Chem/Phys Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

If a number has a decimal, how many significant figures are there?
Ex. 34,600. and 01.10

A

All the numbers (besides leading zeroes) are significant
34,600. has 5
01.10 has 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When dividing numbers with decimals, how do you round to estimate?

A

same direction- makes answer closest to actual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Simplify (a+b)^2

A

a^2+2ab+b^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Simplify log(a^3)-log(a)

A

log(a^3)-log(a)
log a^3/a
log a^2 or 2loga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Estimate log 7,426,135,420

A

log 7,426,135,420
log 7.4 x 10^9
9+0.74
about 9.74
**logs are just like opposite of exponents, so get rid of 10s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a common way that inverse trigonomic functions are used?

A

calculate the direction of a resultant vector in vector addition and subtraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when multiplying numbers, how do you determine sig figs?

A

the answer has the least number of sig figs based on numbers being multiplied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when adding numbers, how do you determine sig figs?

A

smallest number of decimal places based on numbers being added

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the relationship between ln and log?

A

logx=lnx/2.303
2.303 is a constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are units of concentration?

A

Concentration=Molarity(M)=mol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the formula for calculating between Fahrenheit and Celsius?

A

F=9/5C+32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you calculate the equilibrium partial pressure (Kp)?

A

The molar ratio of products to reactants when equilibrium is achieved. ***Also, each reactant must be raised to the power of it’s stoichiometric coefficient in the equilibrium expression

ie
if there are 2 mols of reactant Kp= (product)/reactant^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does IR spectroscopy work and what does it detect

A

IR radiation causes bond stretching and bending vibrations at different frequencies, allowing for functional group identification.

Different functional groups absorb different amounts of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

On an IR spectrum, what are the noticeable characteristics of carboxylic acids

A

Broad O-H stretch (3300-2400)
Strong C=O stretch (1710)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what factors does the reactivity of carboxylic acid derivatives with a nucleophile depend on

A

inductive effects, steric effects, and leaving group stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is the net reaction the simplified or total equation?

A

total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What effect do dimers have on melting points?

A

increase melting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the IUPAC name of this compound

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are two effects that cause reactions to favor one direction over the reverse reaction?

A

Electronic effects: such as polarity, resonance, and conjugation. tend to go in the direction of more electrophilic ->less electrophilic
steric effects: larger groups tend to decrease the rate of rxn (mostly stay in directions smaller->larger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Does this work? If not, why?

A

No, because the condensation reaction between a carboxylic acid and amine is not spontaneous and typically requires additional earlier steps to activate the carboxylic acid of nucleophilic attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of reaction is addition of LiAlH4 and what does it do to carboxylic acids?

A

strong reducing agent; carboxylic acids undergo a double hydride reduction to a primary alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does hydrogen bonding make something more or less polar?

A

MORE- carboxylic acids more polar than aldehydes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In thin-layer -chromatography, which substances will have higher Rfs?

A

less-polar substances have higher Rfs because polar ones interact more strongly with the stationary phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When is it best to use fractional distillation instead of simple distillation?

A

When separating compounds with a boiling point difference of less than 25 C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cohort studies

A

look at a group divided by risk factors and follow over time to see the outcome

ie
100 smokers and 100 non-smokers followed for 20 years to see If they delevop cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cross-sectional studies

A

look at a group at a specific time and see if they have an outcome

ie look at 100 smokers and 100 non-smokers and see which ones at that moment have cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

case-control studies

A

look at an outcome and trace back to see what risk factors

ie look at 100 people with lung cancer and 100 people without and see which of them smoked before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which Hill’s criteria is NECESSARY for suggesting any causality? Is it enough?

A

Temporality: the independent variable (exposure) MUST occur before the dependent variable (outcome). Still not enough, more criteria strengthens causality, but cannot be definitively proven in observational studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between bias and confounding errors in a study?

A

Bias is an issue during the data collection phase, and confounding variables happen during data analysis when an association is drawn between two variables when in fact a confounding one cause them

ie. believe redheads have higher pain tolerance, but really it’s a gene mutation that causes both of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between bias and confounding errors in a study?

A

Bias is an issue during the data collection phase, and confounding variables happen during data analysis when an association is drawn between two variables when in fact a confounding one cause them

ie. believing redheads have higher pain tolerance, but really it’s a gene mutation that causes both of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the difference between internal and external validity

A

internal validity: the tendency of the same experiment to produce the same result when repeated
external validity: ability to apply it to the larger population aka generalizability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Enzymes _____ activation energy

A

lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Enzymes ____ the overall delta G

A

do not affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do oxidoreductases do?
What are three enzyme namings to look out for?

A

catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions (often with an electron-carrying cofactor such as NAD+ and NADP+)

names:
dehydrogenase
reductase
oxidase (normally oxygen is final acceptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are transferases? What is a subcategory of this group and what do they do?

A

Catalyze the movement of one functional group to another

Subcategory: kinases that catalyze the transfer of a phosphate group (normally from ATP) to another molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do hydrolases do? How are lyases different?

A

Catalyze the breaking of a compound into two molecules with the addition of water. Lyases break a single molecule into two parts WITHOUT using water (lyases can also catalyze two substrates into one product)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do isomerases do?

A

catalyze the rearrangement of bonds within a molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do ligases do? How do they normally differentiate from lyases?

A

Ligases catalyze addition or synthesis rxns between large similar molecules. Lyases generally are with smaller molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Prosthetic group definition

A

Tightly bound cofactor or coenzyme necessary for enzyme function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Enzymes with their cofactors are called_____ while ones without their cofactors are called____

A

holoenzymes (WHOLE)
apoenzymes (without)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how do cofactors normally differ from coenzymes

A

cofactors tend to be inorganic (minerals) and coenzyme tend to be small organic compounds (vitamins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How will increasing [S] and [E] affect enzyme activity in terms of vmax?

A

[S] will increase reaction kinetics up until Vmax is reached at which case adding more does not increase reaction speed
[E] increases will always increase vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Km?

A

Km is a measure of an enzyme’s affinity for its substrate or [S] at which an enzyme is functioning at half of its maximal velocity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

As Km increases…

A

An enzymes affinity for its substrate decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the x-intercept on the line-weaver burke plot?

A

x-intercept: -1/km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is y-intercept on line-weaver burke plot

A

y-intercept: 1/vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If Hill’s coefficient is greater than 1 there is _____

A

positive cooperativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If Hill’s coefficient < 1

A

negative cooperativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What effect does temp have on enzymes

A

Increase, until above body temperature, than decrease and denature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What effect does salinity changes have on enzyme function

A

changes in salinity disrupt bonds in an enzyme disrupting tertiary and quaternary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What temperature (C F and K) do enzymes in the body perform best at?

A

37C=98.6 F=310K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ideal pH for most enzymes?
gastric enzymes?
pancreatic enzymes?

A

Ideal pH for most enzymes: 7.4
Ideal pH for gastric enzymes: ~2
Ideal pH for pancreatic enzymes: ~8.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Compare and contrast competitive inhibition, noncompetitive inhibition, mixed inhibition, and uncompetitive inhibition

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In a neutral solution, most amino acids exist as _______ and AAs with uncharged R-groups have an overall ______ charge

A

zwitterions; 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What force stabilizes the alpha-helices helix?

A

hydrogen bonds between a carbonyl oxygen and amide hydrogen 4 down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what two factors denature proteins

A

solutes and heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A particular alpha-helix is known to cross the cell membrane. What amino acid is most likely to be found in the transmembrane portion of the helix?
a. phenylalanine
b.glutamate
c.lysine
d. glutamic acid

A

a. phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Length SI units

A

meters (m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

mass SI unit

A

kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

time SI unit

A

seconds (s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

current SI unit

A

ampere (coulomb/second) A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

amount of substance SI unit

A

mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

temperature SI unit

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

luminous intensity SI unit

A

candela (cd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

derived units for Newton from SI

A

(kg*m)/s^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

derived units joule from SI

A

(kg*m^2)/(s^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

derived units for watt from SI

A

(kg*m^2)/(s^3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When calculating the sum of A + B vectors, how will the answer change if you do it B + A

A

It will not! vector addition is commutative function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When calculating the subtraction of A - B vectors, how will the answer change if you do it B - A

A

Answer will have the same magnitude but be in the opposite direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How is a scalar calculated from two vectors?

A

Dot product!
IAI IBI cos theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How is a vector calculated from two vectors?

A

cross product
IAI IBI sin theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Formula for gravitational force between two objects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Friction ______the movement of an object

A

opposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

which is always larger- the coefficient of kinetic friction or the coefficient of static friction?

A

coefficient of static friction

**objects “stick” until they start to move and then slide more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How do you find weight, given mass?

A

Fg (weight of an object)= m*g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When no net force is acting on an object
velocity:
acceleration:

A

no acceleration and constant velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Newton’s first law

A

a body in constant velocity will stay that way unless acted on by an outside force

aka law of inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Newton’s second law

A

an object will accelerate when a nonzero force acts on it
F=ma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Newton’s third law

A

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

FAB=-FAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the only force acting in both free fall and projectile motion

A

gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

At what initial angle is the maximum horizontal displacement in a projectile possible?

A

At a 45 degree angle, this is when both sine and cosine are maximized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

for an elevator to accelerate upward the tension on the elevator cable must be ______ than the weight of the elevator

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what are the SI units for power

A

Watts or kg * m^2/s^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

At what point after jumping horizontally out of a window is the angle between firefighters’ acceleration and velocity vectors greatest?

A

The instant the firefighter jumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

If a block is at rest on an inclined plane, what is the static force equal to? What is the equation for this?

A

The parallel component of gravity:

mg*sin(theta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

N are the SI base unit for force. True or false?

A

False, Newtons are the derived unit, but kg*m/s^2 is SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In an electrochemical cell, electrons always flow from the _____ to the _______

A

anode to the cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which halide makes a better leaving group: Fluoride or bromide?

A

Bromide-since it is larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which carbons do SN2 reactions normally occur on?

A

The least substituted
Attached to the least number of carbons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the general order of priority in naming of functional groups?

