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Bio/Biochem Flashcards

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1
Q

Where is growth hormone released from?

A

anterior pituitary gland

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2
Q

where is ghrelin released from, what does it act on, and what does it result in?

A

released from the stomach cells it is a gut hormone, that acts on the hypothalamus, and stimulates appetite (think food gremlin)

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3
Q

what is a tropic hormone

A

a hormone that targets endocrine cells and stimulates the release of other hormones

Opposite of direct!!

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4
Q

what is a steroid hormone

A

a group of hormones derived from cholesterol that act as chemical messengers in the body

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5
Q

What happens in G0 phase

A

resting phase, is the phase of the cell cycle during which a cell isn’t dividing or preparing to divide

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6
Q

what are the three main components of intercellular scaffolding

A

microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules

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7
Q

What do microtubules do?

A

regulate cell growth and movement

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8
Q

which direction does kinesin transport? Dynein?

A

kinesin: nucleus-> distant
dynein: distant->nucleus
D first, Dynein/Distant

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9
Q

what 3 things help maintain resting potential

A

passive transport, active transport, membrane selective permeability

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10
Q

how are substances filtered through the glomerular capillaries?

A

by size

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11
Q

If something is in the proximal convoluted tubule, was it filtered as the glomerulus

A

Yes- just have been small enough to pass through glomerulus to make it to PCT

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12
Q

what do hot temperatures cause? Cold temperatures?
Vaso____ and vaso____

A

hot- vasodilation
cold-vasoconstriction

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13
Q

what is the outermost layer of skin

A

epidermis

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14
Q

what is the most superficial layer of the epidermis

A

stratum corneum

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15
Q

what is the stratum corneum composed of and what purpose does it do?

A

Keratinocytes; barrier against external pathogen invasion, prevent water and salt loss thru skin surface

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16
Q

How does Ca 2+ work in muscle contraction?

A

Ca2+ binds to troponin-> troponin moves tropomyosin-> myosin moves actin

ca-tropo-tropomyo-myo

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17
Q

what does skeletal muscle contraction do to veins? Blood delivery to the heart?

A

Compress veins, increase the delivery of venous blood to the heart

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18
Q

which amino acid has an R-configuration?

A

cysteine

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19
Q

How do you calculate pI of arginine?

A

It’s basic, so

(pka NH3+ + pka R-group)/2

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20
Q

How do you calculate pI or Aspartic acid

A

It’s acidic so

(pka COOH +pka r-group)/2

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21
Q

How do you calculate pka from valine?

A

It’s non-polar/uncharged so

(pka COOH + pka NH3+)//2

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22
Q

What molecule is released during the formation of a peptide bond

A

H2O

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23
Q

What is the difference between an oligopeptide and polypeptide

A

oligopeptide= few (or any less than 20 but greater than 1 amino acid)
polypetide= many (more than 20)

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24
Q

what role does proline play in secondary structures

A

proline has a rigid structure, causes it to induce kinks in alpha-helices or turn in Beta sheets

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25
Q

what are stabilizing bonds of tertiary structures (4)?

A

van der waals forces
hydrogen bonds
ionic bonds
covalent bonds

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26
Q

What are three different prosthetic groups and what are the names of the conjugated proteins?

A

prosthetic groups: lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates
conjugated protein: lipoprotein, glycoprotein, nucleoproteins

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27
Q

How does heat work to denature proteins?

A

increase average kinetic energy->disrupting hydrophobic interactions and other weak forms of bonding

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28
Q

how do solutes work to denature proteins?

A

disrupt bond folding: secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure

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29
Q

The conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP and inorganic phosphate is most likely catalyzed by which class of enzyme

A

Lyase

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30
Q

How does gel electrophoresis separate out molecules

A

by molecule weight

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31
Q

What two metabolic pathways are activated to increase the production of glucose?

A

glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

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32
Q

what also is produced when Succinyl-CoA is converted to succinate in the citric acid cycle?

A

One NTP

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33
Q

How many NAD+ are consumed when glucose is converted to two acetyl-CoA molecules?

A

4

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34
Q

Michaelis-menten equation

A
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35
Q

what shift on a line weaver burke plot would show decreased Km and Vmax?

A
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36
Q

Catalysts do no effect…

A

equilibrium concentrations

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37
Q

increasing the amount of enzyme available has what effect on Vmax and Km?

A

increase Vmax
no change to Km

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38
Q

Which is the only R-configuration amino acid?

A

Cysteine

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39
Q

What are the 4 basic steps of every blotting technique?

A
  1. Gel electrophoresis to separate by size
  2. transfer from gel to membrane
  3. addition of probe
  4. visualization of probe
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40
Q

Which amino acids are the most common sites of phosphorylation? Why?

A

Serine, Threonine, and tyrosine because of their hydroxyl groups

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41
Q

what is collagen’s structure and where is it found?

A

trihelical structure (3 left handed helices woven together) and mostly found in extracellular matrix

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42
Q

Where is elastin found and what is it important for?

A

`extracellular matrix of connective tissue, stretches and recoils like a spring to help restore original shape of tissue

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43
Q

Keratins are in what category and what do they mostly make up?

A

They are intermediate filaments and make up hair and nails

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44
Q

What does actin make up in myofibrils?

A

microfilaments and the thin filaments in myofibrils

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45
Q

What is a key feature of actin’s structure and how does it aid in transport?

A

They are polar with a positive and negative side; allowing motor proteins to travel along it unidirectionally

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46
Q

Tubulin is the protein that makes up

A

microtubules

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47
Q

What role does myosin play in myofibrils?

A

Thick filament

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48
Q

What class of protein are cadherins?

A

cell adhesion molecules; hold 2 cells of the same or similar type together

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49
Q

What are 3 types of cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

A

cadherins, integrins, and selectins

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50
Q

What is the most common protein in immune response?

