis enzymes

A

Hexokinase and Glucokinase
First step in glucose metabolism is to transport it across the membrane and then phosphorylate it by kinase enzymes within the cell to prevent glucose from leaving via the transporter
Kinases attach a phosphate group from ATP to their substrates
Glucose enters the cell by facilitated diffusion or active transport
Kinases convert glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
GLUT transporters are specific for glucose and not for phosphorylated glucose, so the converted glucose cannot leak out of the cell.
Hexokinase: widely distributed and is inhibited by its product, glucose 6-phosphate
Glucokinase: found in liver cells and pancreatic beta-islet cells
In liver, glucokinase is induced by insulin
Phosphofructokinases (PFK-1 & PFK-2)
Phosphofructokinase-1: Rate limited enzyme and main control point of glycolysis
Reaction involves fructose 6-phosphate being phosphorylated to fructose 1,6-biphosphate by using ATP
PFK-1 is inhibited by ATP and citrate, and activated by AMP
Cell should turn off glycolysis when it has sufficient energy and turn on glycolysis when it needs energy (high AMP)
Citrate is an intermediate of the citric cycle, so high citrate levels imply that the cell is producing enough energy
Insulin stimulates and glucagon inhibits PFK-1 in hepatocytes indirectly through PFK-2 and fructose 2,6-biphosphate
Insulin activates PFK-2, which then converts a tiny amount of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 2,6-biphosphate.
F2,6-BP activates PFK-1
Glucagon inhibits PFK-2, which lowers the levels of F2,6-BP which then inhibits PFK-1.
PFK-2 is found mainly in the liver
When PFK-1 is activated, it allows for cells to override the inhibition caused by ATP so that glycolysis can continue – glycolysis continues even when the cell is energetically satisfied because the metabolites can be fed into the production of glycogen, fatty acids, and other storage molecules
Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate Dehydrogenase
Catalyzes an oxidation and addition of an inorganic phosphate (Pi) to its substrate: glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
Results in the production of a high energy intermediate: 1,3-biphosphoglycerate and also the reduction of NAD+ to NADH
NADH can then be oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain, which provides energy for ATP, if oxygen is present.
3-Phosphoglycerate Kinase
Transfers high-energy phosphate from 1,3-biophosphoglycerate to ADP
This results in the formation of ATP and 3-phosphoglycerate
This is an example of a substrate-level phosphorylation reaction: ADP is directly phosphorylated to ATP by using a high-energy intermediate
This is not dependent on oxygen, so it is the only means of ATP generation in anaerobic tissue
Pyruvate Kinase
Last enzyme in aerobic glycolysis
Catalyzes a substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP using the high-energy substrate phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
Pyruvate Kinase: activated by fructose 1,6-biphosphate from the PFK-1 reaction
Feed-Forward activation: products of an earlier reaction of glycolysis (F1,6-BP) stimulate, or prepare, a later reaction in glycolysis (activating pyruvate kinase)

465
Q

DHAP

A

glycolysis intermediate; used in hepatic and adipose tissue for triacylglycerol synthesis

466
Q

1-3, Biphosphoglycerate and Phosphoenolpyruvate

A

high energy intermediates used to generate ATP by substrate level phosphorylation

467
Q

TLC

A

nonpolar compounds have a higher rF

468
Q

Oxygen consumption in the electron transport chain

A

takes place in complex IV, where O2 gets reduced to become water. The electrons needed to reduce oxygen are provided by reduced cytochrome C (cyt-Cred), which is converted to its oxidized form (cyt-Cox) in the reaction catalyzed by complex IV.

469
Q

ATP synthesis

A

driven by protons crossing the inner mitochondrial membrane through ATP synthase. When protons are transported across the membrane by means that bypass ATP synthase, the energy released in the process cannot be used to produce ATP. This phenomenon is known as “decoupling” because proton transfer is no longer coupled to ATP synthesis.

470
Q

Long Term Potentiation (LTP) can occur by two mechanisms:

A

An increase in the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron and an increase in the number of receptors in the postsynaptic neuron.

Potentiation: increase in strength of nerve impulses along pathways which have been used previously

471
Q

Tonic receptors

A

sensory receptors that continue to produce action potentials throughout the duration of a stimulus.

limited to peripheral nervous system

472
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

refers to both increases in neuronal connections, known as potentiation, and decreases in neuronal responses, known as depression

473
Q

Synaptic vs Structural changes

A

Synaptic changes are associated with both immediate and more delayed potentiation or depression.

At the structural level, sprouting (increased connections between neurons), rerouting (new connections between neurons), and pruning (decreased connections between neurons) contribute to structural plasticity.

Structural plasticity does not happen quickly, so it is not responsible for immediate changes

474
Q

Ablation

A

(the removal or destruction of tissue) is a technique used to study the brain by measuring the deficits that result from ablation of specific brain areas.

475
Q

Phosphatases

A

remove phosphate groups from molecules by hydrolysis, yielding the dephosphorylated substrate and inorganic phosphate (Pi)

476
Q

Phosphorylases

A

break bonds by adding P across them.

process by which Glycogen is cleaved into glucose-1-phosphate

477
Q

Rate of enzymatic reactions directly proportional to

A

the amount of enzyme present

478
Q

Carbon in pyruvate precursors

A

In the mitochondria, pyruvate undergoes three decarboxylation reactions as it is converted to acetyl-CoA and enters the citric acid cycle.

The metabolic fate of carbon atoms in pyruvate precursors is most commonly to be released as CO2.

479
Q

Fermentation (higher and lower eukaroyotes)

A

Fermentation in higher eukaryotes converts pyruvate to lactate

bacteria and lower eukaryotes such as yeast it converts pyruvate to ethanol.

480
Q

open reading frame

A

begins with a start codon (AUG) ends with a stop codon (UGA, UAA, UAG)
(read 5’-3’)

481
Q

Reflex Arcs

A

Sensory receptors (specialized nerve endings) detect a stimulus (eg, chemical, pressure).

The stimulus activates the sensory neuron, which sends an afferent signal (ie, electrical impulse) toward spinal cord integration centers (regions that process sensory and CNS input).

Within the integration center, the signal may be passed directly to an effector neuron or to an interneuron that relays the signal to the effector neuron. For supraspinal reflexes, interneurons can also relay sensory signals to the brain and integrate brain signals to regulate reflex responses.

The activated effector neuron generates an efferent signal that travels from the spinal cord to the target tissue (eg, muscle), which carries out the appropriate response.

482
Q

Steps of western blotting

A

Proteins are extracted (eg, from tissue such as a spinal cord segment)

Gel electrophoresis is performed on the proteins to separate them by size. Larger proteins will migrate a shorter distance through the gel than smaller proteins.

Proteins are transferred from the gel to a protein-binding membrane (eg, nitrocellulose), where they are immobilized.

Protein-rich mixtures are used to block portions of the membrane to which proteins were not transferred. This prevents antibodies (ie, another type of protein) from binding nonspecifically to the membrane in steps 5 and 6.

The membrane is incubated with primary antibodies that bind specific proteins.

Secondary antibodies, which include fluorescent labels, are applied and bind primary antibodies.

Antibodies bound to the proteins are detected via fluorescence, allowing specific protein bands to be visualized. Thicker bands indicate that the protein is more highly expressed.

483
Q

Genetic Linkage

A

transfer of genes between species

Refers to closeness on the same chromosome

484
Q

Adaptive Immune Response

A

Upon binding foreign antigens, activated B lymphocytes divide and differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells and long-lived memory B cells that can more rapidly respond to foreign antigens in the event of future infections.