A

-Double-bonded Os and an O then N
-double O and H (aldehyde)
-Double O
-Alcohol
-Amine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Lewis bases are electron pair _____

A

donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Lewis acids are electron pair______

A

acceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Both Arrhenius and Bronsted-lowry acids act as

A

H+ donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How is a coordinate covalent bond formed?

A

By overlapping electron orbitals of an electron-rich atom and an electron-dificient atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How many elements are attached to the central one in an octahedral?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Dipole-dipole interactions occur between

A

the partial charges of two permanent dipoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Rank the strengths of noncovalent intteractions:
dipole-induced dipole
dipole-dipole (c=o)
ion-dipole
dipole-dipole (H with N,O,F)

A

dipole-induced dipole
dipole-dipole (c=o)
dipole-dipole (H with N,O,F)
ion-dipole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is an Imine group?

A

C=N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is decarboxylation?

A

The removal of a carboxyl group from a compound; carboxyl group is converted into CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is lactonization

A

the condensation rxn between an alcohol and carboxylic acid that forms a cycic ester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Does stereochemistry change in hydrolysis products?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the best way to separate a racemic mixture?

A

add a resolving agent to change their physical properties by creating diastereomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the differences between E/Z isomers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

how do you calculate the median when even number of data points?

A

Take the two middle numbers and average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

mode

A

the number that occurs the most often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

When is mean not a good indicator of central tendency

A

when there are a good number of outliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does negative skew look like? Mean compared to the median and mode

A

tail to the left! Mean lower than median
mean«median«mode
mean is most effected by skew!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does positive skew look like? Mean compared to median and mode

A

tail to the right! mean higher than median
mean»median»mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

SI units for kinetic energy
Name and units

A

Joule (kg*m^2)/s^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

kinetic energy equation

A

k=1/2mv^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

gravitational potential energy formula

A

U=mgh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Total mechanical energy equals

A

gravitational potential energy+kinetic energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are three nonconservative forces in physics

A

friction
air resistance
viscous drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

work is defined as

A

the process by which energy is transferred from one system to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Given force, displacement, and angle between the force and displacement vector, how do you find work?

A

W= Fdcos theta
cos theta because work is SCALAR, so dot product!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

if V is constant while P changes what work is done? What is this process called?

A

W=0
isovolumetric process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

if P is constant while V changes what work is done? What is this process called?

A

W=P*change is V
isobaric process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Power and work relationship

A

P=W/t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Joules are the units for which two things

A

Work and Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How do you calculate the efficiency of a pulley system? (formula)

A

Efficiency=Win/Wout=(load)(load distance)/(effort)(effort distance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

As confidence level increases, a confidence interval

A

becomes wider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

In uniform circular motion is there work? Why?

A

No work is done; the displacement vector and force vector are always perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

If two people of varying masses (50kg and 80kg) jump from the same height onto a trampoline, who will bounce back higher?

A

they should both have the same height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

ppm=

A

(mass of solute/mass of soln)*10^6

grams/grams *10^6= ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Common-ion effect

A

if two dissolved compounds have an ion in commmon, the equilibrium will shift towards the left (undissolved state)
solubility will decrease

Same ion= bad solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

How to find Ksp

A

Ksp=[X]^b[Y]^c of ONLY PRODUCTS
the equilibrium position of solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the 5 levels of hybridization? Name the one in each category with 0 lone pairs

A

sp, linear
sp^2, trigonal planar
sp^3, tetrahedral
dsp^3, trogonal bipyramidal
d^2sp^3, octahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

equilibrium of a reaction occurs when…

A

When the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate, not when they are at the same concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Towards which direction would SO4^2- and Na+ flow in a galvanic cell?

A

SO4^2- towards the anode and Na+ towards the cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

In a galvanic cell delta G is____ and E cell is____

A

negative, positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

In an electrolytoc cell delta G is_____ and Ecell is_____

A

positive, negatove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Ecell definition

A

the voltage difference between the anode and cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

A state function is independent of what

A

the path taken (process by which the state is achieved)

the state function is an intrinsic property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Combustion reaction general setup

A

some fuel (ch4) + o2-> CO2+H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

In a single strand of nucleic acid, nucleotides are linked by what types of bonds?

A

phosphodiester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The equation for change in length of a solid related to changes in temperature?

A

Change in length (Delta L)= aLdeltaT (alot!!)
a=coefficient of linear expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

zeroth law of thermodynamics

A

no heat flows between objects in thermal equilibrium. If two systems are in thermal equilibrium, and one of those systems is in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then all 3 are in thermal equilibrium with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

isolated vs closed system

A

Isolated; neither energy or matter is transferrd
closed: energy is transferred but matter is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

the internal energy of a system (Delta Q) equals
(first law of thermodynamics)

A

Q-W
work transferred into a system-work done by a system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

second law of thermodynamics

A

objects in thermal contact with one another will attempt to reach thermal equilibrium by the one with a higher temp transferring heat to the one with a lower temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How many Joules equal one Calorie (big C)? What does Calories measure, and how many little c calories is that equal to?

A

4184 J
One Calorie is amount of heat needed to raise 1 kg of water 1-degree celsius. Equal to 1000 nutritional calories (little c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

conduction

A

transfer of heat by one molecule colliding with another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

convection

A

transfer of heat by the physical motion of a fluid (liquid or gas) over a material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Radiation

A

transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Specific heat of water

A

1 cal/g*K or 4.186 J/g *celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

specific heat (q) equals

A

MCAT!
mcdelta T
c=specific heat of that substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What happens to the internal temp of a substance going through a phase change when heat is added or removed from the system?

A

It does not change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

equation for heat gained or lost by a material going through a phase change

A

mL
mass
heat of transformation
either heat of fusion (solid<->liquid)
heat of vaporization (liquid<->gas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Immiscible

A

two layers that do not mix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Extraction process

A

Dissolved substance in a solvent into a new solvent

2.Add in a new solvent that is immiscible (not mixable with original solvent) and shake

3.The dissolved substance will separate into either the aqueous phase (more polar) and the organic phase (less polar)
**(LIKE DISSOLVES LIKE—-If it is polar it will dissolve in polar (this only applied to polarity not acid/base)

4.Use a separatory funnel which will separate solvents based on density (denser first)

  1. Evaporate solvent using a rotary evaporator which will separate final desired substance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

When would you use gravity filtration instead of vacuum filtration?

A

Gravity(aka simple): product of interest is the filtrate (the liquid)
Vacuum: product of interest is the solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Does an acid dissolve better in aqueous acid or base? Does something more polar dissolve better in a polar or non-polar solvent?

A

The acid dissolves better in base

Polar dissolves better in polar

The acid/base and polarity dissolving properties are opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

When to use vacuum distillation

A

Distill a liquid with a boiling point over 150 Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Key concept of all types of chromatography

A

The more similar a compound is to its surroundings the more slowly it will move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Thin layer and paper chromatography: What characteristics of stationary phase? which molecules moves most slow?

A

The stationary phase is polar (silica gel for TLC and cellulose for paper)
More polar molecules will move more slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Watts=

A

Joule/second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Adiabatic system definition and what the first law of thermodynamics reduces to

A

adiabatic= no heat exchange
Delta U=-W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Two substances have the same freezing and boiling points, but solid sample of substance A boils before substance B why could this be?

A

Substance B has a higher specific heat heat of vaporization, or heat of fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

If a solvent system is 85:15 ethanol: methylene chloride where will the most polar substance be relative to the solvent front

A

closest to the solvent front because this is a reverse-phrase chromatography where the solvent system is polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Brine is essentially

A

Salt water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is the density of water in g/cm^3 and kg/m^3?

A

1 g/cm^3
1000 kg/m^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Atomic weight vs atomic mass
Which is the one reported on the periodic table?

A

atomic mass: protons+neutrons
atomic weight: a weighted average of natural occurring isotopes

atomic weight is reported on the periodic table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

As electrons go from a lower energy level to a higher energy level what happens?

A

They get AHED
Absorb light
Higher potential
Excited
Distant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Rutherfords view

A

atom has a dense positive nucleus that made up small amount of volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Bohr model

A

a dense positive nucleus surrounded by electrons revolving around it at distinct intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What was Planck the first to describe?

A

Quantum levels of electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

A

Impossible to perfectly determine both the accuracy and momentum of an electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Pauli exclusion principle

A

no two electrons can possess the same set of four quantum numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Aufbau principle

A

Electrons fill from lower to higher energy and will fill completely before moving to the next subshell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Hund’s rule

A

Orbitals are all filled with 1/2 before completing the full orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What two elements and their groups don’t follow Hund’s rule? Why?

A

Copper and Chromium
It is more stable to complete or half-complete the d-orbitals then have a complete s -orbital of the one before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Which materials are paramagnetic and what does this cause

A

Paramagnetic materials are ones without paired electrons
Causes PARallel spin and attraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which materials are diamagnetic and what does this cause?

A

Diamagnetic materials are ones with only paired electrons
Causes magnetic repulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Valence electrons

A

electrons in the outermost shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Pressure formula with force and area

A

F (normal vector)/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Absolute pressure definition and formula

A

total pressure exerted on an object submerged in fluid
P=Po(pressure at the surface)+pgz (Density*gravity *depth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

what would happen on the liquid surface if adhesive and cohesive forces are equal

A

no meniscus would form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Which way is buoyant force directed?

A

always upward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

The equation for buoyant force

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Cohesion vs adhesion

A

cohesion= attractive force liquid molecules feel towards other molecules of the same liquid
adhesion=attractive force a liquid molecule feels toward molecules of a different substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

when would a backwards (convex) meniscus form?

A

When liquid cohesive forces are greater than adhesive forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Specific gravity formula

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Dynamic pressure definition and formula

A

pressure assoc. with flow
1/2densityspeed^2

**kinda like kinetic energy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is a pitot tube used to measure?

A

Measure static pressure during flow to calculate speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Laminar flow

A

flow in which there are no eddies and in which streamlines are roughly parallel to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Turbulance

A

presence of backflow or current eddies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Continuity equation and what does it describe

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Bernoulli’s equation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What would happen to flow rate in the following scenarios:
increased radius
increasing viscosity
increased length of the tube
increased pressure gradient

A

increased radius = increased flow rate
increased pressure gradient=increased flow rate
increasing viscosity=decreased flow rate
increased length of the tube=decreased flow rate

Think of traffic!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What equation should be used for isolated segments of human circulation?