A

antibodies (aka immunoglobulins)

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51
Q

Where are antibodies produced? What do they do?

A

They’re produced in B-cells, and they neutralize tragets like bacteria and toxins and recruit other cells to help eliminate the threat

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52
Q

What is the structure of antibodies?

A

Y-shaped, two heavy chains and two light chains that are bound together thru cysteine bonds

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53
Q

When antibodies bind to antigens what are three potential outcomes?

A

1) Neutralize it -can’t exert any more effect on the body
2)Opsonization-mark it to be destroyed by other white blood cells
3)agglutinating- stay connected and clump together to then be phagocytized by macrophages

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54
Q

Are motor proteins catalytic?

A

Yes- because of the ATPase activity that they display

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55
Q

What type of adhesion does integrin aid in?

A

cell to protein in the extracellular matrix

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56
Q

What type of adhesion does selectin aid in?

A

cell to carbohydrates (usually on the surface of other cells)

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57
Q

What are the three types of G proteins in protein-coupled receptors/what they do?

A

Gs: Stimulates adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP in cell
Gi: Inhibits adenylate cyclase which decreases cAMP in the cell
Gq: activates phospholipase c

Gs: Stimulate
Gi: inhibit
Gq: mind your ps and qs- q activates phospholipase c

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58
Q

What 3 physical characteristics do both enzyme-linked receptors and G-protein coupled receptors both display?

A
  1. contain extracellular domain
  2. contain transmembrane domain
  3. Ligand binding
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59
Q

What type of ion channel is always open? Example

A

ungated channels; potassium channels

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60
Q

Electrophoresis general overview

A

Used to separate proteins
Attached to battery; anode and cathode
gel is normally polyacrylamide gel
travel based on size and charge

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61
Q

How does isoelectric focusing separate proteins?

A

Based on their pI; moves toward electrode until it reaches region of gel where pH=pI of protein

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62
Q

Native PAGE vs SDS PAGE

A

Native maintains protein shape, but results are difficult to compare b/c of mass-to-charge ratios differing
SDS denatures and makes size comparison more accurate, but cannot make that protein functional again

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63
Q

In size-exclusion chromatography which molecules elute first and why

A

large ones, because the smaller ones get trapped in small pores

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64
Q

what two factors have a role in how fast a protein moves in column chromatography

A

size and polarity

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65
Q

What are two methods used to determine protein structure? Which is the most popular?

A

Xray crystallography (most popular)
NMR spectroscopy

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66
Q

how can amino acid composition be determined?

A

could be by simple hydrolysis, but sequencing requires sequential degradation, like Edman degradation

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67
Q

What are the two colors of Bradford protein assays? What do they show

A

Starting color is a brown-green hue, if increased protein concentration is, then will turn to blue.
More blue=more protein

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68
Q

At what pH would one protein be best separated from two others with higher pIs in electrophoresis?

A

At a pH greater then the proteins pI, but less then the pI of the other two proteins

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69
Q

cell migration:

A

movement of cells

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70
Q

A hormone found in low concentrations, but has a strong effect would likely act on which types of receptors?
1. Enzyme-linked receptors
2. G protein-coupled receptor
3. Ligand-gated ion channels

A
  1. Enzyme-linked receptors
  2. G protein-coupled receptor

not ligand-gated bc there is no second messenger cascade, so small amount binding could not have a strong effect

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71
Q

Do antibodies bind to 1 or multiple different antigens?

A

one antigen

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72
Q

what method would be good to separate proteins of different sizes but similar pI?

A

Size-exclusion chromatography

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73
Q

Which amino acid structures are best used for UV spectroscopy

A

aromatic ones because of double bonds

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74
Q

How to establish a negative control

A

keep the conditions almost the same, but the addition of something that is known not to have thee desired effect

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75
Q

What is a parameter in research?

A

A measure using every person in a population, not of a sample

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76
Q

enantiomers

A

non-identical mirror image of each other; different chirality

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77
Q

how do you calculate the number of stereoisomers with a common backbone

A

2^number of chiral centers

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78
Q

diastereomers

A

two sugars in the same family (same #carbon, either ketoses or aldoses) that are not identical or mirror images

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79
Q

epimers

A

diastereomers that only differ at one position

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80
Q

What determines the D or L shape of carbohydrates

A

the -OH closest to the CH2OH group. If to the left=L if to the right=D

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81
Q

Cyclic hemiacetals are formed from

A

aldoses

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82
Q

Cyclic hemiketals are formed from

A

ketoses

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83
Q

What is the difference between an aldose and ketone?

A

Aldose: =O is at the end
Ketone: =O is in the middle

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84
Q

What is the difference between the alpha and beta anomeric forms of glucose?

A

Alpha= -OH group (that used to carbonyl) is axial and down
Beta=-OH group (that used to carbonyl) is equatorial and up

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85
Q

What is mutarotation in sugars? What is needed

A

the addition of water to open a hemiacetal chain and convert it to the other anomer (aloha to beta or vice versa)

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86
Q

Lactone sttucture and how it forms

A

Results from the oxidation of a hemiacetal ring (reducing sugar)

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87
Q

What two reagents can detect the presence of a reducing sugar? What colors do they turn when present

A

Tollen’s reagent: turns silvery
Tolkein: Silver haired elves

Benedicts reagent: produces solid

Eggs benedict: not runny

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88
Q

saturated vs unsaturated lipid fatty acid chain

A

saturated: only single bonds
unsaturated: at least one double bond

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89
Q

Sphingolipid structure

A

Have nitrogen in the backbone (part of sphingosine) rather than straight glycerol. simplest is the ceramide with just a hydrogen head

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90
Q

Isoprene formula and what important lipids they make up

A

C5H8 and they makeup terpenes and terpenoids

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91
Q

Common steroid structure

A

3 cyclohexanes and a cyclopentane

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92
Q

what do prostaglandins do, and what effects do they have on the body

A

They regulate cAMP levels, and effect muscle contraction, body temperature, sleep-wake cycle and fever/ pain

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93
Q

In which main two molecules does the human body store energy? Which is preferred?