485
Q

Innate vs Adaptive

A

Both: bone marrow stem cells

Innate immune cells respond to many types of antigens and signals of stress
Adaptive respond to only a single type of antigen

Innate responds immediately
Adaptive responds in several days

Innate will generally respond the same to future infections
Adaptive will be more enhanced with each infection (memory B and T cells)

486
Q

spatial summation

A

occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitters together to fire an action potential

487
Q

temporal summation

A

occurs when a single presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitters to generate the action potential

488
Q

Glutamate

A

major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain

an amino acid neurotransmitter, which necessarily utilizes cell surface receptors that are integrated into the plasma membrane.

489
Q

GABA

A

the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS; it hyperpolarizes cells to reduce action potential firing.

alcohol is a GABA agonist– so the effects of GABA are associated with alcohol intoxication.

(Glycine is another inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the spinal cord and brainstem that can work in conjunction with GABA.)

490
Q

Tm (denaturation temp)

A

Tm tends to be larger for molecules that have a higher guanine-cytosine (GC) content, since guanine and cytosine are held together by three hydrogen bonds, whereas adenine and thymine are attached by only two.

491
Q

DNA Polymerases

A

read the parental nucleotide template in the 3’ → 5’ direction, adding nucleotides to the growing strand in the 5’→ 3’ (antiparallel) direction.

492
Q

Steroid hormomes

A

Cholesterol
glucocorticoids (cortisol and cortisone)
mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
testosterone, estrogen, progesterone

493
Q

Peptide Hormones

A

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
Prolactin
endorphins
growth hormone
ADH (aka Vasopressin)
oxytocin
calcitonin
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
glucagon
insulin
somatostatin
erythropoietin
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
thymosin

494
Q

Amino Acid Derived Hormones

A

T3 and T4, epinephrine and norepinephrine

495
Q

Opsonization

A

the process by which antibodies bind to and recognize antigens on the surface of a pathogen. The antibodies then attract macrophages to phagocytose the invader.

496
Q

High insulin

A

would mean that more glucose would be moved out of the bloodstream and into the cells.

Therefore, increased levels of insulin would most likely be correlated with low levels of blood glucose

497
Q

lipid peroxides

A

formed by free-radical attack on a lipid. Thus, we expect the location with the most lipid perioxidation to be someplace where oxygen is participating in a redox reaction. As it so happens, the electron transport chain, which is located on the inner mitochondrial membrane, has oxygen as its terminal electron acceptor.

Loation: inner mitochondrial membrane

498
Q

DNA Supercoiling

A

DNA is normally negatively supercoiled. This is naturally prevalent, because it prepares the molecule for processes that require separation of the DNA strands.

499
Q

Lymphatic System

A

it is a parallel circulatory system that drains interstitial fluid from the space surrounding the cells of the tissue. At any given moment, an adult human has about 10 liters of such fluid, which moves from the capillary beds into the extracellular space in the issues. In order to regulate fluid balance throughout the body, some fluid will always be recycled through the circulatory system.

Lymph capillaries collect this fluid and empty into lymph vessels, which converge into the right and left lymphatic ducts. These ducts in turn empty into the circulatory system at the intersection of the internal jugular veins and the right and left subclavian veins, respectively.

The lymphatic system also has a connection with the digestive system because it is used to transport lipids, in the form of chylomicrons, to the circulatory system.

500
Q

GPCR

A

membrane receptors. They have transmembrane domains and experience some form of conformational change after binding with a ligand. The ligands that bind and activate these receptors include light-sensitive compounds, molecules involved in odors, hormones, and neurotransmitters, and vary in size from small molecules to peptides to large proteins. When a GPCR undergoes a conformational change, it associates with and allosterically activates a G protein on the intracellular side of the membrane.

promote depolarization or hyperpolarization, depending on the specific GPCR. In addition, GPCRs generally rely on signal transduction via second messengers, so their contribution to depolarization would be less direct than opening ligand-gated ion channels for more immediate ion flow.

501
Q

G Proteins

A

When bound to GDP, G proteins are inactive, but they become activated by binding to GTP. An intracellular component of the G protein receptor facilitates the exchange of a molecule of GDP for GTP at the α-subunit of the G protein.

502
Q

phosphodiester linkage

A

The 3′-hydroxy group of the deoxyribose binds via phosphodiester linkage to the 5′-phosphate group of another deoxyribonucleotide monomer.

Nucleotides are linked to one another by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the adjacent nucleotide in a way that the 5′ end bears a phosphate, and the 3′ end a hydroxyl group.

503
Q

Reverse Transcriptase

A

Reverse transcriptase (an enzyme) is used to convert mRNA to double-stranded cDNA, which can then be amplified through PCR using primers specific to the mRNA transcript of interest.

504
Q

Retroviruses

A

Retroviruses are a class of enveloped viruses that have RNA genomes.
Upon entering a host cell, the envelope and capsid disassemble, releasing viral RNA and proteins into the cytoplasm of the host cell.
Viral reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into double-stranded (ds) DNA that is then transported into the nucleus.
A specialized enzyme called integrase facilitates the integration of the viral DNA into the host genome. Once integrated, viral DNA is replicated along with the host genome, and transcription and translation of viral DNA produce RNA and proteins that are assembled into new viruses.

505
Q

transposons

A

segments of DNA that move between different areas of the genome and can be classified as either DNA transposons or retrotransposons.

The retrotransposon is initially transcribed into mRNA, which is then transported into the cytoplasm and translated to produce reverse transcriptase and integrase. Reverse transcriptase produces dsDNA from the mRNA, and integrase facilitates the integration of the dsDNA into a new area of the genome.

506
Q

inspiration

A

inspiratory muscles contract (eg, the diaphragm moves downward) to increase the volume of the thoracic cavity.
- increased intrapulmonary volume and an inversely proportional decrease in intrapulmonary pressure.

  • Air pressure will drop below atmospheric, causing air flow high pressure in atmosphere into low pressure of lungs until intrapulmonary pressure = atm pressure
507
Q

expiration

A

inspiratory muscles relax (eg, the diaphragm moves upward) to decrease the volume of the thoracic cavity.
- The lungs recoil to fit smaller space, which leads to a decrease in intrapulmonary volume and inversely proportional increase in intrapulmonary pressure (until it is higher than atmospheric pressure).

  • Air flows down its pressure gradient - forced out of the higher-pressure environment in the lungs and into the lower-pressure environment of the atmosphere.
508
Q

secondary messengers

A

molecules that relay signals from receptors on the cell surface to target molecules in the cell, cytoplasm, or nucleus

509
Q

ganglion

A

a collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS ; the site where preganglionic nerves synapse with postganglionic nerves.

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic responses are transmitted along preganglionic fibers from the central nervous system and postganglionic fibers that synapse with the target tissue responsible for a response.

provide relay points and intermediary connections between neurological structures in the body, such as the PNS and CNS.

510
Q

Which neurotransmitter (acetylcholine/norepinephrine) is secreted from the pre and post synaptic neurons of the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways?

A

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine from their nerve terminals.

However, the neurotransmitter released at the target tissue by the postsynaptic neuron varies for sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways:
- acetylcholine typically released in parasympathetic pathways
- norepinephrine typically released in sympathetic pathways.

511
Q

synapses of sympathetic nervous system

A

either cholinergic (releasing acetylcholine (ACh)), or adrenergic (releasing norepinephrine (NE)).

Note that preganglionic neurons of the ANS release ACh. Postganglionic neurons of the PNS also release ACh, but postganglionic neurons of the SNS generally release NE instead.