A

Pousille’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

During exhalation how does the total resistance of the encountered airways change as air leaves the alveoli to escape the nose and mouth?

A

Total resistance increases even though diameter increases, because there are fewer airways in parallel with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Objects at the same depth must have the same

A

gauge pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

How do you find tension on a chain of an anchor in the water given Force of gravity?

A

T=Fg-Fbuoy

Fbuoy= fluid density* fluid volume* gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

two balls held beneath the surface with the same buoyant force but different masses will accelerate to the surface in which order?

A

one with smaller mass will accelerate and reach surface fastest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

in connected horizontal pipes of different cross-sectional areas, which will have the lowest water level?

A

The one with the least cross-sectional area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

According to Bernoulli’s equation, at the same heights, how are speed and pressure related

A

speed and pressure inversely related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

When electrons are removed from a an element to form a cation, where are they take from first?

A

The highest n value
so ZN 2+
is [Ar] 4s^0 3d^10
not
[Ar]4s^2 3d ^8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in a single atomic energy level in terms of the principle quantum number n?

A

2n^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What happens when an electron falls from n=4 to its ground state, n=1?

A

A photon is emitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

SI unit for charge and the fundamental unit of charge

A

Columb and the unit is
e=1.60*10^-19 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Compare and contrast conductors and insulators

A

insulator: -doesn’t distribute charge equally over surface, does not easily transfer charge
Conductor: Distributes charge equally over its surface, and transfer charges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What are the two general types of conducting solutions?

A

-Ionic
-electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Coulomb’s law formula

A

Fe=kq1q2/r^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Field vectors point ______ positive charges and _______ negative charges

A

Field vectors point away from positive charges and toward negative charges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What are two formulas that can be used to determine electric field magnitude?

A

E= Fe/q=kQ/r^2
E=electric field mag
Fe= electrostatic force
q=test charge
k=electrostatic constant
Q=source charge magnitude
r=radius between two charges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Formula for electric potential energy

A

U=kQq/r

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Units for electrical potential

A

Volts, 1 J/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Formula for electric potential

A

V=kQ/r

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

difference between electric potential and electric potential energy

A

electric potential: ratio of the magnitude of a charges electric potential energy to the magnitude of the charge itself

electric potential energy: a form of potential energy that is dependent on relative position of one charged compared to another charge or group of charges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Voltage equals

A

Va-Vb=Wab/q

work needed to move a test charge q through an electric field from point a to point b.
Or the difference in volts between these two points(Va-Vb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Which direction do positive charges spontaneously move

A

In the direction that decreases electric potential (negative voltage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Which direction do negative charges spontaneously move related to electric potential

A

In the direction that increases electric potential (positive voltage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

equipotent line

A

a line on which the potential energy at energy point in the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Given what two things could help you find dipole moment? Dipole moment formula

A

p=qd
p=dipole moment (SI C
m)
q=charge
d=distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What is the behavior of an electric dipole when exposed to an external electric field

A

A dipole will rotate within an external electric field such that its dipole moment aligns with the field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

The formula for magnitude of a magnetic field

A

B= mag. of magnetic field
Mo=permeability of free space
I=current
r=distance from wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Charge moving in these two directions will experience no force from the magnetic field

A

parallel, anti-parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

For a straight wire, what is the magnitude of the force created by an external magnetic field

A

FB=ILBsin theta
I=current
L=length of wire
B= magnitude of magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

In reference to an electric field’s vector, which direction will an electron feel a force

A

opposite direction of the electric field vector,

if positive it would have been same direction as electric field vector

because it points in the same direction as the positive test charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Define current

A

The flow of POSITIVE charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Conductivity is reciprocal of

A

voltage, units is seimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

How does metallic conductivity work?

A

Equal distribution of free electrons across all neutral atoms in a atomic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Current formula, and SI

A

I=Q/delta time
I=current
Q=amount of charge passing through a conductor

Unit: Ampere (1A=C/s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Kirchhoff’s Junction Rule

A

Iin=Iout
sum of currents entering a junction=sum of currents leaving that junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Kirchhoff’s Loop Rule

A

In a closed-circuit loop, the sum of voltage sources will always be equal to the sum of voltage drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

True or false: In a circuit, the number of electrons entering a point and leaving a point are the same

A

True; Kirchhoff’s junction rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Resistance

A

Opposition to the movement and flow of charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What can lightbulbs and other appliances be categorized as in a circuit?

A

Resistors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Units for resistivity

A

meters*ohms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

If a resistor doubles in length it______ resistance

A

it doubles resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

As you increase the cross-sectional area of a resistor what happens to the resistance

A

decreases, because you are increasing the number of conduction pathways through the reistor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Voltage drop (V)=

A

I*R
I= current
R= Magnitude of the resistance measured in ohms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Power of a resistor can be calculated which 3 ways?

A

1) IV
2)I^2
R
3) V^2/R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

In series, the total voltage drop will be equal to

A

the sum of the voltage drops at each resistor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

How does adding/removing a resistor affect total resistance in a series?

A

adding=increases
removing=decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

How does adding/removing a resistor affect total resistance in parallel?

A

adding=decreases
removing=increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What 4 factors impact the resistance of a resistor

A

resistivity, cross-sectional area, length, temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

The capacitance of parallel plates formula

A

C=eo (A/d)
eo=8.85*10^-12 F/m and is the permittivity of free space
A= area of overlap of the two plates
d=separation of the two plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

The uniform electric field between two plates can be calculated as

A

E=V/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Potential energy stored in a capacitator

A

U=1/2CV^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Dielectrics between the plates of a capacitator in circuit will cause

A

increased capacitance by a factor of k (dielectric constant) and increased charge on the capacitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Formula for calculating capacitance with a dielectric

A

C=Akeo/d

Capacitors are CAKED with charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Dielectrics between the plates of a capacitator in the circuit will cause

A

increased capacitance by a factor of k (dielectric constant) and increased charge on the capacitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

When capacitors are connected in series total capacitance_____
When capacitors are connected in parallel total capacitance_____

A

When capacitors are connected in series total capacitance decreases
When capacitors are connected in parallel total capacitance increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Ammeters measure ______ and placed in _____to measure point of interest

A

Ammeters measure current and placed in series to measure point of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

voltmeters measure ______ and placed in _____with circuit element of interest

A

measure potential difference (voltage)and placed in parallel to measure point of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Divalent cation

A

cation with a valence of 2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What periodic category is most likely to form a complex ion with H2O

A

Transition metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Periodic table:
groups/familys are _______
periods are _______

A

groups=column
period=row

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Effective nuclear charge

A

the strength on which protons can pull on electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

sodium-potassium pump direction/quantities

A

Moves three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions it lets into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

what will distill first during fractional distillation: hexanoic acid or ethyl hexanoate?

A

ethyl hexanoate bc it has weaker intermolecular forces and a lower boiling point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Are atomic mass units equal to grams?

A

No, amus are defined as 1/12 the mass contained ina carbon-12 atom (~1g)
6.02*10^23 amu=1 mole of amu=1.00g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Superheating

A

The liquid is heated past its boiling point but does not boil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What do boiling chips in simple distillation help with?

A

Providing sites for bubble formation, overcoming the surface tension so the liquid boils evenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Butanone structure

A

-one ending is just a double bonded O- think acetone structure too!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Ester structure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What are the outcomes of boh the Strecker synthesis and gabriel synthesis?

A

The result is a mixture of L- and D- forms of amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What does a Fischer esterification use as reactants?

A

A carboxylic acid and alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What 3 things does boiling point depend on?

A

intermolecular forces, molecular weight, and branching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

If something has low electronegativity than it has high_______

A

electropositivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Zeff definition

A

the electrostatic attraction between the valance shell electrons and the nucleus is known as the effective nuclear charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Ionization energy definition

A

The energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

First ionization energy will always be______ than the second ionization energy

A

smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Electron affinity

A

the energy released by a gaseous species when it gains an electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Electronegativity definition

A

The attractive force that an atom will exert on an electron in a chemical bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Which group of elements has the lowest Zeff

A

Alkali metals (Group 1), because they have one loosely bound electron in their outermost S shell

269
Q

What is the molar volume (L/mol) of an ideal gas at standard temp and pressure?

A

PV=nrt can be re-written
V/n=RT/P
V/n=(0.82)(273)/1=22L/mol
22 L/mol

270
Q

What is the pressure of a gas mixture at STP?

A

760 mmHg

271
Q

What happens as air temperature increases in terms of density? Does it rise or sink?

A

It becomes less dense and rises

272
Q

Electromotive force (emf) definition

A

the voltage across the terminals of the battery when there is no current flowing

273
Q

What are the electronegativity ranges from nonpolar->polar->ionic?

A

0->0.5 nonpolar
0.5->1.7 polar
1.7+ Ionic

274
Q

coordinate covalent bonds

A

both of the shared electrons originated from the same atom

275
Q

Formal charge of an atom formula

A

formal charge=(valence electrons)-#non-bonding electrons-1/2bonding electrons

276
Q

Hydrogen bonds exist in molecules containing which 3 elements?

A

F,O,N

277
Q

Acetone structure

A
278
Q

What number of bonds does ammonium have and what characters?

A

4 polar covalent of which one is a coordinate covalent bond

NH3 (lewis acceptor) bonds with H+ (lewis donor) forms a coordinate covalent bond that is NH4+

279
Q

Sinusoidal waves and the two main types

A

sinusoidal waves oscillate:

transverse waves oscillate perpendicular to the direction of propagation and energy transfer

longitudinal waves oscillate parallel to the direction of propagation and energy transfer

280
Q

What is the inverse of frequency?

A

Period (T)
seconds per cycle

281
Q

what is the amplitude of two equal waves 180 degrees out of phase? What is this called?