A

Glycogen and triacylglycerols; triacylglycerols are preferred because of the long carbon chain

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94
Q

triglycerol structure

A

glycerol backbone esterified to three fatty acids

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95
Q

Name of animal cells used for storage of large triacylglycerol

A

adipocytes

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96
Q

What is the difference between deoxyribose and ribose

A

deoxyribose lacks an -OH group on the 2’ carbon

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97
Q

The common name for a guanine nucleotide

A

GTP

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98
Q

The name for an adenosine nucleotide

A

ATP

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99
Q

What are the names of the 5 important nucleotide/nucleoside bases?

A

adenine
guanine
cytosine
uracil
thymine

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100
Q

Directionally, How is the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA formed? Which way is it read?

A

The 3’ of the carbon of one group to the 5’ phosphate group of the next incoming sugar. It is read 5’ to 3’

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101
Q

Purine structure vs pyrimidine structure

A

purine= 2 ring, pyriminide=1 ring

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102
Q

What four rules must be satisfied to something to be considered aromatic

A
  1. cyclic
  2. planar
  3. conjugated
  4. 4n+2 =pi electrons (huckel’s rule)
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103
Q

Which bases are purines

A

Guanine and adenine

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104
Q

Which bases are pyrimidines

A

cytosine, thymine, uracil

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105
Q

What happens when DNA is denatured

A

the double helix is broken into single strands, but the covalent links between the nucleotides and backbone break

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106
Q

What are common ways to denature DNA

A

heat, alkaline pH, chemicals like urea

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107
Q

Can denatured DNA be brought back together?

A

Yes; by reannealing, when the denaturation condition is slowly removed

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108
Q

DNA is wound around ______ forming________

A

DNA is wound around histones forming chromatin

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109
Q

Nucleosomes are composed of

A

DNA wrapped around histones They are the rolled film shape, the dna is the the actual film line, and histones are the internal canister that wraps it up

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110
Q

Differences between heterochromatin and euchromatin

A

heterchromatin: dark, dense, transcriptionally silent
euchromatin: light uncondensed and expressed

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111
Q

Telomeres

A

located at the end of DNA, high G-C concentration helps prevent unraveling

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112
Q

What happens to telomeres during replication? What enzyme can this be remedied by?

A

They are shortened; can be reversed by telomerase

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113
Q

centromeres

A

located in the center of chromosomes and hold sister chromatids together. HIgh GC concentration

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114
Q

During what phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated

A

Anaphase

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115
Q

Which enzyme unwinds DNA

A

Helicase

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116
Q

DNA topoisomerases act by

A

cuts and then reseals strands to release the tension caused from positive super coiling

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117
Q

Why is DNA replication semiconservative

A

because each new strand also incorporates one parent strand

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118
Q

DNA polymerases function

A

read parent strands and generate daughter strands

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119
Q

What is the reading direction of DNA polymerase

A

3’-5’, but it synthesizes the new strand 5’-3’

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120
Q

Which strand has Okazaki fragments? Why?

A

Lagging strand, because DNA polymerase “reads” in the 3’ to 5’ direction

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121
Q

Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments

A

DNA ligase

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122
Q

Mutations of _______ cause oncogenes

A

proto-oncogenes

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123
Q

Tumor suppressor genes

A

code for proteins that reduce cell cycling or promote DNA repair

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124
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle does mismatch repair happen

A

G2

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125
Q

How does nucleotide excision repair work

A

fix helix deforming lesions of DNA using excision endonuclease

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126
Q

how to fix thymine dimers

A

nucleotide excision repair using excision endonuclease

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127
Q

How to fix cytosine deamination

A

base excision repair using AP endonuclease

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128
Q

Which is not a glycolipid?
a.cerebroside
b.globoside
c.ganglioside
d.sphingomyelin

A

sphingomyelin; it’s a phospholipid because it doesn’t have a glycosidic bond

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129
Q

Why are triacylglycerols used in the human body for energy storage?

A

The carbon atoms of fatty acid chains are highly reduced and therefore yield more energy upon oxidation

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130
Q

What vitamin is necessary for the posttranslational introduction of calcium-binding sites

A

Vitamin K

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131
Q

Saturated or unsaturated make a more fluid solution?

A

Unsaturated

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132
Q

What inhibits prostaglandin synthesis?

A

NSAIDs

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133
Q

A 95% confidence interval will fall within what distance from the mean?

A

=/- 2 sigma

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134
Q

How is cDNA created

A

the reverse transcription of processed mRNA

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135
Q

What do endonucleases do and what are a couple of things they’re used for

A

Endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA
Used for:
DNA repair
Scientists during DNA analyses as restriction enzymes
(cleave DNA before electrophoresis, southern blotting)

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136
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle are DNA repair systems least active?

A

M

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137
Q

Which enzyme transcribes mRNA from template DNA

A

RNA polymerase

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138
Q

What enzyme charges or activates tRNA with an amino acid?

A

aa: aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

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139
Q

Many rRNA molecules can function as

A

ribozymes

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140
Q

Where is the wobble position in codons

A

the third base pair- because changes to it can still result in the same protein (ie be a silent mutation)

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141
Q

3 types of point mutations

A

silent: nothing happens
missense: 1 aa difference
nonsense: 1 aa difference is a premature stop codon

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142
Q

free card:)

A

woohoo

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143
Q

The start codon is _____ and codes for_____

A

AUG-methionine

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144
Q

The 3 stop codons are

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

U Are ANnoying
U Go Away
U Are Gone

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145
Q

where does RNA polymerase II bind in the promoter region during transcription of mRNA

A

TATA box

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146
Q

what is the name of the primary transcript formed immediately after transcription

A

hnRNA; after posttranscriptional processing is mRNA

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147
Q

what two posttranscriptional processes help protect against degradation

A

addition of 5’ cap and 3’ poly-A-tail

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148
Q

Which type/ of RNA polymerase is associated with which type/types of RNA?