512
Q

excitatory neurotransmitter

A

depolarize post synaptic neuron and make it more positive and more likely to transmit message

513
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

depolarize post synaptic neuron to make it more negative and less likely to fire a message

514
Q

somatic nervous system

A

mediates skeletal muscle movement.

515
Q

The following steps occur when a reflex arc receives and acts on sensory information

A

An environmental event is detected by sensory receptors (nerve endings that respond to specific stimuli (eg, chemical, light, pressure, vibration))

The activated sensory neuron sends afferent sensory signal (in the form of an electrical impulse) toward the CNS, (where the signal is transmitted to an interneuron or effector neuron)

Components of the CNS, interneurons in the brain and spinal cord act as integration centers that process and consolidate sensory and CNS input from multiple locations. Interneurons can relay sensory information to the brain and integrate signals into the reflex response. Interneurons can also transmit the signal directly to the effector neuron (and interneurons are not present in every reflex arc), so input from the brain is not always necessary for the completion of a reflex.

The effector neuron generates and sends an efferent signal that travels toward the target organ (typically, a muscle or gland). (Note: Efferent information exits the CNS.)

The effector (target) organ generates the desired response to the stimulus.

516
Q

Neural reflexes

A

include both somatic and autonomic reflexes. Somatic reflexes can be monosynaptic or polysynaptic whereas autonomic reflexes are always polysynaptic.

517
Q

alzheimers

A

characterized by the presence of plaques composed of beta amyloid proteins and neurofibrillary tangles composed of tau proteins.

518
Q

gray matter

A

composed of unmyelinated neuronal cell bodies and dendrites.

519
Q

white matter

A

composed of myelinated and unmyelinated axons that allow for long-distance communication between neurons

this is where afferent axons carry sensory information to the brain and efferent axons carry motor commands to the body.

520
Q

pathway between pre and post synaptic neurons

A

Axon, synapse, dendrite, soma

521
Q

electrical synapse

A

transfer information from one cell to another via passive ionic current flow through gap junctions.

522
Q

chemical synapse

A

use neurotransmitters to transfer information, which is a slower process than electrical synapse

523
Q

Innate Immune Cell types

A

Neutrophils, macrophages, natural killer cells

524
Q

adaptive (specific) immune cell types

A

both B cells and T cells (eg, cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells)

525
Q

Exocrine glands

A

also sweat/sudoriferous glands; are glands in which the product (eg, sweat) is secreted through a duct onto the skin or epithelial lining of a cavity inside the body.

Most exocrine glands are composed of cells lining the open space (lumen) of the duct, as a pathway for the product to travel to the body surface or cavity.

526
Q

Vasodilation

A

occurs when the smooth muscle surrounding the blood vessels relaxes.

527
Q

Sweating (endo/exothermic?)

A

an endothermic process that absorbs heat from body

528
Q

Subcutaneous layer/hypodermis function

A

acts as an insulator and a shock absorber

529
Q

clonal selection

A

the process whereby B or T cell clones responsive to an antigen are stimulated to replicate and greatly increase in number in contrast to nonresponsive B or T cells, which do not increase in number.

530
Q

T cells (or T lymphocytes)

A

bind foreign antigens displayed by other cells (ie, immune cells, infected cells). Helper T cells release cytokines that enhance immune responses whereas cytotoxic T cells promote the apoptotic death of infected cells.

531
Q

epidermis

A

has 5 strata; It is composed of epithelial tissue and is continuously sloughed off (superficial layer) and reproduced (deep layer).

Merkel cells, Langerhans cells, melanocytes, and keratinocytes are all cell types in the epidermis.

532
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells

A

originate in the bone marrow and differentiate into myeloid or lymphoid progenitor cells. Lymphoid progenitor cells go on to become T cells, B cells, or natural killer cells whereas myeloid progenitor cells differentiate into erythrocytes, megakaryocytes, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, or mast cells.

533
Q

Leukocytes originate in the

A

bone marrow

534
Q

Negative selection

A

B cells and T cells that mediate recognition and destruction of self-antigens are typically destroyed

535
Q

humoral immune response mediated by

A

antibody molecules that are secreted by plasma cells

536
Q

High GC content correlates with

A

more stabiility and higher melting point

537
Q

Glycosidic linkages

A

bind carbohydrates together

are cleaved via a hydrolysis reaction

538
Q

Endocrine/paracrine/autocrine

A

Endocrine signals are released into the blood in order to impact tissues scattered throughout the body.

Paracrine and autocrine chemical messengers act locally.

Paracrine chemical messengers act on cells near the cell that secretes the messenger

Autocrine chemical messengers act on the same cell that secretes the messenger.

539
Q

Can glycoproteins cross the membrane?

A

no- these are proteins with carb groups attached to the polypeptide chain that support the immunological response

540
Q

Exergonic

A

releases energy

Keq > 1

541
Q

Endergonic

A

requires energy

Keq < 1

542
Q

When are insulin and glucagon secreted and by what?

A

Insulin is secreted in response to high blood glucose levels by pancreatic beta cells.

Glucagon is secreted in response to low blood glucose levels from pancreatic alpha cells

543
Q

Enterocytes

A

the intestinal cells that produce Enzymes that digest disaccharides (including lactase)

544
Q

structure of a long bone

A

includes the epiphyses (rounded ends covered by articular cartilage), the diaphysis (shaft containing the medullary cavity filled with yellow bone marrow), and the metaphysis (where the diaphysis and epiphyses meet).

periosteum is a thin layer of connective tissue that covers and protects long bones but does not cover joint surfaces.

545
Q

Chondrocytes

A

Make up cellular component of cartilage

546
Q

Compact bone

A

organized into concentric rings of bone matrix called lamellae. The entire unit of concentrically arranged lamellae surrounding a central haversian canal is known as an osteon, or a haversian system. Within each osteon, lacunae (spaces containing osteocytes) connect to one another via microscopic channels called canaliculi, which allow osteocyte waste exchange and nutrient delivery.

547
Q

Cartilage

A

a firm but flexible connective tissue that lacks blood vessels and nerves. Chondrocytes (cartilage cells) secrete chondrin, which is the specialized extracellular matrix that makes up cartilage. The most common type of cartilage is hyaline cartilage, which lines the ends of articulating bones and plays a role in bone development.
Other types are elastic (flexible) and fibrous (limits movement)

548
Q

Sliding Filament Model

A

When muscle contraction occurs, the myosin and actin filaments interact. Specifically, myosin heads bind to the actin filaments and slide them toward the central point of the sarcomere. This interaction shortens the sarcomere’s total length; however, the length of each actin and myosin filament remains unchanged. Instead, it is the sliding of the two filament types along one another that causes the sarcomere to shorten.
(I band and H band shorten)

549
Q

How do osteocytes send signals?

A

osteocytes are surrounded by bone matrix and are located within spaces called lacunae in the Haversian system, they cannot travel to other cells during signaling.

Release signaling molecules responsible for stimulating other bone cells into canaliculi, the small canals that connect cells within the bone matrix. Signaling molecules released by osteocytes travel through these small canaliculi until they reach their target cells (ie, other bone cells).

550
Q

Long bone growth

A

chondrocytes (cartilage-producing cells) divide and produce collagen to which calcium phosphate attaches to form hardened bone. When chondrocytes in bone stop dividing, bone growth is complete.

551
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

A

a specialized endoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers that is responsible for tightly regulating intracellular calcium concentration by sequestering calcium ions during periods of relaxation and releasing them into the cytosol during periods of contraction (in response to action potentials).