A

A=0
destructive interference

282
Q

what is the amplitude of two waves perfectly in phase? What is this called

A

A= A1+A2
constructive interference

283
Q

Resonance

A

the increase in amplitude that occurs when a periodic force is applied at the natural (resonant) frequency

284
Q

Does sound travel faster in gas or solids?

A

Solids, because the medium’s resistance to compression, B, increases from gas->liquid->solid

285
Q

What does the doppler effect describe

A

perceived frequency (based on location from sound) and actual frequency

286
Q

In the doppler effect equation, when do you use the top sign (+) and when do you use the bottom (-)?

A

The top is for toward: if you are moving toward the sound
The bottom is away

287
Q

High frequency sounds have a ______pitch while low frequnecy sounds have a _______pitch

A

High frequency sounds have a high pitch while low frequency sounds have a low pitch

288
Q

The magnitude of angular frequency will always be_______than frequency

A

The magnitude of angular frequency will always be greater than frequency

289
Q

In chemistry, Normality is a measure of

A

concentration (equivalents (how many -OH or H+ in the molecule)/Liter)

290
Q

In acid-base chemistry, what does gram equivalent weight represent?

A

The mass of acid that yields one mole of protons, or the mass of base that yields one mole of hydroxide ions

ie
H2SO4 is an acid and it yields 2 H+ so GEW=
98.1 (molar mass)/2 (bc of 2 Hydrogens)

291
Q

empirical vs molecular formula

A

empirical: simplest whole number ratio
molecular: exact number of atoms

292
Q

Percent composition formula

A

mass of element in formula/molar mass (mass of whole molec.)*100

293
Q

given percentage by mass of elements in a molecule, how would you find empirical formula?

A

1) change % into grams, and divide by molar mass of the element (ie given 50% O-> 50g/16g/mol=3.1 mol)
2) Divide mols of each by smallest mol value (if H was 0.5, 3.1/0.5=6)
3) multiply until all values are whole numbers

294
Q

What are the products of a neutralization rxn? What category is this under?

A

Forms a salt and usually water,
this is a type of double-displacement reaction

295
Q

What normally causes a decomposition rxn?

A

heating, electrolysis (electricity), high radiation

296
Q

When balancing equations, in what order should you normally balance the elements?

A

Carbon first, then hydrogens, then oxygens, then all others, create whole numbers at the end

297
Q

1 mol of any ideal gas at STP is how many L?

A

22.4 L

298
Q

When calculating limiting reagent, what units MUST be used?

A

Mols

299
Q

Percent yield formula

A

actual yield/theoretical yield(if all limiting reagent is consumed)

300
Q

Monatomic ions end in

A

-ide
H- =hydride
O2-= Oxide

301
Q

how to compare -ite and -ate endings with regards to O quantity?

A

The “lITEst” have the fewest oxygens

-ATE more Os ,

302
Q

Bicarbonate formula

A

HCO3-

303
Q

Cyanide formula

A

CN-

304
Q

The visible spectrum of light is within the range of _____frequency and _______wavelength

A

410^14 - 810^14 Hz Frequency
700-400 nm wavelength

305
Q

The color of an object is determined by

A

the wavelength of light reflected by that object

ie if it appears red it must reflect red light

306
Q

if i is positive, then the image is

A

real

307
Q

What factors do not change when light is reflected/refracted?

A

Just frequency!!

308
Q

When light goes from a medium with a low index of refraction to a higher one what happens to the angle of refraction?

A

The angle of refraction will be smaller than the incident angle (closer to normal)

309
Q

After light (f=6.0*10^12 Hz) passes through 2 parallel polarizers, what will be the frequency of light coming from a 3rd polarizer rotated 90 degrees with respect to the second polarizer?

A

Light will not pass thru the third polarizer

310
Q

In liquid-liquid extraction, the polarity of the organic layer should

A

match the polarity of the desired solvent for that layer

**This means it could be polar (like the aqueous layer) but as long as it is immiscible with water can still be used!! (ie ethyl acetate and water:))

311
Q

In fractional distillation the initial distillate will be enriched with which component?

A

The lowest-boiling point component will evaporate first

**the first distillation product will be it, because it goes quickest

312
Q

Normal Phase high-performance liquid chromatography separates materials

A

Based on polarity; polar slower because it interacts with the polar stationary phase

polar stays stationary

313
Q

Which is the major product (this is NP-HPLC)?

A

The largest hump, the area under the curve is proportional to the quantity of material collected

314
Q

In a chair structure wedges are ____ and dashes are ______

A

Wedges: up
Dashes: down

315
Q

This is what type of interaction?

A

dipole-induced dipole; the H3 has no strong dipole moment,

316
Q

Ion-dipole interactions occur between

A

partial charge of a permanent dipole and full charge of an ion

H and Cl are good

O and Cl bad (same partial negative charge)

NOT H with F,O,N (this is hydrogen bonding)

317
Q

An alpha carbon is at what position?

A

Alpha:carbon adjacent to a carbonyl carbon

318
Q

Given g/L and % solute in it, how do you find mol/L of solute?

A

g/L *(%-> decimal ie 3.5%-> 0.035 g)= g of solute

g solute/ molar mass solute= mols

mols/ 1L (1 L is given since already now % in quantity!!)

319
Q

consuming salt water creates blood that is _______relative to cytosol of body’s cells

A

hypertonic (higher concentration of salt)

320
Q

Why is the density of water in the liquid phase sometimes higher than the solid phase?

A

Bent structure and hydrogen bonding interaction

321
Q

What is beta decay?

A

In beta decay neutron becomes a proton and an electron is emitted

mass stays same
element changes 1 up
and electron is emitted

322
Q

How can rotation of plane-polarized light be used? How is it not helpful?

A

Used for analyzing substances (especially for chirality)
NOT a separation technique

Separation techniques:
recrystallization
distillation
extraction
etc

323
Q

What technique does vacuum distillation use to help the distillation process?

A

Lowers the pressure inside the distillation flask which lowers the boiling point!

324
Q

What will be left in the homogenous mixture at end of vacuum filtration? 2-methylundecanal or 2-methylundenoic acid?

A

2-methylundenoic acid; carboxylic acids have higher boiling points so will remain

325
Q

Given drop height and mass, what two ways can you find maximum speed?

A

Givens:
height (meters)
mass (kg)
At time of drop find Potential energy:
U=mgh
then at maximum speed potential energy=kinetic energy so
U=1/2mv^2
since you know U and m can solve for v!!

Or plug all into formula:
vf^2=vi^2+2ax

326
Q

Given Torque and force applied, how do you find the distance (90 degree angle)?

A

T=rFsin (theta)
sin (90)=1

r=T/F

Can figure it out by units too!
N*m/N=m!!!

Divide Torque(N*m) by force(N)
torque units

327
Q

How do you find the magnitude of force experienced by the foot due to the ground when turning?

A

Need Fnormal (mg) and Fturn (mturning acceleration)
right triangle!!!
Fcombined= [(Fnormal)^2 + (Fturning)^2]^1/2

328
Q

What are 3 ways to increase torque applied to an object?

A

1) increase force
2)increase the distance the force is applied to fulcrum
3)adjust the angle to make it closest to perpendicular to lever arm

329
Q

When solution pH is _____than pKa of a functional group it will exist mostly deprotonated

A

greater than pKa

pH>pKa= functional group deprotonated
pH<pKa=functional group protonated

330
Q

What is Newton’s third law? Give an example with gravity

A

When body A exerts a force on body B, body B exerts an equal and opposite force on body A
Fab=-Fab

a book experiences a gravitational force due to the earth (mg)
the earth experiences a gravitational force (mg) from the book!

3rd law: Equal and opposite

reminder:
1st law: at rest stay at rest
2nd law: F=ma

331
Q

What does it mean to be an inert gas? Give example and useful setting

A

Inert gas= does not readily undergo chemical reactions with other molecules; Example is N2, and it is useful in experiments

332
Q

sp2 hybridized carbons have what bond angle? sp3?

A

sp2: trigonal planar, 120 degrees
sp3: tetrahedral, 109.5 degrees

333
Q

Formula for power given resistance and voltage?

A

P=V^2/R

334
Q

LiAlH4 vs KMnO4

A

LiAlH4: strong reducing agent (gain H)
KMnO4: strong oxidizing agent

PCC and NaCr2O7 also oxidizing agents!

335
Q

terpenes are precursors to what type of hormone?

A

steroid signaling hormones (like estrogen and aldosterone)

336
Q

What is an oxidoreductase?

A

transfer electrons from one molecule to another (normally will see addition/subtraction of Os or Hs)

337
Q

What are the 2 important spectroscopy peaks and where are they located?

A
338
Q

negative E indicates

A

a non-spontaneous reaction

339
Q

Since O2 is the final electron acceptor in the ETC, what must be true about its standard reduction potential (V) compared to the other acceptors in the chain?

A

It must be more positive!!

340
Q

In a spontaneous reaction, what is true of Keq?

A

Greater than 1!

Conceptually: when a rxn is spontaneous there will be more products than reactants present

mathematically:
Delta G naut=- RTlnkeq

341
Q

When something is spontaneous what 3 things should be immediately recognized as true?

A
  1. Delta G<0
    2, Keq>1
  2. E naut (standard reduction potential)>0
342
Q

The angle of incidence will always equal what?

A

the angle of reflection

343
Q

What would be the equilibrium constant of the dissociation reaction given Ka?

A

1/Ka

this is dissociation so opposite
if asked of forward reaction, would have just been Ka

344
Q

The rate of formation of a cation depends on

A

the energy required to remove a bond
less energy required the quicker it will happen

345
Q

What reaction factor is Hess’ law related to? What is the formula?

A

whether something is exothermic or not!

Delta heat of reaction=delta Hformation of product-DeltaH formation of reactant

346
Q

How would highly electro negative groups affect carbocations?

A

destabilizing; they are electron-withdrawing and will not contribute desired electron density to carbocations

347
Q

Rxns with negative delta H and negative deltaS are spontaneous in what conditions?

A

only at low Temps!

348
Q

In a dry enviroment what mechanism will help your body stay cooler than in the same environment with higher humidity?