A

RNA polymerase I: rRNA
RNA polymerase II: mRNA also hnRNA and snRNA
RNA polymerase III: tRNA and some rRNA

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149
Q

where does translation occur

A

ribosomes

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150
Q

Chaperones

A

aid in posttranslational protein folding

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151
Q

Name for post-translational addition of lipid groups to membrane-bound enzymes

A

prenylation

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152
Q

What are the 3 sites of ribosomes important during translation?

A

APE
A-site
P-site
E-site

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153
Q

lac operon is what type of system?

A

negative inducible system- under normal conditions turned off, but by removing bound repressor lac operon turns on

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154
Q

trp operon works as what type of system?

A

negative repressible system- under normal conditions are on, but can be turned off by coupling of repressor and corepressor binding to operator site

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155
Q

Histone acetylation results in

A

decreased positive charge on lysine residues and weaker interactions of histone with DNA- open chromatin, easier access of transcription

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156
Q

Difference between promoter and enhancer locations in DNA

A

promoters: within 25 base pairs of the transcription start site
enhancers: more than 25 base pairs from the transcription state site

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157
Q

What role does peptidyl transferase play in protein synthesis

A

catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between incoming aa in A site and the growing polypeptide chain in the P site

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158
Q

The promoter is the location of where what binds.

A

RNA polymerase

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159
Q

Enhancers enhance the activity of

A

RNA polymerase at a single promoter site

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160
Q

3 types of RNA are found in the spliceosome

A

snRNA, hnRNA, snRNP

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161
Q

connection of a carboxylate group of one amino acid to a the amino group of an incoming amino acid form what type of bond?

A

Amide (aka a petpide bond)

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162
Q

What do flippases do?

A

They help flip lipids from one side of the the membrane through to other (difficult because middle is so hydrophobic)

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163
Q

Lipid rafts

A

groupings of similar lipids that can serve as attachment points for other biomolecules

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164
Q

List the following from most to least plentiful in the membrane:
Carbs, nucleic acids, proteins, lipids

A

Lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids

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165
Q

what is one way to visually tell if a fatty acid tail is saturated or unsaturated?

A

Unsaturated will have a bend or kink in the chain (double bond)

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166
Q

How does cholesterol impact membrane fluidity at high and low temps?

A

High temps: decreases fluidity
Low temps: increases fluidity

bidirectional!

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167
Q

Gap junctions

A

Allow direct cell to cell transport of water and some solutes

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168
Q

Tight junctions

A

physical link between cells as they form a single layer of tissue. DO NOT allow the transport of solutes or water

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169
Q

The formula for osmotic pressure

A
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170
Q

What thermodynamic factor is primarily responsible for passive transport?

A

Entroopy

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171
Q

resting membrane potential is least likely to be -75, 0, or +35?

A

0, because the resting membrane potential

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172
Q

Inner mitochondrial membrane vs outer mitochondrial

A

inner is much more impermeable and lacks cholesterol

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173
Q

gangliosides are a category of

A

sphingolipids

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174
Q

Where is GLUT 2 located? km high or low?

A

hepatocytes and pancreatic cells/ km high

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175
Q

Where is GLUT4 located?km high or low?

A

adipose tissue and muscle/km low

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176
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis

A

phosphofructokinase-1

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177
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of fermentation

A

lactate dehydrogenase

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178
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis

A

glycogen phophorylase

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179
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis

A

fructose-1,6-biphosphatase

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180
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

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181
Q

When should the cell turn on glycolysis?

A

when it needs energy (high AMP)

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182
Q

When should the cell turn off glycolysis?

A

When it has sufficient energy (high ATP)

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183
Q

What do hexokinase and glucokinase do in glycolysis? what is the difference between them?

A

They both are the first step of glycolysis and convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.

Glucokinase is used in the liver rather than hexokinase which is used every where else

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184
Q

What are the differences between hexokinase and glucokinase?

A

hexokinase: in most tissues, low km, inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate

glucokinase: in hepatocytes and pancreatic B-islets, high km, induced by insulin

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185
Q

What does phosphofructokinase-1 do?

A

In glycolysis converts fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-biphosphate using ATP

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186
Q

Insulin _______PFK-1 and glucagon _________PFK-1 in hepatocytes

A

Insulin stimulates PFK-1 and glucagon inhibits PFK-1 in hepatocytes

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187
Q

What does glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatase do in glycolysis

A

catalyze the oxidation and inorganic phosphate addition to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphateglycerate
and reduction of NAD+ to NADH

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188
Q

3-phosphoglycerate kinase catalyzes the production of what two things in glycolysis?

A

1)3-phosphoglycerate
2) ATP

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189
Q

What earlier product of glycolysis activates pyruvate kinase? What is this called?

A

fructose 1,6-bisphosphate,
called feed-forward activation

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190
Q

What is the key enzyme of fermentation? What does it do

A

lactate dehydrogenase, and it oxidizes NADH to NAD+

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191
Q

Which glycolysis intermediate can be used for triacylglycerol synthesis in hepatic and adipose tissue?

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

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192
Q

What are the irreversible enzymes of glycolysis

A

hexokinase, glucokinase, PFK-1, Pyruvate kinase

How Glycolysis Pushes Forward the Process: Kinases

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193
Q

What is galactose phosphorylated by?

A

galactokinase, trapping it in cell

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194
Q

What is fructose phosphorylated by?