552
Q

Calcium released from/ transported to SR

A

release of calcium from the SR promotes muscle fiber contraction whereas the transport of calcium into the SR promotes and maintains muscle fiber relaxation.

553
Q

Calcium released from/ transported to SR delete

A

release of calcium from the SR promotes muscle fiber contraction whereas the transport of calcium into the SR promotes and maintains muscle fiber relaxation.

554
Q

How does ACh cause a muscle contraction

A

The arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal of the presynaptic motor neuron triggers release of ACh from presynaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis. The ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft to bind receptors embedded within the membrane of the postsynaptic muscle fiber, eventually leading to muscle contraction.

555
Q

order of small intestine

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

556
Q

GI tract

A

Esophagus is the tube through which ingested food, becomes a compact food mass (ie, bolus), and moves from the mouth, through the cardiac (lower esophageal) sphincter, and into the stomach.

Stomach is the sac in which the food bolus is chemically (ie, via stomach cell secretions) and mechanically digested, creating a semiliquid substance (ie, chyme) that moves through the pyloric sphincter into the small intestine.

Small intestine is the long, narrow tube consisting of three subdivisions (duodenum, jejunum, ileum) in which digestion of macromolecules is completed and the resulting useful substances are absorbed. Digestion of lipids in the small intestine is aided by bile, which is a nonenzymatic solution produced by liver cells and stored in the gallbladder. In addition, the pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine along with bicarbonate, which assists in neutralizing the acidic chyme arriving from the stomach. Material unable to be digested passes to the large intestine through the ileocecal sphincter.

Large intestine is the wide tube consisting of three subdivisions (cecum, colon, rectum) in which water and electrolytes are absorbed from chyme to form solid feces.

557
Q

collecting duct

A

reabsorbs water back into the circulation.

When the body is hydrated, the collecting ducts are less permeable to water and urine is less concentrated.
When body is dehydrated, the collecting ducts are more permeable to water and urine is more concentrated.

ADH stimulates the insertion of aquaporins into collecting duct cell membranes. This insertion increases collecting duct permeability to water, and by increasing water reabsorption decreases the amount of water in the urine (ie, the urine is more concentrated).

558
Q

detrusor muscle

A

a layer of smooth muscle lining the bladder

559
Q

two sphincters involved in the urinary tract
Names?
Voluntary or involuntary?

A

the proximal sphincter muscle is known as the internal urethral sphincter (IUS). The IUS is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control by the autonomic nervous system.

The distal sphincter, or the external urethral sphincter (EUS), is composed of skeletal muscle and is under voluntary control by the somatic nervous system.

560
Q

Efferent Arterioles of Kidney

A

All materials not filtered by the glomerulus exit via the efferent arterioles.

561
Q

peptide hormone secreted by small intestine endocrine cells could have the following effects

A

Activation of receptors on exocrine cells of the pancreas. Causes the pancreas to secrete proteolytic digestive enzymes (eg, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen) into the duodenum of the small intestine

Stimulation of gallbladder contraction. This causes the gallbladder to release its stores of nonenzymatic bile, which is originally produced by the liver

Increased the production of small lipid micelles in the small intestine. Bile released by the gallbladder, which contains bile salts, bile pigments (eg, bilirubin), and cholesterol, participates in the digestion of fats in the small intestine via emulsification. Specifically, bile salts have both a hydrophilic region that can associate with water and a hydrophobic region that can associate with the surface of lipids. This allows bile salts to act as detergents and break down large lipid globules into smaller droplets called micelles

562
Q

enteric nervous system (ENS),

A

A specialized division of the nervous system that innervates and regulates the function of the gastrointestinal tract. Functions may be modulated by the autonomic nervous system.

563
Q

Protein Pathway (organelles)

A

proteins synthesized by ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum are transported to the Golgi apparatus. In the Golgi apparatus, proteins are modified and packaged into vesicles to be transported to the cell membrane, used in organelles such as lysosomes, or secreted out of the cell.

564
Q

large Intestine

A

large intestine includes
cecum (the absorption of large volumes of water and electrolytes, and the microbial digestion of soluble and insoluble carbohydrates before introduction to the ascending colon.)

colon (The colon functions to absorb electrolytes (eg, sodium, chloride) and additional water from the mass of undigested material)

rectum (responsible for storage of solid waste (feces) before it is eliminated from the body)

565
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Decreases concentration of glucose in the blood

566
Q

What is secreted and reabsorbed from the parts of the nephron?

A

Proximal tubule: Bicarbonate (HCO3− ions, which can regulate blood pH, are reabsorbed along with other solutes and nutrients. Hydrogen ions (H+) and waste products are secreted into the filtrate.

Loop of Henle: The descending limb extending into the salty medulla reabsorbs water (H2O) via osmosis.
The ascending limb, which transports filtrate out of the medulla and back to the renal cortex, reabsorbs salts and potassium ions.

Distal tubule: Salts, H2O, and HCO3− are reabsorbed while potassium and H+ ions are secreted.

Collecting duct: H2O and salts continue to be reabsorbed, while potassium ions are secreted. In addition, to regulate blood pH, the reabsorption and secretion of HCO3− and H+ are regulated.

567
Q

renin-angiotensin system (RAS)

A

a multiorgan molecular cascade activated when BP (or blood volume) falls. A drop in BP causes the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney to release renin, an enzyme that cleaves the plasma protein angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I. Angiotensin-converting enzyme then cleaves angiotensin I to form angiotensin II. Angiotensin II ultimately raises BP by inducing both the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex (increasing BP by increasing blood volume through water retention) and the constriction of arterioles (increasing BP without changing blood volume).

568
Q

ADH vs. Aldosterone - water resorption

A

ADH promotes water reabsorption by increasing the permeability of the distal tubule and collecting duct to water.

Aldosterone promotes resoprtion of Na+ and secretion of K+; increased reabsorption of Na+ increases osmolarity/solute concentration of renal interstitial fluid which promotes water resorption.

569
Q

Urine pathway

A

flows from the kidney to the bladder through the ureter. Once the bladder is full, urine exits the body via the urethra through the process of urination. Urination is controlled by the detrusor muscle (smooth muscle lining the bladder), the internal urethral sphincter, and the external urethral sphincter.

570
Q

Filtrate

A

fluid found in the tubules; pre urine/ will become urine

571
Q

secretion (nephron function)

A

when substances go from interstitium to filtrate

572
Q

reabsorption (nephron function)

A

when substances go from filtrate to interstitium

573
Q

Two types of active transport

A

Primary (direct) active transport uses the energy released by ATP hydrolysis (performed by a transmembrane ATPase).

Secondary (indirect) active transport is a coupled transport process that uses the energy released by the movement of one substance along its concentration gradient (passive transport) to move another substance against its concentration gradient. Essentially, the potential energy stored in the concentration gradient of one molecule is used for the transport of another molecule.

574
Q

Bile function + location

A

Bile is synthesized in the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and released into the duodenum to aid lipid digestion. Bile salts, a key component of bile, mechanically digest lipid globules by physically breaking them down into smaller droplets in a process known as emulsification. Subsequently, pancreatic lipase chemically digests emulsified lipids.

575
Q

pyloric sphincter

A

a muscular ring located at the junction of the stomach and the duodenum; this sphincter controls the flow of chyme, or partially digested food, from the stomach into the duodenum.

576
Q

The cells in the stomach secrete the following:

A

intrinsic factor (from parietal cells), which aids in the absorption of vitamin B12

pepsinogen (from chief cells), which cleaves polypeptides when activated by HCl

mucus (from mucous cells) and bicarbonate (from epithelial cells), which protect the stomach lining against autodigestion by gastric juice.