A

increased evaporation from the skin (sweat!!)

349
Q

Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the highest energy? lowest?

A

gamma rays=highest
radio waves=smallest

Radio waves have longest wavelengths

350
Q

higher energy electromagnetic waves also have higher ________ but lower__________

A

higher frequency, lower wavelength

**energy and frequency go together which is the opposite of wavelength
makes sense b/c c=frequency*wavelength so they counter each other

351
Q

Light waves are what type of wave? Why?

A

Transverse wave, bc the direction of propagation is perpendicular to direction of oscillation

352
Q

Hyperopia corrects for ________ and causes _________of light.

A

farsightedness and convergence

353
Q

Myopia corrects for ________ and is fixed by

A

nearsightedness and is foxed by diverging lens

354
Q

When going from a medium with low refractive index to high refractive index:

A

light will bend towards the normal; opposite for going from a high n to low n

355
Q

positive values for r or f indicate what in mirrors vs lenses?

A

the mirror is concave, the lens in convex

356
Q

when the incident angle is greater than the critical angle what happens?

A

Total internal reflection

357
Q

Dispersion definition

A

tendency for different wavelenths of light to separate into different parts of the visible spectrum when when hitting a medium

358
Q

What are the two mathematical equations that involve Image and object distance?

A

1/f=1/o+1/i
m=-1/o

359
Q

What happens when you add a lens or second slit (double slit) to a single-slit system

A

additional refraction of light causes constructive and destructive interference
This creates FRINGES

360
Q

Photoelectric effect

A

when a high-frequency light hits metal causing the metal to emit electrons

361
Q

threshold frequency

A

minimum frequency of light needed to emit electron

362
Q

waves with longer wavelengths have _______energy and ________frequency

A

Lower energy and lower frequency!
they are both inversely proportional to wavelength

From
E=hf we know E and f are proportional

From
c=wavelength*frequencywe know wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional

Therefor!!
E and wavelength also inversely proportional

363
Q

When the f of light hitting a metal is greater than the frequency threshold, what happens to the excess energy?

A

It is converted into kinetic energy of the electron being emitted.

Can be calculated:
Kmax=hf-W (work function, or minimum energy required to eject an electron
W=hFt (Ft= frequency threshold)

So

364
Q

How to calculate the maximum kinetic energy of an electron being emitted from a metal after being hit by high-frequency light?

A

Can be calculated:
Kmax=hf-W (work function, or minimum energy required to eject an electron)

W=hFt (Ft= frequency threshold)

So essentially:
Kmax=hF-hFt or energy supplied-minimum energy needed

365
Q

The energy of a photon must be greater than what in order for a metal to emit an electron.

A

The work function (which is determined by thee composition of a metal)

366
Q

How does an electron jump from a lower energy orbital to high one?

A

ABSORPTION of a photon of light equal to the energy difference (E=hf) of the two orbitals

367
Q

How does an electron go from a higher energy orbital to a lower one?

A

EMISSION of a photon of light equal to the energy difference (E=hf) of the two orbitals

You should EMIT (admit) it when you fall

368
Q

What determines absorption spectra of a particular material?

A

The energy difference (E=hf) between excited and ground state electrons determine the frequency they will absorb

remember: energy of light E=hf must be EQUAL to the difference (why specificity)

369
Q

What is the core process of fluorescent materials bizarre light?

A

A multistep emission spectra with smaller energy transitions that can all release light

370
Q

What determines the absorption spectra of a particular material?

A

The energy difference (E=hf) between excited and ground state electrons determine the frequency they will absorb

remember: energy of light E=hf must be EQUAL to the difference (why specificity)

371
Q

Define mass defect and provide formula that characterizes it

A

The mass of every nucleus is slightly smaller than the sum of protons and neutrons

E=mc^2 (Einstein!!)
E=energy
m=mass defect (difference between expected mass and actual mass)
and c= speed of light

Shows that mass defect is because of matter being converted to energy

372
Q

Binding energy in nucleus definition as it relates to mass defect

A

binding energy is the energy released when nucleons (neutrons and protons) come together (energy released)
This energy release is what causes the mass defect!

373
Q

What are the four fundamental forces of nature?

A
  1. strong nuclear force
  2. weak nuclear force
  3. electrostatic forces
  4. gravitational forces
374
Q

Fusion vs fission

A

fusion: small nuclei come together to make larger nucleus (the sun does hydrogen fusion to create helium nuclei)
fission: breaking of a nucleus into smaller nuclei

375
Q

Alpha decay

A

emission of a helium nucleus or
4,2H (2 protons and 2 neutrons)

376
Q

Beta decay and the two types
what is change in mass/atomic number for each?

A

B-: conversion of a neutron to a proton (B-) and release of an electron
atomic number: +1
no mass change

B+: Conversion of a proton to a neutron (B+) and release of a positron
atomic number:-1
no mass change

377
Q

Gamma decay

A

NO CHANGE OCCURS IN MASS OR ATOMIC NUMBER
just emission of a gamma ray

378
Q

Electron capture and change in mass/atomic number

A

capture an inner electron that converts a proton to a neutron:
-1 atomic number
no change mass

379
Q

Electron capture

A

capture an inner electron that converts a proton to a neutron
-1 atomic number

380
Q

in an atom, A is _________ Z is __________

A

A: mass number
Z: atomic number
a is larger than z
seems opposite so be careful!!

381
Q

Work and energy share the same units. What are they? What are it’s two components?

A

Work and energy both ae measured in Joules

Joules=N*m

382
Q

How does power relate to work?

A

Power is the rate at which work is done!!

Joules/sec or Watts (W)

383
Q

torque has the same base units as

A

Work!!!
W=Fdcos theta
torque=rF sin theta

r and d= m
F=N
both are N*m

384
Q

How will the number of electrons in an atom change after Beta decay?

A

Stays the same!! Even though an electron is emitted, it is a Nucleus created electron (from a neutron-> proton+ electron
so the number of total electrons stays the same

385
Q

Zeff formula

A

protons-electrons

386
Q

solid to gas phase change?

A

sublimation

387
Q

gas to solid phase change

A

deposition

388
Q

What is the graph relationship between Log(Pw) and 1/T?

A

y=mx+b

Back to basics!!!

388
Q

Free card:)

A

Keep going!

389
Q

A concave mirror creates a _____ image of an object positioned outside the mirror’s focal length

A

real

390
Q

Real images form_____ a mirror, whereas ______ images form behind them

A

real images=in front
virtual images= in back

391
Q

ultraviolet vs infrared:
energy, wavelength, frequency

A

ultraviolet: higher energy, higher frequency, shorter wavelength
infrared: lower energy, lower frequency, longer wavelength

392
Q

A laser with ______wavelength refracts less light when passing from air into glass, and therefore the angle of refraction is _______from normal

A

longer wavelength; further from normal.

This involves snell’s law:
n1sin (theta)1=n2sin(theta)2

393
Q

What equation can be used to find the focal length of a lens?

A

1/f=1/o+1/i
1/(focal length)=1/(object distance)+1/(image distance)

394
Q

A mirror with a larger focal length has a _______radius of curvature. What is the equation that relates focal length and radius of curvature?

A

greater radius of curvature

R=2f, f=R/2 so radius of curvature is twice the focal length

395
Q

Which direction is the force acting on a moving charge inside a magnetic field?

A

Lonentz force is perpendicular to magnetic force and velocity of the charge

396
Q

What formula can be used to find sound decibels?

A

dB are logarithmic!
dB=1olog10 (I1/I2)

397
Q

How will the work done by the Lorentz force on an electron traveling through the magnetic field of an MRI scanner change if the magnetic field strength is increased?

A

The work will not change, because it is always 0

cos(90)=0!! Therefore work done perpendicular has no effect

398
Q

Electrical current (I) fundamental definition and mathematical representation

A

I=Q/t
rate of charge flowing through an electric circuit

399
Q

What is the conversion between atm and pascals?

A

1 atm= 10^5 Pa

400
Q

homotropic regulation and an example

A

when a molecule serves as both a substrate and regulating molecule for a target

ex. hemoglobin, allosteric binding and cooperative (sigmoidal shape)

401
Q

Unlike solids and liquids, gases have what key characteristic?

A

They are compressible, which means that the density is not constant throughout. This means volume of gases is affected by changes in pressure

402
Q

acetic acid is a ______acid and sodium hydroxide_______is a_______base and therefore the endpoint of their titration will occur at a pH

A

acetic acid: weak acid
sodium hydroxide: strong base

403
Q

Given density of a solution, and percent solute in that solution, how do you find molar concentration of solute?

A
  1. g soln (from density g/L)* % solute=g solute
  2. g solute/molar mass solute=moles solute
  3. moles solute/L= M
404
Q

Which AA has one letter code N?

A

Asparagine

405
Q

amine vs imine

A

amine : N single bonds
imine: N= (N double bonded)

406
Q

Phase changes are exothermic when they

A

go from a phase with more energy to one with less energy
energies:
gas>liquid>solid
so liquid ->gas is endothermic
Gas->liquid is exothermic

407
Q

Percent dissociation equation

A

[H]/[HA]*100%
[H] is the dissociated amount after rxn
[HA] is original amount

408
Q

What are two formulas that can be used to find energy of an electromagnetic wave (E)?

A

E=hf
v= wavelength*f
c(speed of light) is velocity
E=hc/wavelength

409
Q

A higher Ka is associated with a _______acidity

A

stronger acidity

410
Q

What characteristic makes transition metal ions be colored?

A

unfilled d-orbitals

411
Q

When does pH = pKa? also describe this location on a titration curve

A

when [B]=[A]
this occurs at the midle of the plateau

412
Q

How do you convert blood pressure (Pa) to mmHg?

A

P=densitygravityh
h(mmHg)=Pressure/(density*a)

Or
(value*760mmhg)/10^5Pa

bc
1.01 10^5 Pa = 760 mmhg, torr = 1 atm, bar

413
Q

If electrostatic force between two point charges is greater than the gravitational force what will happen?

A

One object would move towards the other without falling

414
Q

How are volumetric flow rate and poiseuille’s law related?