A

fructokinase, trapping it in the cell

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195
Q

What are the 3 reactants of the PDH complex?

A

Pyruvate, NAD+, CoA

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196
Q

What are the 3 products of the PDH complex?

A

Acetyl-CoA, NADH, and CO2 are the products

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197
Q

What does Pyruvate dehydrogenase do?

A

Convert pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

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198
Q

What stimulates PDH? What inhibits it?

A

Stimulates: insulin
Inhibits: acetyl-CoA

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199
Q

Glycogen

A

A branched polymer of glucose, is a storage form of glucose

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200
Q

How is glycogen used in the liver vs in skeletal muscle?

A

Liver: glycogen is broken down to maintain levels of glucose
skeletal muscle: glycogen is broken down to provide glucose during vigorous exercise

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201
Q

In what form do plants store excess glucose?

A

Starch

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202
Q

Glycogenesis

A

The synthesis of glycogen granules

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203
Q

glycogenolysis

A

The breaking down of glycogen

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204
Q

Two key enzymes of glycogenesis

A
  1. glycogen synthase (a 1-4 links keep extending branches of glycogen)
  2. Branching enzyme (a 1-6 puts a new branch on glycogen

a-1,4 keeps the same branch moving “4ward”, while a 1-SIX puts a new branch in the MIX

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205
Q

two key enzymes of glycogenolysis

A
  1. glycogen phosphorylase (breaks a 1-4 links)
  2. debranching enzyme (breaksa 1-6 bond)
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206
Q

What are the key counterregulatory hormones to insulin (4)?

A

glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol, growth hormone

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207
Q

Glucogenic amino acids

A

can be converted into intermediates that feed into gluconeogenesis
all of them except the Ls leucine and lysine

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208
Q

Which 2 enzymes of gluconeogenesis bypass pyruvate kinase of glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase and PEPCK

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209
Q

Which enzyme of gluconeogenesis bypasses glucokinase? Where is it found?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase; found only in the endoplasmic reticulum of the liver

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210
Q

What are the two major metabolic products of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH

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211
Q

What are the 3 primary functions of NADPH

A
  1. Lipid biosynthesis
  2. bactericidal bleach formation in white blood cells (helps with bactericidal)
  3. maintenance of glutathione stores to protect against reactive oxygen species
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212
Q

What four molecules other than pyruvate can be used to make acteyl-CoA

A

fatty acids, ketogenic amino acids, ketones, alcohol

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213
Q

What is the first step of the citric acid cycle?

A

Condensation rxn of Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate catalyzed by citrate synthase

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214
Q

In the citric acid cycle, isocitrate is oxidized to alpha-ketoglutarate by

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

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215
Q

Substrates of the citric acid cycle

A

Pyruvate
Citrate
Isocitrate
a-ketoglutarate
Succinyl-CoA
Succinate
Fumerate
Malate
Oxaloacetate

Please, Can I Keep Selling Seashells For Money, Officer

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216
Q

from glycolysis thru oxidative phosphorylation, how much ATP is yielded?

A

32 ATP

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217
Q

What are the 3 checkpoints of the citric acid cycle that can be inhibited or stimulated?

A
  1. citrate synthase
  2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (RATE LIMITING STEP)
    3.a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
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218
Q

What inhibits citrate synthase?

A

ATP, NADH, succinyl-CoA, citrate

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219
Q

What inhibits isocitrate dehydrogenase? Stimulates?

A

Inhibit: ATP, NADH
Stimulate: ADP, NAD+

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220
Q

What are the 4 complexes of the ETC each most responsible for?

A

Complex I: NADH-> CoQH2 (Co-enzyme Q)
Complex II: Succinate-> CoQH2
Complex III: CoQH2->Cytochrome c
Complex IV:Cytochrome c+ O2->2H2O

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221
Q

Why does cyanide have such an intense effect on the body?

A

Cyanide attaches to iron group needed for the last step of the ETC (Complex IV) and prevents the transfer of electrons

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222
Q

proton motive force

A

generated by the ETC, creates an electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane which drives ATP synthase

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223
Q

What are two shuttle methods used to help NADH enter the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

-malate-aspartate shuttle (more efficient)
-Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle

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224
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation

A

The process by which ATP is generated via harnessing the proton gradient and utilizing ATP synthase

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225
Q

which GLUT transporter is used by cells in the liver to store excess glucose and by beta cells in the pancreas as a glucose sensor

A

GLUT 2

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226
Q

Which organ does not require a constant source of glucose from the blood for energy during a fast?

A

Liver- it can produce its own glucose through gluconeogenesis

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227
Q

When b-oxidation is predominant, the TCA will shift to do what

A

Shift backwards to produce oxaloacetate for gluconeogenesis

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228
Q

Citrate is a negative allosteric regulator of what step in glycolysis

A

phosphofructokinase-1

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229
Q

Does fructose enter glycolysis unstream or downstream of PFK-1?

A

Downstream

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230
Q

Of glycolysis, TCA, and the ETC which is involved in anaerobic metabolism

A

Glycolysis

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231
Q

Where is the citric acid cycle located?

A

In the mitochondrial matrix (NOT the outer or inner mitochondrial membrane)

232
Q

Fatty acids enter the catabolic pathway in the form of

A

Acetyl-CoA

233
Q

Reduction of fatty acids results in what during metabolism?

A

palmitic acid

234
Q

How much ATP is produced from 1 FADH2

A

1.5 ATP

235
Q

What type of enzyme catalyzes GDP->GTP and ADP->ATP

A

phosphatase

236
Q

Which complex of the ETC does not contribute to the proton-motive force?

A

Complex II

237
Q

Increasing insulin ______ lipid storage

A

increases; leading to weight gain

238
Q

chylomicrons and VLDLs are primarily responsible for transporting __________

A

triacylglycerols

239
Q

LDLs and HDLs are primarily responsible for transporting_________

A

cholesterol

240
Q

apoliproteins (aka apoproteins) are the protein component of lipoproteins and aid in

A

signaling

241
Q

What two organs synthesize lipoproteins?