577
Q

peritoneum and peritoneal cavity

A

peritoneum comprises two membranes that line the abdomen: the parietal layer, which lines the abdominal wall, and the visceral layer, which covers the abdominal organs.

The peritoneal cavity is a potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum.

578
Q

What causes vasoconstriction?

A

cold temperatures
secretion of renin ( to increase bp )
loss of blood

579
Q

path of deoxygenated blood

A

Blood first enters arteries, become progressively smaller in diameter until they branch into arterioles.
Arterioles deliver blood to the capillaries (smallest blood vessels) of the lungs. Gas exchange occurs across these capillaries: deoxygenated blood in the capillaries expels CO2 to the alveolar spaces (air sacs), which will be exhaled from the body. The blood in turn receives O2 from the alveolar spaces (ie, becomes reoxygenated).
From the lung capillaries, freshly oxygenated blood enters the smallest veins (vessels that carry blood toward the heart), known as venules.
Venules become progressively larger veins (ie, pulmonary veins), which are low-pressure vessels that will ultimately deliver blood to the left atrium of the heart.

580
Q

Hemoglobin T vs. R state

A

Hemoglobin consists of four subunits, each of which can exist in either of two conformations: the T state (“tense,” low oxygen affinity; O2 not bound) or the R state (“relaxed,” high oxygen affinity; O2 bound).

581
Q

Bohr Effect

A

Accumulated H+ ions can bind to hemoglobin and reduce its affinity for oxygen

during exercise, will experience increase in H+ in the blood. The reduction in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen allows more O2 to be unloaded to the muscle cells. Therefore, the need for more oxygen in contracting muscles is met because the byproducts generated during exercise decrease hemoglobin-oxygen binding.

582
Q

What is the enzyme that allosterically regulates hemoglobin?

A

Bisphosphoglycerate mutase converts 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate into 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate, which allosterically regulates hemoglobin. It decreases oxygen affinity by stabilizing the deoxyhemoglobin conformation. Increasing concentrations of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate produce a right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and favor oxygen delivery to tissues.

583
Q

What allosterically decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen?

A

CO2 and H+ allosterically decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, so their removal will increase the affinity and result in less delivery of oxygen to tissues as hemoglobin fails to release it.

584
Q

What happens fo blood CO2 during hyperventilation?

A

The excessive exhalation depletes blood CO2. Carbon dioxide is in equilibrium with carbonic acid (H2CO3), which in turn is in equilibrium with bicarbonate (HCO3−) in the blood.

This equilibrium forms the basis for the bicarbonate buffering system, which helps control blood pH. As CO2 is removed, the equilibrium shifts to favor production of more CO2 via the consumption of carbonic acid and bicarbonate, which increases blood pH (fewer H+ ions).

585
Q

Hematocrit

A

a standard laboratory measurement of red blood cell volume as a percentage of total blood volume. It indicates the amount of intact red blood cells within a blood sample.

586
Q

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

a measure of the rate at which fluid is filtered into the Bowman capsule from the glomerulus.

GFR is proportional to the hydrostatic (blood) pressure within the glomerulus. As such, GFR can be expected to decrease if the afferent arterioles constrict (ie, because less blood enters the glomerulus) or the efferent arterioles dilate (ie, because more blood exits the glomerulus).

587
Q

Heart Rate Regulation

A

Heart rate is regulated by the activity of specialized clusters of self-depolarizing cells known as the SA and AV nodes. APs are initiated in the SA node and travel through the atria, stimulating atrial contraction. These APs then reach the AV node and, after a brief delay, are relayed to ventricular cells, stimulating ventricular contraction.

588
Q

Endothelial cells

A

make up the endothelium, or the interior lining of the heart and blood vessels, which are the components of the cardiovascular system

are in direct contact with blood and the surrounding matrix so these are the cells that play the most important role in gas exchange.

589
Q

Steps of Muscle Contraction

A

At rest, extended heads of the myosin filaments exist in an upright (high-energy) conformation bound to ADP and Pi, whereas actin filaments are bound to two regulatory proteins, troponin and tropomyosin. Troponin is a small protein complex associated with tropomyosin, an elongated protein wrapped around the actin filament that blocks the myosin binding sites while the sarcomere is at rest.

Depolarization of cardiac muscle cells triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and from the extracellular fluid into the cytosol. Calcium ions bind troponin, causing a conformational change to tropomyosin described by the sliding filament model.

This conformational change exposes the myosin binding sites on the actin filaments, allowing myosin heads to bind the actin filament, forming a cross-bridge. This promotes the release of ADP and Pi from myosin, which in turn changes to the low-energy conformation.

These changes cause a power stroke, which acts to drag the actin filament toward the center of the sarcomere.

Following the power stroke, a new ATP molecule binds myosin, leading to cross-bridge disassembly.

Hydrolysis of this ATP returns the myosin head to its high-energy conformation for the next contraction cycle.

590
Q

Gibbs free energy

A

A negative ΔG° indicates that products are favored, whereas a positive ΔG° indicates that reactants are favored.

591
Q

Molecular weight of an amino acid

A

110 Da

592
Q

prosthetic group

A

cofactors that are tightly bound

593
Q

NMR Spectroscopy

A

measures the frequency of hydrogen nuclei spinning in a magnetic field. This frequency, referred to as the chemical shift, is measured in ppm and describes the electron density surrounding a proton within a molecule.
When surrounded by high electron density, protons are said to be “shielded” from the magnetic field. However, electronegative atoms draw electron density from nearby protons, causing them to become deshielded.

Protons that are shielded appear to the right (upfield) of the NMR spectrum whereas deshielded protons appear to the left (downfield).

594
Q

Gluconeogenic precursors

A

lactate, pyruvate, and glycerol
and most amino acids

595
Q

Apoptosis (how is it induced?)

A

is induced when cytochrome C is allowed to leave the mitochondria and enter the cytosol, where it activates caspase. Caspase in turn activates several degradative pathways such as proteolysis.

596
Q

Fatty acid synthesis

A

an anabolic process that builds lipids in the cytosol. Anabolic processes generally require energy, reducing power, and sufficient precursor molecules– for FA synthesis: ATP, NADPH, and acetyl-CoA, respectively.

During fatty acid synthesis, NADPH is oxidized to NADP+ to reduce the carbonyl groups and subsequent carbon-carbon double bonds on each acetyl-CoA molecule added to the fatty acid chain. If fatty acid synthesis is inhibited, the conversion of NADPH to NADP+ will occur less frequently, and cytosolic NADPH will build up.

597
Q

Transamination reactions

A

generate α-keto acids from amino acids by transferring the −NH3+ group to α-ketoglutarate, which is converted to glutamate.

598
Q

What happens to pyruvate in the absence of oxygen?

A

In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is reduced to lactate to regenerate NAD+ during fermentation.

599
Q

Steps of CAC that create NADH

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Alpha- Ketoglutarate
Malate Dehydrogenase

600
Q

Step of CAC that create FADH2

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

601
Q

Step of CAC that creates GTP

A

Succinyl CoA Synthetase

602
Q

Malonyl-CoA

A

helps regulate fatty acid metabolism by inhibiting long-chain fatty acid transport into the mitochondria. Processes that decrease malonyl-CoA levels are likely to increase fatty acid transport to the mitochondria and, as a result, increase beta oxidation.

When it’s decreased, fatty acid transport is increased and so is beta oxidation

603
Q

What makes gluconeogenesis different from being glycolesis in reverse?