A
415
Q

Gibbs free energy of a reduction-oxidation reaction formula

A
416
Q

In a balanced redox reaction what must be true?

A

The total number of electrons released from an oxidation half-reaction must equal the number of electrons used by the reduction half-reaction

***however, net rxn does not include the electron terms! Make sure not to include them post balancing

417
Q

furanoses: sugars with_____membered rings
pyranoses: sugars with ____membered rings

A

furanose: 5
pyranose: 6
alphabetical order, going up

418
Q

anomeric carbon in sugars is bonded to what?

A

2 oxygens,

C-1 in aldoses (O on the end)
C-2 in ketoses (O not on end)

419
Q

Which type of bonds can be visualized with UV light?

A

double, triple, carbonyls, conjugated

420
Q

What effect does nonvolatile substance removal have on vapor pressure and boiling point of a solution

A

Nonvolatile substances: lower vapor pressure and have a higher boiling point

REMOVED nonvolatile substances: higher vapor pressure, lower boiling point

421
Q

What is the formula for osmotic pressure?

A
422
Q

What is oxidation number, and how do you determine it?

A

Oxidation number of each atom in a compound may be determined:
1. oxidation state rules (similar to charges)
2. the sum of oxidation states of each atom must = net charge of compound

423
Q

On an H NMR spectra, adding an electronegative group nearby to protons of interest will _______them, and cause a _______shift on the NMR spectra

A

On an H NMR spectra, adding an electronegative group nearby to protons of interest will deshield them, and cause a downward shift on the NMR spectra

424
Q

Isoelectric size trends

A

-Decrease across period and increase down rows.
-All isoelectric cations will be smaller than anions!!!
-isoelectric anions with less Zeff (pull on electrons towards nucleus from protons) or less protons, will have larger ionic radii

425
Q

Indicators in titrations should have a pH

A

nearest to the pH of the equivalence point

426
Q

Which direction do electric field lines travel?

A

From + to - charge

427
Q

When does a precipitate form? Related to Ksp

A

when Q>Ksp

428
Q

V is known as

A

electric potential, potential, or voltage
V=IR Ohm’s law
P=IV
V=kQ/r
V=rE (electric field)
E=kq/r^2
(kq/r^2)*r=kq/r=V
V=J/C

429
Q

A compound that completely dissolves in water and is weakly conductive of electricity likely has a

A

nonmetal

430
Q

1060 kg/m^3= _____g/cm^3

A

1060 kg/m^3=1.06 g/cm^3

431
Q

What is the equation for the doppler effect?

A
432
Q

If an enzyme site binds to anionic and hydrophobic ligands, then the amino acids in that site should be

A

cationic (+ with the - ligand) and hydrophobic (for hydrophobic, London dispersion forces)
ie. R and L

433
Q

What is a reason that only a single stereoisomer would form in a reaction?

A

The enzyme is chiral and capable of preferentially forming one enantiomer because of lower energy chiral transition state leads to the preferred product

434
Q

What is a reason that only a single stereoisomer would form in a reaction?

A

The enzyme is chiral and capable of preferentially forming one enantiomer because of lower energy chiral transition state leads to the preferred product

435
Q

myopia definition and optical solution

A

light rays focus between the lens and retina
solution: diverging lens

436
Q

Which functional groups will deprotonate at a pH of 7? COOH, OH, NH, PO4

A

COOH and PO4 (Phosphate). -OH (alcohols) and NH are not acidic and will not dissociate in neutral water

437
Q

ADP vs AMP vs ATP structure

A
438
Q

Refractive index increases with what electromagnetic property?

A

Refractive index increases with decreasing wavelength or frequency

N=c/v
V=wavelength*frequency

439
Q

What are the units for lens strength?

A

Diopter, and measured in m-1

440
Q

Define a salt bridge

A

form from ion-ion interactions between two oppositely charged side chains in a protein

441
Q

In what scenarios do london dispersion forces tend to be the strongest

A

in larger molecules with larger more pronounced electron clouds

442
Q

Give a brief breakdown of:
Boyles law
Charles law
Avagadros law
Guy-Lussacs law

A

Boyles law: P inversely proportional to V: V=1/p
Charles law: v proportional to t: V/t is constant
Avagadros law: V proportional to n : V/n is constant
Guy-Lussacs law: P is proportional to T: P/T is constant

443
Q

What happens in electron capture

A

an electron is captured, and the atomic number decreases by 1 (similar to positron emission)

444
Q

Which generally have higher second ionization energies? metals or non-metals

A

metals; however, lower for group 2 then group 1 because you would be taking a core electron

445
Q

Where is the transition state of the 1st step in this reaction

A

where the ++ is

446
Q

How do you determine activation energy in a multi-step reaction

A

the one with the highest energy transition state is the Ea

447
Q

If delta G naut is negative than keq is

A

keq>1

448
Q

The product with the lowest energy transition state is the _____product

A

kinetic product

449
Q

What is the functional group that represents a peptide bond?

A

An amide

450
Q

Which of these 4 substances will elute first in gas-liquid chromatograph

A

the 2-methyl butene, bc nonpolar, lower boiling point

451
Q

What are assumed properties of an ideal gas?

A

the individual molecules have negligible volume, and they experience no intermolecular forces

452
Q

What amino acids would likely bond to ADP?

A

Arginine, histidine, and lysine, because of their interactions with the negatively charged oxygens on ADP

453
Q

1 faraday=

A

electric charge present on 1 mol of electrons
1 faraday=1 mol e-

454
Q

What does Henry’s law of solubility show about relationship between gas solubility and volume?

A
455
Q

what is the standard reduction potential equal to

A

E net = E reduction +E oxidation

455
Q

what is the standard reduction potential equal to

A

E net = E reduction +E oxidation

456
Q

when temperature increases, ksp _______ in endothermic rxns and ______ in exothermic reactions

A

when temperature increases, ksp increases in endothermic rxns and decreases in exothermic reactions

457
Q

Hoe would you calculate the energy that is lost to outside sources when a particle displays fluorescence at 420 nm and is ejected at 360 nm?

A

E=h*c/ (420-360)

458
Q

What does UV light do in UV spectroscopy?

A

Cause the movement of electrons between molecular orbitals (conjugated pairs)

459
Q

Equilibrium constant does not change with

A

the addition of a catalyst; catalysts only change the rate of the reaction

460
Q

law of mass action

A

the rate of each rxn is proportional to the concentrations of each component raised to the power of the reaction order

461
Q

Number of buffer begions in the titration of an acid with a base =

A

the number of acidic protons

462
Q
A
463
Q

Covalent bonds formed with _______ are almost always polar

A

Oxygen, including phosphate

464
Q

If delta H is negative, what would you expect a temperature vs time graph to look like?

A
465
Q

Hess’ Law

A
466
Q

As order (organization) increases…

A

entropy decreases

467
Q

which phosphate is cleaved from ATP by a kinase?

A

Gamma phosphate;
3 phosphates:
alpha-beta-gamma

468
Q

serine and threonine phosphorylated

A

have a negative charge; most closely mimic D and E

469
Q

Which has stronger pi-stacking strength: A-T or G-C

A

G-C, causing increased thermal stability

470
Q

kinetic vs thermodynamic products

A

kinetic: higher free energy (more positive delta G), can form at lower temperatures, “fast
thermodynamic: lower in free energy, more stable, slower but more spontaneous (more negative delta G)

471
Q

increase in oxidation state is

A

oxidized,
decreased=reduced

472
Q

Ways to remember gas laws

A

CTGPBV
C= T and V
G= T and P
B= P and V
Can these guys possibly be victorious?
Not Always victorious
Avagadros: n and V

473
Q

Another name for equilibrium constant (keq)

A

formation constant

474
Q

What will happen when you add HCl to a reaction

A

it will react with the base, reduce the amount of base present, and the shift the reaction in that direction

475
Q

Which group has the highest first ionization energies?

A

The noble gases (most difficult to remove an ion from these)

476
Q

systolic blood pressure

A

ventricular contraction, when AV node closes
-can be determined from the first sound of blood flow

477
Q

what is the main factor that determines bond length

A

atomic radius of the atoms

478
Q

Lenses with a _______focal length are diverging lenses

A

negative

479
Q
A
480
Q

Absolute vs relative poverty

A

absolute; bare minimum for SURVIVAL
relative; in reference to other groups (ie a percent below the median income)

481
Q

dopamine has what effects

A

euphoria like effects

482
Q

1 Hz (in terms of heart rate)

A

1 cycle/min
1 Hz= 1 cycle/min

483
Q

Atoms with lone pairs will act as

A

lewis bases (donate electrons)

in a coordinate covalent system, the one in the center will be a lewis acid because it is accepting electrons

484
Q

Electrons are removed first from the orbitals with

A

the greatest principle number (n)

so 5s^2 before 3d^2

485
Q

Describe the shifts in the bicarbonate buffer system according to hyper and hypo ventilation

A
486
Q

Exothermic rxns have a + or - delta H?

A

Negative

487
Q

An uncatalyzed rxn has a higher Ea and therefore what effect on the rate constant?

A

smaller rate constant

488
Q

London Dispersion forces are greater in smaller or bigger molecules

A

bigger! More inducible

489
Q

What are the stability trends as more alkyl groups are added to a carbanion and a carbocation?

A
490
Q

Steroids are made up of ______ triterpenes, or ____isoprenes?

A

Steroids are made up of 2 triterpenes, or 3 isoprenes

491
Q

What is a graph look like of applied force vs friction (kinetic and static)

A
492
Q

Boiling point is a measure of what

A

Intermolecular forces NOT intra
heat of combustion would better measure thermodynamic stability of a molecule

493
Q
A
494
Q

Kw=
pKw=

A

kw=KaKb=1.010^-14
pKw=pKa+pKb=14

495
Q
A

Answer is C.
monosodium is the weak acid and disodium is the weak base. To make more acidic,

496
Q

What are 3 experimental conditions that are necessary for reliable michaelis-mentin reaction data?

A
  • enzyme conc<substrate conc.
    -Vo measured in steady state conditions
    -pH of solution does not change
497
Q

What is acetylation

A

addition of an acetyl group at the shown carbon squiggle

498
Q

Porphyric

A
499
Q

glucose and a protein will interact through which type of interactions?