A

Liver, intestine

242
Q

fatty acid synthesis is stimulated by

A

insulin

243
Q

________ is the primary end product of fatty acid synthesis

A

palmitic acid

244
Q

fatty acid synthesis is the reverse reaction to

A

Beta-oxidation

245
Q

fatty acids are synthesized in the ___________ and modified by enzymes in the ___________

A

fatty acids are synthesized in the cytoplasm and modified by enzymes in the smooth ER

246
Q

Where are ketone bodies produced?

A

Liver

247
Q

Under what conditions are ketone bodies used?

A

During prolonged starvation

248
Q

The bulk of protein digestion occurs in the

A

small intestine

249
Q

What does ΔG0’ adjust for?= that ΔG0 doesn’t?

A

pH-standard state 7 pH

250
Q

What type of reactions is ATP used to fuel?

A

Energetically unfavorable ones

251
Q

How much energy does ATP hydrolysis yield?

A

about 30 kJ/mol

252
Q

FMN is a ________ electron carrier that contains a modified ________.

A

FMN is a membrane-bound electron-carrier that contains a modified vitamin B2

**modified B2 makes it a flavoprotein

253
Q

During the postprandial state there is more ________ and less__________

A

During the postprandial state (well fed state), there is more anabolism and less catabolism

254
Q

Which types of hormones become more active in the postabsorptive state?

A

Counterregulatory hormones
(glucagon, cortisol, norepinephrine, epinephrine, growth hormone)

255
Q

During which state is there the greatest decrease in insulin levels

A

postabsorptive state

256
Q

What tissue is least able to change its fuel source during periods of prolonged starvation

A

anaerobic- most notably red blood cells

257
Q

What type of hormone is insulin?

A

Peptide hormone

258
Q

What type of hormone is glucagon?

A

Peptide hormone

259
Q

Where is insulin released from? Glucagon?

A

Insulin- Beta cells of the pancreatic islet cells of langerhans
Glucagon- alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of langerhans

260
Q

Cortisol is a type of

A

glucocorticoid and steroid hormone

261
Q

Glucocorticoids are secreted from the __________ while catecholamines are secreted from the ___________

A

Glucocorticoids are secreted from the adrenal cortex while catecholamines are secreted from the adrenal medulla

262
Q

What are the preferred fuels of the liver in well-fed state and fasting state?

A

well-fed: glucose and AA
fasting: fatty acids

263
Q

What are the preferred fuels of resting skeletal muscle in well-fed and fasting states?

A

well-fed: glucose
fasting: fatty acids, ketones

264
Q

What are the preferred fuels of cardiac muscle in well-fed state and fasting state?

A

wf: fattty acids
fast: fatty acids and ketones

265
Q

What are the preferred fuels of the adipose tissue in well-fed state and fasting state?

A

wf: glucose
fasting: fatty acids

266
Q

What are the preferred fuels of the brain in well-fed state and fasting state?

A

wf: glucose
fasting: glucose (only ketones in prolonged fast)

267
Q

What are the preferred fuels of red blood cells in well-fed state and fasting state?

A

wf and fasting: glucose

268
Q

What is the short-term source of fuel for active skeletal muscles?

A

Creatine phosphate

269
Q

What organ consumes the greatest amount of glucose relative to its percentage of body mass?

A

The brain

270
Q

Leptin’s effect

A

decreases appetite by suppressing orexin (which stimulates appetite)

271
Q

Adipocytes

A

compose adipose tissue and help with fat storage

272
Q

What enzyme breaks down triacylglycerols in adipocytes?

A

Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)

273
Q

Chylomicrons originate in the _______ while VLDL originates in the _________

A

Chylomicrons originate in the small intestine while VLDL originates in the liver

VLDL- basically has LIVER letters

274
Q

Apoliproteins

A

Control the interactions between lipoproteins and the environment; without them lipoproteins could not properly transfer in and out of cells

275
Q

What does LCAT help with?

A

-allowing HDL to transfer cholesterol to the liver

276
Q

Which is the only fatty acid humans can synthesize?

A

Palamatic acid (16:0, 16 carbons, no double bonds)

277
Q

ketolysis

A

breakdown of ketone bodies to acetyl-CoA for energy

278
Q

amino acids with ______ carbon chains will most energy

A

long, the more carbons the better!

279
Q

The free energy of hydrolysis of ATP compared to ADP

A

nearly the same

280
Q

What is the reduction half-reaction in the last step of the ETC?

A

O2+4E-+4H+->2H2O
just good to know the water part really

281
Q

In a well-fed state cardiac muscles run off of

A

fatty acids

282
Q

phosphorylation and dephosphorylation modify which type of bonds?

A

Covalent

283
Q

Why are glucocorticoids implicated in stress-related weight gain?

A

they increase glucose levels, which cause insulin secretion

284
Q

Which organ is most sensitive to oxygen-deprivation?

A

The brain

285
Q

How to tell a D-sugar Fischer projections? Beta?

A

the O is to the left of the bottom carbon (D) and O is to the left of top carbon (beta)

286
Q

How does histone associate with DNA?

A

form salt bridges between positively charged residues and negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA

287
Q

How can you tell something is a racemic mixture?

A

It says it has no optical activity

opposite rotations so their values cancel each other out

288
Q

kDa is what type of value?

A

molar mass!

1 kDa= 1 kg/mol

289
Q

what shape does a protein with positive cooperativity show? What is Hill’s coefficient?