A

includes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate and the use of phosphatases such as G6Pase instead of kinases to remove phosphate groups

604
Q

pentose phosphate pathway

A

required for nucleotide and NADPH synthesis.

605
Q

_ is reduced to _ during glycolysis

A

NAD+ is reduced to NADH

606
Q

Lactate synthesis is coupled to

A

the synthesis of NAD+ from NADH

607
Q

Can amino acids be converted to glucose?

A

Amino acids (except for leucine and lysine) can be converted into glucose through gluconeogenesis.

608
Q

Glycogen phosphorylase and debranching enzymes

A

Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the release of glucose residues from linear glycogen segments

Debranching enzyme linearizes branched segments of glycogen for subsequent degradation by phosphorylase.

609
Q

How do electrons flow through ETC?

A

Electrons flow from cytochromes with low to high reduction potential

Because reduction potential indicates an oxidized molecule’s affinity for electrons, electrons are transferred from species with lower reduction potentials (ie, less affinity for electrons) to species with higher reduction potentials (ie, more affinity for electrons) throughout the chain.

610
Q

Polyubiquitin tags

A

target defective or unnecessary proteins for destruction by the proteasome.

611
Q

N-linked carbohydrate chains

A

added to certain asparagine residues of proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum.

612
Q

How are the α-keto derivatives of amino acids formed?

A

transamination, during which the amino group is transferred to α-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate and the α-keto acid

613
Q

The _ pumps protons out of the mitochondrial matrix, and _ lets them back in

A

electron transport chain

ATP synthase

614
Q

Describe the steady state for healthy mitochondria

A

proton concentration is higher outside than inside the mitochondrial matrix, producing an electrochemical potential across the membrane

615
Q

Substrates of oxidative decarboxylation events in the CAC

A

isocitrate and α-ketoglutarate as substrates

If these are inhibited, reaction will favor the reactants

616
Q

Complex 2 of ETC

A

a flavoprotein (an oxidoreductase that contains an FAD or FMN prosthetic group) that is also known as succinate dehydrogenase.
It is part of both the ETC and the citric acid cycle.

In Complex II, electrons are transferred from succinate to an FAD molecule that is covalently attached to the protein complex, producing fumarate and FADH2. The FADH2 then transfers its electrons to ubiquinone, forming ubiquinol and regenerating FAD.

617
Q

What is the role of a chaperone protein?

A

facilitates proper protein folding and inhibits the formation of nonfunctional protein aggregates

618
Q

Clathrin

A

functions in formation of vesicles for intracellar trafficking

619
Q

Will an intron and promoter be present in mRNA

A

no

620
Q

signal sequences

A

the mature RNA sequence for a protein that is secreted or that will locate to the cell membrane will contain the signal sequence. This portion of the mRNA is located in the 5′ region and will signal to the ribosome that translation needs to be continued in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

621
Q

Cellular respiration and ox/redox reactions

A

During glycolysis NAD+ is reduced to form NADH.

During the citric acid cycle, NAD+ is reduced to form NADH.

During the electron transport chain, NADH is oxidized to form NAD+.

Chemiosmosis is the only step of cellular respiration where NAD+ is neither reduced to form NADH, nor is NADH oxidized to form NAD+.

622
Q

What kind of compound has 1, 2, and 4 rings?

A

A single ring can be found in a monoterpene.

An indole has two fused rings.

A steroid is composed of a 6-6-6-5 fused ring assembly, which is a total of 4 fused rings.

623
Q

How would the following factors impact seizures? (excessive neuron firing)

A

An increase in the threshold would make it more challenging for a neuron to fire an action potential. This will reduce the frequency of downstream neuron depolarizations, resulting in relief of the symptoms.

An increase in the concentration of Na+ outside the cell will not help reduce the symptoms, because there will still be a flux of ions inside the cell when the firing starts, causing continuous depolarization.

Anion influx hyperpolarizes a neuron, reducing likelihood of action potential firing. Therefore, a decrease in axonal-membrane permeability to negative ions will not provide a relief as it will increase action potential firing.

A decrease in length of the depolarization stage will allow for a higher frequency of action potential firing. This would worsen the situation instead of improving it.

624
Q

The proximal convoluted tubule

A

the first tubule where the glomerular filtrate passes through. About 65% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the proximal collecting tubule.

In contrast, the distal tubule contains relatively dilute glomerular filtrate.

625
Q

collecting duct (what is it? what are the two parts? does resorption occur?)

A

the last portion of the tubules where reabsorption of water and salts can occur, which concentrates filtrate.

The glomerular filtrate is, slightly less concentrated in the cortical portion of the collecting duct than in the medullary portion.
The medullary portion of the collecting duct is the last portion of the tubules where reabsorption can occur. In the portion of the tubule that follows, there will be no more reabsorption. Thus, the medullary portion of the collecting duct contains the most concentrated glomerular filtrate that will correspond to the urine.

626
Q

Does free energy offer information about enzyme activity?

A

Free energy does not correlate with enzyme activity because it is NOT a measure of reaction rate/activity

627
Q

What restores and maintains the resting potential of the membrane?

A

Na+/K+ ATPase. This is achieved by moving three Na+ out of the cell for every two K+ ions that are brought into the cell (against their concentration gradient).

628
Q

What stimulates an action potential?

A

the release of a neurotransmitter that binds to ligand gated channels

629
Q

How will a mostly hydrophobic molecule pass through the membrane?

A

Simple diffusion

630
Q

Is the initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney passive or active? + 3 types of pressure that regulate filtration

A

Occurs passively due to a pressure difference;

three pressures that work together to regulate filtration in the glomerulus: glomerular capillary pressure, capsular hydrostatic pressure, and blood colloid osmotic pressure.

The glomerular capillary pressure will force filtrate from a capillary into Bowman’s capsule; the other two forces promote movement of the filtrate in the opposite direction.

631
Q

How do enzymes change rate of a reaction?

A

co localize substrates

alter the pH

alter substrate shape

632
Q

What happens during translation?

A

mRNA triplets are read by ribosomes, and tRNA molecules provide the amino acids.
Each amino acid is matched to a tRNA molecule carrying a specific anti-codon.
A specific amino acid will be added if it is recognized by its specific codon.

633
Q

What is the role of tRNA?

A

allows you to link the nucleotide sequence to an amino acid

contains an amino acid and an anti-codon which helps identify correct codon

has clover shape with three loops

connects to ribosome which has A site (binding), P site (peptide bond will pass through), E site (exit)

634
Q

How is cortisol release in the adrenal cortex regulated?

A

from negative feedback;

high levels of circulating glucose and other stressors activate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. CRH will stimulate the pituitary gland to release ACTH which will trigger cortisol release from the adrenal cortex.

The presence of high levels of circulating cortisol will inhibit CRH secretion (negative feedback) thus closing the loop.

635
Q

HPA axis

A

hypothalamus controls release of hormones from pituitary gland; from pituitary gland, hormones are released into the blood stream and travel to kidneys and influence secretion of hormones from adrenal glands

hypothalamus releases CRH which causes ACTH to be released, which then prompts release of cortisol– when cortisol is high, negative feedback causes the HPA to shut off (no more CRH secretion)

in addisons disease, there is low circulating cortisol, so the feedback loop will never shut off and crh will continue to release acth

636
Q

what do glucocorticoids do?

A

Suppress immune function and degrade proteins

High levels of circulating glucocorticoids will increase protein degradation in various tissues, could cause muscle weakness

637
Q

HOW does insulin promote glucose uptake?

A

decrease the cellular concentration of glucose. To compensate for the low cellular glucose concentration, glucose uptake is increased.