A

hydrogen-bonding

500
Q

What does not change as a wave moves through a medium?

A

Frequency; Frequency is an inherent, defining property of a wave; a 50 Hz wave is a 50 Hz wave, but it can be a variety of wavelengths depending on the medium it moves through, and as a result, the speed at which it is moving.

501
Q

1 Mg = __g

A

1*10^6

mega mimics micro

502
Q

List a molecule that would have a octahedral geometry

A

SF6

503
Q

What are two ways to solve this problem?

A
  1. Pressure= densitygravityheight
  2. Dimensional analysis: just multiply the density by gravity and you would have the right units cancel out
504
Q

In its standard state, what is carbon like?

A

It is graphite (s); covalent network solid

505
Q

What happens when a battery is discharging

A

instead of being electrolytic, it is galvanic. So direction of electron flow will change, and what was the anode becomes the cathode because RED CAT is consistent across both electrolytic and galvanic cells

506
Q
A
507
Q

Gas to solid

A

deposition

508
Q

solid to gas

A

sublimation (sublime, heavenly, converted to gas)

509
Q

How is an amino acid formed in a strecker reaction?

A

Aldehyde + ammonia

510
Q

Describe the reaction of oxygen with tosylate or mesylate that makes it a better leaving group

A
511
Q

fatty acyl group

A

a carbonyl and hydrocarbon chain

512
Q

How are eclipsed conformations shown on an energy plot

A
513
Q

3 names for isomers with same connectivity but different spatial orientation

A

diastereomers, enantiomers, conformational isomer

514
Q

Total resistance ______ when a resistor in parallel is removed

A

increases

515
Q

Bulbs connected in series will have _____ current, and ______ power/voltage

A

equal current, but decreasing power/voltage

516
Q

Resonance in a pipe closed at one end

A

wavelength=4L/n

517
Q

How to find kinetic energy of a gas molecule given Boltzman’s equation

A
518
Q

Aldol addition vs aldol condensation

A

aldol addition: first part of an aldol condensation, rxn between ketones and/or aldehyde
aldol condensation: aldol addition followed by dehydration

519
Q

Constitutional isomers are also known as

A

structural isomers; same molecular formula, different connectivity

520
Q

The product of strecker synthesis is

A

racemic (D,L)

521
Q

Thermodynamic vs kinetic products

A

Kinetic: formed on least substituted, bulky base (LDA), low temps, faster
thermo: formed on most substituted, small base (NaH), high temps, slower

522
Q

what can x be used to calculate in motion/kinetic physics problems?

A

It can be used to find either vertical or horizontal displacement!!

523
Q

How would you calculate the overall efficiency of each step in a kinetic chain?

A

multiply all the efficiencies by each other

524
Q

Explain the key roles of the lipid soluble vitamins

A

Vitamin A plays a key role in vision,
vitamin D in calcium and phosphate absorption from the gastrointestinal tract,
vitamin E is an antioxidant,
vitamin K promotes coagulation.

525
Q

What are the main roles of the water-soluble vitamins (also name them)

A

B and C= serve as coenzymes

526
Q

For the sake of the MCAT, van der waals forces can be thought of as synonymous to

A

london dispersion forces

527
Q

A condensation rxn results in

A

the formation of H2O

528
Q

What are 2 things that the principle quantum number (n) shows

A
  1. potential energy of an electron
  2. approximate radial size of an electron cloud
529
Q

Kinesin function and direction

A

ATP powers kinesin to transport cellular cargo from middle to periphery (towards positive end of microtubule)
This is described at anterograde transport

530
Q

Dynein function and direction

A

Dynein is a motir protein which walks towards the minus ends of microtubules, which point toward the center of the cell
This is described as retrograde transport
Dynein start distant!!!

531
Q

In total internal reflection what is true about the incident angles

A

it is greater than the critical angle

532
Q

Oxygen, and all other gases are more soluble in warm or cold water?

A

They are more soluble in cold water; thus heating them (pasteurization) would lower their solubility

533
Q

Given ksp, how can you find molar solubility?

A
534
Q

What effects equilibrium constants (Keq, Ka, Kb, Ksp)

A

temperature!!! not any concentrations

535
Q

At high temperatures ______ oxygen gas dissolves

A

less

536
Q

Gamma particles

A

high-energy photons; do not carry any charge

537
Q

What are the 6 main strong acids

A

HCLO4 (perchloric acid)
HBr
HI
HCl
H2SO4 (sulfuric acid)
HNO3 (nitric acid)
All of they will be completely dissociated in an aqueous solution

537
Q

What are strong bases?

A

Potassium hydride: KH
Lithium hydride: LiH
Lithium hydroxide: LiOH
Sodium hydroxide: NaOH
Potassium hydroxide: KOH
Rubidium hydroxide: RbOH
Caesium hydroxide: CsOH
Magnesium hydroxide: Mg(OH)2
Calcium hydroxide: Ca(OH)2
Strontium hydroxide: Sr(OH)2
Barium hydroxide: Ba(OH)2

Any of the alkali metals and alkali earth metals combined with the right amount of OH plus KH and LiH!!!

538
Q

Label the following salts as neutral salts, acidic salts, or basic salts:
-NH4HClO3
-NaH2CO3
-KCl

A

KCl: neutral salt: formed from strong base (KOH and strong acid HCl)
NH4HClO4: Acidic salt- formed from a weak base and strong acid
NaHCO3: basic salt: formed from a strong base and weak acid

539
Q

Structure of a sulfonyl functional group

A
540
Q

Structure of a nitro functional group

A
541
Q

Nearsighted vision aka _______, and where images form where in relationship to the lens?

A

myopia; in front!!

542
Q

Lens strength formula

A
543
Q

What does the spacing of diffracted light through a slit depend on?

A

slit width (smaller= further apart)
wavelength (smaller= closer together)

544
Q

THz= ___Hz

A

10^12

TP- tera aligns with pico

545
Q

At STP, what is the ratio of the volume to mols?

A

22.4L/1mol

546
Q

STP Pressure

A

760 mmhg

547
Q

Thiol group

A

-SH cysteine!!!

548
Q

How can you tell whether something is a conjugate acid or base?

A

If the initial molecule has one less H, than the substance is the conjugate base. One additional= conjugate acid
An acid differs from its conjugate base only by the presence of an additional H+. A base differs from its conjugate acid only in the lack of a single H+

549
Q
A

O and H did not change oxidation numbers, so they could not have been oxidized or reduced

550
Q

Between enthalpy, temperature, and heat, which of these 3 are state functions?

A

enthalpy and temperature

551
Q

How to remember state functions in thermodynamics and also name two popular path functions

A

PVT HUGS
pressure
volume
temperature
enthalpy
potential energy
free energy
entropy

Important to distinguish from these two popular path functions:
work, heat

552
Q

When determining a balanced equation, what are the TWO things you have to look at?

A
  1. The elements balance out
  2. AND the charge balances out!!! (I’ve messed this up a few times)
553
Q
A

Bond enthalpy= bond dissociation energy
so bonds formed have negative bond enthalpy

554
Q

What are 3 characteristics of an ideal fluid?

A
555
Q
A
556
Q

Sound waves what type of wave?

A

mechanical, longitudinal

557
Q

For sound waves, what characteristics depend on the medium?

A

wavelength and amplitude, but frequency is independent of medium

558
Q

Energy carried by a mechanical wave is dependent only on

A

amplitude!!! Independent of wavelength and frequency

559
Q

What are two main distinctions in resistors in parallel vs series?

A

Parallel: All have same current (conservation of charge)
Series: All have same voltage, but different currents

560
Q

Decomposition reaction

A

the break down of a single compound to 2 or more new compounds

560
Q

Decomposition reaction

A

the break down of a single compound to 2 or more new compounds

561
Q

How to calculate Zeff

A

Zeff=protons-core electrons
if greater, than greater Zeff

562
Q

In the formula for osmotic pressure, what does i symbolize?

A

the number of species an ion will formed when dissolved

563
Q

Combustion reaction

A
564
Q

Common ion effect

A

If a common ion is added to a reaction, equilibrium position will shift towards the reactants decreasing solubility

565
Q

Electromagnetic waves in a vacuum have a speed of

A

3.0*10^8; INDEPENDENT OF FREQUENCY AND WAVELENGTH

566
Q

How does intensity of sound vary as it moves further from a stationary source

A

I=P/A
A= 4pir^2

567
Q

For a salt bridge, anions migrate toward the _______ and cations migrate towards ________

A

For a salt bridge, anions migrate toward the anion and cations migrate towards cathode

568
Q

Faraday to mols e- conversion

A

1 faraday= 1 mol e-

569
Q

ppm=

A

1 ppm= 1mg/L
1%=10,000 ppm

570
Q

Faradays Constant

A

9.6,000 C= 1 mole e-

571
Q

How do you calculate lens strength?

A

S=1/f=1/o+1/i

572
Q

The velocity of sound is impacted by what 3 factors?

A

1) velocity higher in solids>liquids>gases
2) velocity increases with stiffness decreases with density
3)velocity is higher at higher temperature

573
Q

Interpolation vs extrapolation

A

Interpolation predicts between data points
extrapolation predicts values outside the range of the data

574
Q

Flattening the cornea will do what?

A

Increase the radius of curvature of the cornea
(think sharper radius, smaller circle, flattened, more spread out)

575
Q

What are 4 equations that connect the 4 electrostatic equations?

A

F=qE (electric force=chargeelectric field)
U=rF (electric potential energy= radius
electric force)
U=qV (electric potential energy= charge electric potential aka voltage)
V=rE (Voltage= radius
electric field)

576
Q

London-dispersion forces are exhibited by

A

ALL MOLECULES

577
Q

Given Kb and equilibrium concentration of reactant how do you find equilibrium concentration of product?

A

kb= prod/reactants

578
Q

imine vs amine

A
579
Q

Hydride reagents like NABH4 participate in nucleophilic addition with

A

ketones and aldehydes, NOT esters

580
Q

Describe the differences between ordered random and ping-pong substrate binding

A
581
Q

Kcat is proportional to

A

Vmax

582
Q

What is the relationship between equatorial/axial and dash/wedge

A

They vary! One is not set

583
Q

How to tell the axial position in a chair conformation?