A

sigmoidal and Hills coeff>1

290
Q

The secretion of stored posterior pituitary hormones is mediated by

A

depolarization of nerve terminals

anterior=first=more independent of hypothalamus

291
Q

The release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex is mediated by

A

secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone from the anterior pituitary

292
Q

The endothelium makes up the inner most surface of what system

A

cardiovascular system (heart and blood vessels)

293
Q

What is synapsis and during what phase of meiosis does it occur?

A

Synapsis: joining of homologous chromosomes into tetrads during prophase 1

294
Q

Isoprene unit structure and what do multiple isoprene units together make?

A

A terpene!

295
Q

Based on this image what bond and at what positions link a GlcNAc residue of the glycan chain to a mannose residue?

A

A glycosidic bond between carbon 1 of mannose and carbon 4 of GlcNAc

**makes sense bc the 1 carbon of GlcNAc is already participating in the bond with the earlier GlcNAc (makes sense orientation adding the tip to tail so to speak)

296
Q

The isoelectric point can be described as the point where a protein has a ______charge

A

net neutral

297
Q

when pH=pI how do proteins function

A

leat soluble and least stable, at their lowest
want to be close but not exactly

298
Q

What is the order in which information travels from the CNS to the periphery (5)?

A

Cerebral cortex-> spinal cord-> efferent neurons-> interneurons->muscle tissue

299
Q

A medication to treat symptoms of Parkinson’s would most likely do what?

A

Increase dopamine concentrations

300
Q

An action potential that causes a muscle response would most likely have what 2 processes involved related to Na+ and Ca2+?

A
  1. Na+ influx, and Ca2+ release
301
Q

What happens between G2 and M phases of the cell cycle?

A

G2: ensures chromosomes have been replicated and prepares cells for M
M: mitosis- where cell division happens

302
Q

Totipotent stem cells’ main characteristic that separates them from multi or pluripotent stem cells

A

Ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body!

How they’re all the same: All stem cells have ability to self-renewal of undifferentiated stem cells

303
Q

Higher levels of pro-apoptotic gene expression would most likely have what effect on cancer proliferation

A

SLOW proliferation by killing more cancer cells

304
Q

What is the main stabilizing factor in the peptide bonds found in the backbone of proteins?

A

Resonance
They exhibit resonant stability around the carbonyl carbons

305
Q

What is the process called of binding complementary nucleotides in RNA and DNA?

A

Hybridization

306
Q

What is the process called of stringing together nucleotides to form a single-stranded RNA strand?

A

polymerization

307
Q

Between which groups is there a statistically significant difference in results?

A

0:1 and 10:1
0:1 and 5:1
1:1 and 10:1

308
Q

What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate immunity: nonspecific generalized immunity (granulocytes heavilly involved like eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils)
adaptive immunity: immunity against a particular pathogen that the body has previously been exposed to

309
Q

What is unique about red-blood cells?

A

They do not have DNA or a membrane-bound nucleus

310
Q

PKA is stimulated by

A

cAMP

311
Q

What does PKA do to a substrate? What enzyme could reverse this process?

A

PKA adds a phosphate group to a substrate; removal of a phosphate group requires PHOSPHATASE enzymes

312
Q

Phosphatase vs phosphorylase

A

Phosphorylase: add phosphate to substrate
phosphatase: remove phosphate from substrate

313
Q

Pupils _____ is a classic response of the ________ nervous system during a __________ response

A

Pupils dilation is a classic response of the sympathetic nervous system during a fight or flight response

parasympathetic: rest and digest

314
Q

what effect does aldesterone have in the nephron?

A

Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct by upregulating sodium-potassium pumps along the lining of the nephron

315
Q

What happens to cells undergoing mitosis as they slowly get closer to apoptosis?

A

Chromosomal telomeres shorten each round of division and eventually, chromones lose them entirely undergoing apoptosis

316
Q

What are characteristics of mitochondrial DNA?

A
  1. Located in cytoplasm
  2. Maternally-inherited
  3. circular structure
  4. undergoes binary fission (asexual reproduction- happens so during cell division each daughter cell has ample amounts)
317
Q

What are synaptonemal complexes associated with?

A

Complexes made out of chromosomes (in nucleus, not related to cytoplasm)

318
Q

During what phase of meiosis does cross-over happen?

A

Prophase I

319
Q

What is the main difference between single and double cross-over?

A

Single-crossover events affect only the ends of chromosome arms, whereas double-crossover events can affect segments in the middle

320
Q

When is isomerase likely used?

A

Isomerases are used when molecules have the same atomic ingredients but different structures (ie double bond character)

321
Q

Increased quantities of insulin in the body will lead to increased synthesis of which two molecules?

A

glycogen and lipids= both used to store energy

322
Q

High ammonia levels in blood will result from what type of metabolism?

A

Protein metabolism; ammonia is a waste product of protein metabolism

323
Q

What is the main benefit of alveoli in the lungs?

A

Increased surface area!! Increased amount increase the rate at which O2 and CO2 can diffuse through the lung epithelium

324
Q

Mitotic spindle are made of

A

microtubules

325
Q

What is the composition of fatty-acid tails?

A

carbons and hydrogens (not good oxidizing agents or electron acceptors)

326
Q

What is the main characteristic of bacteria and archaea?

A

They do not have nuclei!

327
Q

How can plasma proteins help buffer blood?

A

plasma proteins can help buffer blood by amino acids releasing or absorbing protons (acting as Bronsted-Lowry acids or bases)

328
Q

Analogous vs homologous structures

A

analogous: evolved independently but serve the same function (wing of bird and wing of bee)

homologous: have similar evolutionary history even if different functions now (an arm of a human and flipper of a walrus)

329
Q

Which are the two stereospecific steps of the citric acid cycle?

A

Chiral:
IM cool AF
D-isocrite and L-malate which are produced by aconitase and fumarase

330
Q

Does ADP or ATP inhibit the citric acid cycle?

A

ATP!! It is being produced, so more of it would make it not run.