638
Q

What is the role of the endomembrane system?

A

endomembrane system is the portion of the cells that is in charge of modifying proteins that will be secreted.

639
Q

If a diabetic individual is using lipids and fats as a glucose source, how will their appetite be impacted?

A

their appetite may increase

may also experience sweet tasting urine due to excess glucose in the filtrate, weight loss, or fatigue

640
Q

punnet squares with 2 traits

A

do FOIL method on the genotypes then make a large square with 16 squares

641
Q

An RNA molecule has 1500 bases. What is the maximum number of amino acids it can encode?

A

500; Each amino acid is coded by a triplet of nucleobases. Thus, ​1500/ 3 = 500​ amino acids

bases/ 3 = aas

aas x 3 = bases

642
Q

Catecholamines and energy metabolism

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are released by the adrenal medulla and modulate the metabolism of glycogen, the storage form of glucose.

  • Both promote glycogenolysis (glycogen to glucose). By inhibiting the enzymes that mediate glycogen synthesis, norepinephrine and epinephrine also inhibit glycogenesis (formation of glycogen from glucose).
  • inhibit energy storage
643
Q

Glucocorticoids and energy metabolism

A

Glucocorticoids (eg, cortisol) released by the adrenal cortex act on the liver to stimulate the synthesis of glucose from other molecules (ie, gluconeogenesis) and the breakdown of fats into fatty acids (ie, lipolysis). Glucose and free fatty acids are forms of cellular energy that can be readily utilized.

  • promote energy utilization
644
Q

Where does synthesis of lipids and steroid hormones take place?

A

smooth ER

645
Q

What does ADH do when blood volume is low?

A

ADH causes the insertion of aquaporins (water channels) in the collecting duct, which increases water permeability and reabsorption, and ultimately increases blood volume and blood pressure.

646
Q

What does ADH do when blood volume is high?

A

ADH concentration in the blood is inversely related to blood volume, all other factors being equal. This relationship is consistent with the role of ADH to stimulate water retention and means that ADH release should be suppressed during blood volume expansion to allow more water excretion in urine. Therefore, blood ADH concentration would be expected to be significantly lower when blood volume is high

647
Q

When ADH is active, will more or less urine be produced?

A

Less

ADH is secreted in response to reductions in blood volume or osmolarity. This secretion causes increased water reabsorption in the collecting duct, therefore producing less urineexocrine glands secrete substances into a ductal system to an epithelial surface, endocrine glands secrete products directly into the bloodstream

648
Q

Endocrine vs. exocrine

A

exocrine glands secrete substances into a ductal system to an epithelial surface, endocrine glands secrete products directly into the bloodstream

649
Q

What is likely to be secreted with low blood glucose?

A

glucagon and epinephrine (stimulates glucagon release)

650
Q

What happens to glycogen when glucose levels are high?

A

It is synthesized in the liver, muscle

triglyceride synthesis (via glucose transport into adipocytes), and protein synthesis (via entry of plasma amino acids into tissues) will also occur when insulin is released

651
Q

What happens to glycogen when glucose levels are low?

A

Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by promoting production of gluconeogenic substrates and by stimulating glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and hepatic gluconeogenesis (convert glycogen back into glucose)

652
Q

How does glucagon act on target cells?

A

by binding its stimulatory G protein–coupled receptor on the cell membrane and inducing the adenylate cyclase/cAMP second messenger cascade.

In the G protein–regulated cAMP signaling pathway, a ligand binds the transmembrane G protein–coupled receptor and activates the GDP-bound alpha subunit of the G protein by replacing GDP with GTP. The activated G alpha subunit activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase, which catalyzes the conversion of ATP into cAMP. Elevated cAMP leads to the activation of protein kinase A and subsequent signaling effects.

653
Q

How is leptin secreted?

A

leptin is released by white adipocytes to trigger appetite suppression via the hypothalamus.

654
Q

How is ghrelin secreted?

A

released by stomach gastric cells to trigger hunger and food-seeking behavior via the hypothalamus.

655
Q

The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis controls the secretion of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland through endocrine signaling as follows:

A

In response to low thyroid hormone levels or a decrease in body temperature, the hypothalamus secretes thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH).

TRH acts on the anterior pituitary, which causes the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

TSH binds to TSH receptors on cells of the thyroid gland, stimulating these cells to release thyroid hormones.

Upon stimulation by TSH, thyroid gland cells secrete two types of thyroid hormones: triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). When released, T3 and T4 affect nearly every cell in the body by increasing cellular metabolism. These hormones also function in a negative feedback loop by inhibiting the secretion of TRH and TSH.

656
Q

electroencephalography (EEG)

A

show brain activity in varying psychological states (alert vs. drowsy etc.)

place electrodes on the scalp then get their electric potential

657
Q

Thyroid hormones (how are they released? how do they affect the body?)

A

Thyroid hormones are hormones released by the thyroid gland when it is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone. Thyroid hormones affect the body by increasing cellular metabolism.

657
Q

Thyroid hormones (how are they released? how do they affect the body?) delete

A

Thyroid hormones are hormones released by the thyroid gland when it is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone. Thyroid hormones affect the body by increasing cellular metabolism.

657
Q

Thyroid hormones (how are they released? how do they affect the body?)delete

A

Thyroid hormones are hormones released by the thyroid gland when it is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone. Thyroid hormones affect the body by increasing cellular metabolism.

658
Q

What molecule would you use as a probe to isolate mRNA?

A

A DNA molecule consisting of thymine repeats– thymine could pair with adenine of poly A tail which is unique to mRNA

659
Q

Where are ribosomes transcribe? Where are ribosomal proteins produced?

A

In eukaryotic cells, the nucleolus is within the nucleus and is the primary site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcription by RNA polymerase I.

Ribosomal proteins are synthesized in the cytoplasm from mRNA and transported into the nucleolus, where they combine with the newly transcribed rRNA to form precursors to the 40S and 60S subunits. These subunits are then shuttled out of the nucleus via nuclear pores and fully mature in the cytoplasm.

660
Q

Which amino acids are histones rich in? Why?

A

Histone proteins are rich in positively charged arginine and lysine, which facilitate binding to negatively charged DNA.

661
Q

What are centromeres and telomeres composed of?

A

heterochromatin, a transcriptionally inactive and tightly condensed complex of DNA wrapped around histones.

Centromeres join two sister chromatids and are essential for proper chromosome division during mitosis. Telomeres are regions at the chromosome ends that are repeatedly truncated each time a cell divides.

662
Q

What is plasma composed of?

A

water, electrolytes, gases, hormones, nutrients, metabolic waste, and proteins (eg, albumin).

663
Q

How to get the DNA coding strand when given RNA?

A

Just change the Us to Ts– this should be an identical strand otherwise

664
Q

Where is fatty acid oxidation and activation

A

mitochondria

665
Q

What process is DNA polymerase involved in?

A

Replication

666
Q

How to read a northern blot

A

band intensity denotes quantity of mRNA expression and band location denotes size (ie, smaller molecules appear lower than larger ones).

667
Q

Isoelectric point and positive charge

A

The isoelectric point (pI) of a protein is the pH at which the protein has a net charge of zero. The more positively charged the protein is at physiological pH, the higher its pI.

668
Q

What will make a nucleic acid more stable?

A

RNA structures such as hairpin loops are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between base pairs. G-C base pairs form more hydrogen bonds than A-U base pairs. Therefore, structures with more total base pairs and more G-C base pairs are more stable.

669
Q

Male Reproductive system

A

Testes: reproductive glands that produce sperm during spermatogenesis.