A

Straight up and down

584
Q

What is the linear formula of hydrocarbons that are fully saturated?

A

CnH(2n+2)

585
Q

What are the additional rules of unsaturation (in addition to CnH2n+2 rule

A

Really simplified, degrees =complete expected saturated H-(actual H/2)

586
Q

How are waxes composed?

A

condensation of a long chain carboxylic acid and a long chain alcohol

587
Q

How does a Fischer esterification work?

A

combine carboxylic acid, alcohol, acid, and heat in a condensation reaction

588
Q

Why does an alpha amine have a lower pKa than a side chain amine?

A

The alpha-carboxylate withdraws electrons from the alpha amine due to the inductive effect

589
Q

Stereochemistry at the star?

A

Down (in equatorial or axial!) Is dashed

590
Q

Stereochemistry of the star?

A
591
Q

What is required of a carboxylic acid in order to undergo decarboxylation?

A

A Beta-Carbonyl!!

592
Q

Aspartate vs Glutamate

A

Aspartate: D, 2 carbon chain
Glutamate: E, 3 carbon chain

593
Q

Specific rotation of enantiomers is

A

equal in magnitude but opposite in direction

594
Q

What does a grignard reagant do?

A

Convert ketones or aldehydes to alcohols. Grignard reagents are organomagnesium-halide (R-Mg(halide))

595
Q

How is stereochemistry priority assigned?

A

Atomic number!! So Br>F

596
Q

What are the expected products of an aldol reaction vs an aldol condensation?

A
597
Q

Adding 1 and 2 equivalents of base (OH-) to aldehydes and ketones produces (name and describe 4 different products)

A
598
Q

What does a retro-aldol rxn do?

A
599
Q

What are acyl-derivatives?

A

All molecules with a carboxylic acid-derived carbonyl, including carboxylic acid, amides, esters, anhydrides

600
Q

Carboxylic acid can be reduced by ______ but not ________

A

carboxylic acid can be reduced by LiAlH4, but not the less reactive NaBH4

601
Q

How are amides normally formed?

A

Condensation rxn between carboxylic acid derivatives and ammonia or amine

602
Q

How are esters normally formed

A

condensation rxn between carboxylic acids or anhydrides and alcohols

603
Q

How are anhydrides normally formed?

A

condensation rxn between two carboxylic acids

604
Q

What are the relative reactivities of carboxylic acid derivatives?

A

anhydrides>carboxylic acids and esters>amides

605
Q

Transesterification

A

Changing out one ester group for another

606
Q

Strecker and gabriel synthesis result in

A

A racemic mixture of amino acids

607
Q

Most important peaks to know on an IR spectrum

A

O-H: around 3300 cm-1 (broad)
N-H: around 3300 sharp
C=O: sharp around 1750

608
Q

In NMR spectroscopy what provides a reference peak at 0 ppm?

A

TMS
take my soul (0 LEFT OF ME)

609
Q

What are the shifts of the following functional groups on NMR spectroscopy?
Alkyl:
Alkyne:
Alkene:
Aromatic:
Aldehydes:
carboxylic acid:

A

ALkyl: 0-3
Alkyne:2-3
Alkene:4-6
Aromatic: 6-9
Aldehydes: 9-10
carboxylic acid: 10-12

Divisions kind of go up the same way of many psychology forms of development!

610
Q

Tautomerization of an imine forms a

A

enamine

611
Q

smaller or larger molecules will migrate further across the gel in gel electrophoresis

A

smaller/more compact

612
Q

If when all samples are denatured during gel electrophoresis and they travel the same distance this indicates they

A

have the same number of nucleotides. In picture, all samples have the same number of nucleotides, but the HP mutant is more compact

613
Q

Insulin is a _____hormone

A

peptide

614
Q

Conversion between cm^3 and m^3

A

10^6cm^3=1 m^3
think about the base power difference (10^2cm=1m), then raise that to the power of 3 (10^2)^3=10^6

615
Q

In a doppler ultrasound what is held constant?

A

Vo, since the person isn’t moving

616
Q

What factors impact resistance?

A

type of material, temperature (higher/greater), length (longer/greater), area (wider/smaller)

617
Q

what are 5 unit conversions should no for electrostatics?
Current
Volts
Farads
Ohms
Watts

A

1A=1C/s (amp=coloumb/sec)
1F=1C/V (farads=coloumb/volt)
1V=1J/C (volts=joules/coloumb)
1Ohm=1V/A (ohms= Volts/current)
Watts=J/s=VC/s=VA

618
Q

an increase is perceived frequency can be attributed to

A

a decrease in wavelength as an object moves closer

619
Q

Longer wavelengths refract_____light and have a _______ index of refraction

A

less, and have a smaller index of refraction

620
Q

If the angle between the displacement and force is 90 degrees

A

than Work is zero because cos (90)=0

621
Q
A

electrons do not equal heat

622
Q

electric field lines point

A

away from positive

623
Q

What are the directions of electric field, magnetic field, and lorentz force?

A

They are all perpendicular to each other (right hand rule)

624
Q

Oxidized molecules change to a _____oxidation state
reduced molecules change to a _______oxidation state

A

higher oxidation state (oxidized =^oxidation state)

625
Q

how to find standard reduction potential

A

1) flip signs to be correct for equation
2) add these values
Erxn=Ered+Eox

626
Q
A
627
Q

Adding an ____ to a solution that produces an aqueous base will shift equilbrium forward; vice versa is true for aqueous acid

A

acid

628
Q

Key LeChatlier Shifts

A
629
Q

Formation of a disulfide bridge is an

A

oxidation reaction (lost their Hs)

630
Q

How to classify L or D on sugars

A

chiral carbon furthest from the anomeric carbon-> if R than D if L than S

631
Q

How are ketals and acetals formed?

A

acid-catalyzed nucleophilic addition of two alcohols to a ketone or aldehyde

632
Q

How is wax formed?

A
633
Q

Explain examples of when a retro-aldol reaction would create 2 ketones, an aldehyde and a ketone, or two aldehydes

A
634
Q

addition of a primary amine to a ketone or aldehyde produces an

A

imine

635
Q

addition of a secondary amine to a ketone or aldehyde produces an

A

enamine

636
Q

Resonate structures involve the movement of _____ not _______

A

electrons NOT hydrogens!! Just charges should be moved Hs should not be added or subtracted from anywhere

637
Q

What is the molecular geometry of XeO3?

A
638
Q

What are the conversion factors between pressures?

A
639
Q

Distinguish between ionization energy, electron affinity, and electronegativity

A

ionization energy: energy required to remove an electron
electron affinity: energy released when an electron added
electronegativity: ability to attract electrons

640
Q

In a coordinate covalent system what acts as lewis bases and lewis acids?

A

the center is a lewis acid! counterintuitive since normally metals, so be careful!!

641
Q

What are the diatomic elements as gas

A

H2, N2, F2, O2, I2, Cl2, Br2
Have no fear of ice cold beer!!!
BE CAREFUL: H2 is hydrogen, helium is NOT diatomic

642
Q

As you discharge a capacitor, what happens?

A

C=q/V, as you discharge a capacitor the charge is reduced and the voltage reduces,

643
Q

What equation relates pressure to density?

A

P=p (density)gravityheight

Be careful!!

Fbuoy=densityvelocitygravity

644
Q

what is the index of refraction of air?

A

1!

645
Q

If medium doesn’t change when a sound moves than

A

Speed does not change!!

646
Q

What are the products of triglyceride saponification?

A
647
Q

If a compound is at saturation, what can be said about increasing its concentration on the rate of an enzyme

A

it is constant (straight horizontal line of concentration)

648
Q

How does cholesterol structure differ from structures of phospholipids, triglycerides, and fatty acids?

A
649
Q

What is true of something that is lipophilic?

A

it does not dissolve readily in an aqueous layer; not water soluble

650
Q

23 mM breakdown

A

23 mmol/L (milli applies only to the top. If it was top AND bottom the units would cancel to just be M)

651
Q

What is the structure of flavin?

A
652
Q

Common structures to be familiar with

A
653
Q

What is true of dipoles in linear molecules like CO2?

A

They cancel each other out making it not polar

654
Q

L->m^3->cm^3

A

1L=110^-3 m^3=110^3 cm^3

655
Q

How does fluorescence work?

A

Absorbed radiation has a photon energy larger then the photon energy of the radiation emitted through fluorescence

Milesdown”Occurs when a species absorbs high-frequency light and then returns to its ground state in multiple steps. Each step has less energy than the absorbed light and is within the visible range of the electromagnetic spectrum.”

656
Q
A

The original band should ALSO decrease over time

657
Q

What does a detergent do?

A

Extracts something from the membrane; because of this it has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions

658
Q

mass defect

A

The difference between the mass of the unbonded
nucleons and the mass of the bonded nucleons within
the nucleus. The unbonded constituents have more
energy and, therefore, more mass than the bonded
constituents. The mass defect is the amount of mass
converted to energy during nuclear fusion.

659
Q

Enantiomers have the same (3 things) and different (1 thing)

A

Density, boiling point, IR spectrum
same smell!

660
Q

Cross sectional area of a tube (including blood vessels)?

A

pi*r^2

661
Q

What will be a characteristic of a carboxylic acid at 7pH?

A

It will have a negative charge! Will not be polar neutral. Think about D and E amino acids; carboxylic group but at physiological pH they have a - charge

662
Q

Histidines contain what group? What about Tryptophan?

A

Imidazole=Histidine, Indole=Tryphophan
more complicated structure has easier name

663
Q

Formate vs carbonate vs bicarbonate vs acetate

A

Formate: H!- HCO2
Carbonate: CO3
Bicarbonate: HCO3- (think bicarbonate buffer system)
Acetate: CH3CO2

664
Q

at constant volume and temperature, Pressure and number of mols have a

A

direct relationship

665
Q

Phosphorylated threonine and serine behave most similarly to

A

glutamate and aspartate