Epididymis: a long, tightly coiled tube on the posterior of each testis; immobile sperm produced by the testes become mature and motile within this tube. Mature sperm are stored in the epididymis until release

Ductus (vas) deferens: a long, muscular tube that transfers mature sperm to the urethra

Seminal glands: accessory glands that produce the largest portion of seminal fluid

Prostate: a gland that produces prostatic fluid containing enzymes necessary to prevent the coagulation of sperm in the vagina.

Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands: glands that secrete thick, alkaline mucus to lubricate the tip of the penis. The alkalinity of the mucus neutralizes acids in the urine to protect the sperm from the acidic environment of the urethra.

Penis: an exterior organ that functions in sexual intercourse by which ejaculation of semen (mixture of sperm and seminal fluid) occurs.

670
Q

Cell potency during development

A

Totipotent stem cells are the least specialized cells and can give rise to both placental and fetal cells.

Pluripotent stem cells can give rise to only fetal cells (ie, all cell lineages from the three germ layers).

Multipotent cells are able to differentiate only into the specialized cells of certain tissues; these cells are also found in adults.

671
Q

Morphogens

A

signaling molecules whose CONCENTRATIONS influence cell differentiation; alter gene expression in competent cells

672
Q

Inbreeding vs. outbreeding

A

Inbreeding results in decreased heterozygosity (genetic diversity), reduced fecundity, and reduced fitness.

Species that mate with nonrelatives (outbreed) increase their fitness because the introduction of new genetic material results in increased heterozygosity.

673
Q

Adaptive radiation

A

the process of diversifying characteristics (eg, claw and teeth size) to better fill an ecological niche.

Adaptive radiation can eventually lead to speciation if the subgroup continues to diverge and loses the ability to interbreed with individuals from the original species.

674
Q

Disruptive selection

A

results in the selection of 2 extreme phenotypes that differ from the average. In disruptive selection, the average phenotype is selected against while 2 extreme phenotypes are selected for.

675
Q

stabilizing selection

A

phenotypes are narrowed toward an average, homogeneous phenotype by selecting against extreme phenotypes; as a consequence, diversity is decreased within the population.

676
Q

HCG

A

pregnancy hormone; maintains corpus luteum and secretes progesterone

677
Q

glycerophospholipid composition

A

a glycerol backbone linked to a phosphate group and two fatty acids

678
Q

Anaerobic vs. aerobic glycolysis.. what is formed?

A

Glycolysis breaks down glucose into pyruvate in a series of reactions that generate ATP and reduce NAD+ to NADH. NAD+ must be regenerated for glycolysis to continue, and this process can occur either in the mitochondria (electron transport chain) or in the cytosol (fermentation).

Red blood cells lack mitochondria, and can regenerate NAD+ only by fermentation. Fermentation occurs when lactate dehydrogenase catalyzes the reduction of pyruvate to lactate. The required electrons are provided by the oxidation of NADH to form NAD+.

679
Q

Is the Km value reflected by the x or y axis?

A

it is the point where the substrate is at 1/2 Vmax; the x-axis value here is equal to the Km value

680
Q

Catalytic efficiency and Catalytic turnover

A

Catalytic efficiency is the ratio of kcat to the Michaelis constant Km. Both are intrinsic properties of the enzyme and are not altered by a change in enzyme concentration.

Catalytic turnover kcat is an intrinsic property of the enzyme and is not altered by a change in enzyme concentration.

681
Q

Can tertiary alcohols be oxidized?

A

No, the tertiary carbon does not have any C-H bonds to lose

682
Q

What happens when an oxidizing agent acts on a primary alcohol?

A

It becomes a carboxylic acid

683
Q

What happens when an oxidizing agent acts on a secondary alcohol?

A

It becomes a ketone

684
Q

Delete

A
685
Q

Genetic linkage

A

the tendency of alleles in close proximity to remain on the same chromosome and be inherited together by offspring. This tendency occurs because of fewer crossover events between these loci during meiosis, resulting in a greater number of haploid gametes with nonrecombinant genotypes.

686
Q

Mutagens

A

agents that promote genetic mutations or increase their frequency; can decrease molecules required for viral replication

687
Q

Can males be carriers of X linked recessive genes?

A

No, since they are XY, if they have it, they will express it

688
Q

What are the irreversible steps of glycolysis?

A

PEP to pyruvate w/ pyruvate kinase

F6P to F1,6BP w/ PFK-1

689
Q

Four Complexes of the ETC

A

Complex I receives a pair of electrons from NADH. The electrons are passed through a series of intermediate redox centers within the complex before reducing ubiquinone to ubiquinol.

Complex II receives a pair of electrons from FADH2. Like Complex I, the electrons ultimately reduce ubiquinone to ubiquinol.

Complex III receives electrons from the ubiquinol produced by either Complex I or Complex II and ultimately transfers them to cytochrome c (cyt c). For every pair of electrons received, two cyt c are reduced.

Complex IV receives electrons from cyt c and transfers them to molecular oxygen (O2). Four electrons are needed to fully reduce a molecule of oxygen, so the stoichiometry per reduced cofactor (ie, NADH or FADH2) is two electrons reduce half a molecule of O2, producing one molecule of H2O.

690
Q

Four Complexes of the ETC delete

A

Complex I receives a pair of electrons from NADH. The electrons are passed through a series of intermediate redox centers within the complex before reducing ubiquinone to ubiquinol.

Complex II receives a pair of electrons from FADH2. Like Complex I, the electrons ultimately reduce ubiquinone to ubiquinol.

Complex III receives electrons from the ubiquinol produced by either Complex I or Complex II and ultimately transfers them to cytochrome c (cyt c). For every pair of electrons received, two cyt c are reduced.

Complex IV receives electrons from cyt c and transfers them to molecular oxygen (O2). Four electrons are needed to fully reduce a molecule of oxygen, so the stoichiometry per reduced cofactor (ie, NADH or FADH2) is two electrons reduce half a molecule of O2, producing one molecule of H2O.

691
Q

How does the PPP produce R5P?

A

The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) can produce ribose 5-phosphate by decarboxylation of glucose 6-phosphate (oxidative phase)

or by rearranging the carbon atoms in fructose 6-phosphate (F6P) and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (nonoxidative phase). F6P can be converted to all these intermediates by the enzymes of glycolysis and the PPP.

692
Q

How is glycogenolysis induced?

A

epinephrine binds to G protein–coupled receptors, which activates glycogen phosphorylase.

G protein–coupled receptors activate adenylate cyclase + convert ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP) in the cytosol. cAMP then allosterically activates protein kinase A, initiating a phosphorylation cascade that activates glycogen phosphorylase, the first enzyme in glycogenolysis.

693
Q

How is glycogen degraded?

A

Glycogen is degraded by phosphorolysis, or the addition of phosphate to break a bond, to produce glucose 1-phosphate (G1P). G1P is subsequently transformed into glucose 6-phosphate for use in glycolysis or the pentose phosphate pathway.

694
Q

When an amino acid is deaminated to generate ATP, what happens to the nitrogen?

A

alpha- ketoglutarate is a nitrogen acceptor; it is disposed of in the urea cycle (in liver)

glutamate however is a nitrogen donor

695
Q

Can fatty acids make ATP?

A

yes, but beta oxidation must occur first– lose acetyl coa and form reduced cofactors

696
Q

is the formation of acetyl coa from pyruvate reversible?

A

no, it is irreversible

697
Q

How to get energy from triglycerides

A

hydrolyze ester linkages to form free fatty acids to then be put through beta oxidation

in beta oxidation, will create acetyl coa