ATP is also not used to produce anything in the citric acid cycle

331
Q

Which complex in the ETC does not pump protons into the intermembrane space? What affect does it have on pH?

A

Complex II does not, and therefore does not affect pH!!!

protons/H/pH all go together

332
Q

What is true regarding the reduction potentials of each subsequent step of the ETC?

A

They must have a HIGHER REDUCTION POTENTIAL than the step before

Must have a higher tendency to be reduced or gain electrons!!

333
Q

Between which two complexes of the ETC is cytochrome c?

A

Complex II and Complex III
cytochrome has 2 cs and than c so
2->3 Cs

334
Q

What effect does fructose-2,6-bisphosphate have on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

A

allosterically activates PFK-1 in glycolysis, thus increasing it
allosterically inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphate in gluconeogenesis, inhibiting it

335
Q

By what pathway does bound insulin activate glycolysis?

A
336
Q

What role do T-tubules play in muscle cells?

A

it is where the action potential travels down from the sarcolemma, causing it to open its channels and release Ca2+ into the cytoplasm

essentially: means by which action potential travels (causing SR Ca2+ into cytoplasm)

337
Q

Between what 2 types of molecules is a Schiff base formed?

A

a primary amine (N bonded to 1 carbon) and a carbonyl group

Pic is example with Lysine

338
Q

Light causes photoreceptor ___________
and dark causes photoreceptor ________

A

Light causes photoreceptor hyperpolarization
and dark causes photoreceptor depolarization

339
Q

Where does fermentation occur?

A

The cytosol

340
Q

How does substrate-level phosphorylation work?

A

the energy released from one reaction is directly coupled with the endergonic phosphorylation of ADP to produce ATP

341
Q

During which step of metabolism does oxidative phosphorylation happen?

A

ETC!!!
If the question does not involve the ETC, it does not involve oxidative phosphorylation

342
Q

what connects cells in cardiac muscles that is unique to that specific type of muscle?

A

Intercolated disks

343
Q

higher pKa= _____acidity

A

lower

344
Q

What are the two biggest characteristics of the gene sequences of telomeres?

A
  1. Non-coding
  2. highly repetitive
345
Q

Transcription of a gene involves_______polymerase, not __________polymerase

A

Transcription of a gene involves RNA polymerase, not DNA polymerase
-DNA Polymerase is involved in replication, not transcription

346
Q

Down-regulation of K+ channels would result in what stage of an action potential to occur more slowly? does this make the neuron hypo or hyper excitable?

A

Repolarization occurs more slowly, meaning cells will remain above RMP longer, making it hyper excitable

347
Q

What are the 4 different types of neuroglia in the CNS?

A
  1. Ependymal cells: produce cerebrospinal fluid
    2.Oligodendrocytes: form myelin sheaths
    3.Microglia: serve as immune cells (phagocytize damaging things)
  2. astrocytes: contact blood vessels and maintain neurotransmitter homeostatis. Help develop and maintain other glial cells
348
Q

What type of bonds/numbers does A-T form? G-C?

A

A-T: 2 hydrogen bonds from nitrogenous groups
G-C: 3 hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous groups

349
Q

What are two primary factors that generally determine the level of blood pressure?

A

Cardiac output (HR*SV) and resistance to blood flow

350
Q

Effects of vasoconstriction vs vasodilation

A

vasoconstriction: decreases blood flow to an organ
ex. when your body attempts to stop hemorrhage

vasodilation: increases blood flow to an organ
ex. during strenuous activity to your muscles or to your cheeks when blushing

351
Q

If toxic CN- disrupts cytochrome c oxidase, what would you expect?
I. increased oxygen demand.

II. reduced intracellular ATP.

III. apoptosis or necrosis.

A

II and III only; if cytochrome c isn’t workin, there would be no demand for oxygen since it won’t be reduced

352
Q
A

Buffers work in the flat region of the graph because these are the regions where the pH changes very little with respect to the titrant

353
Q

Chemoattractant definition

A

a substance that attracts motile cells of a particular type

354
Q

Antibodies bind to

A

antigens; no specific structure but tend to be macromolecules or proteins on the surface of the cell

355
Q

What are the hormones involved in Calcium blood levels? Explain their effects

A

Hormones that regulate Ca: PTH (increases Ca blood conc, increases osteoclast activity releasing calcium into blood from bones) and calcitonin (decreases Ca in blood, osteoblast activity increases as it stores calcium in bones)

356
Q

operators are found in ______ (type of cell)

A

prokatyotes

357
Q

Myelin main effect

A

increases the velocity of action potentials

358
Q

commenalism

A

one species benefits while the other does not

359
Q

as long as calcium is present in the muscle cell….

A

it will continue to contract! Tetanic contraction

360
Q

acronym for cell development and each explained

A

More Blasting Gas, I’m Nervous
Morula (16 cells)
Blastocyst (developed blastocoel)
Gatsrula (ectoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm)
neurulation (ectoderm-> nervous system)

361
Q

angiogenesis

A

Formation of new blood vessels

362
Q

Post-exercise, new myofibrils are..

A

increased in thickness and number post angiogenesis, to create muscle hypertrophy (protein synthesis exceeds protein breakdown)

363
Q

Isoelectric focusing purpose and technique

A

IEF: separate proteins by isoelectric point.
Cathode of IEF is negatively charged electrode, so things that are positively charged will move towards it

364
Q

What processes of metabolism take place in the mitochondria?

A

Citric acid cycle, beta oxidation, and oxidative phosphorylation

365
Q

What do sympathomemetic compounds do?

A

tend to promote responses typical of the sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight)

366
Q

Bacteria can be killed by viruses in which phase?

A

The lytic cycle; not the lysogenic cycle when the virus is being integrated into the bacterial genome

Lysogenic… gen= being added to the bacterial genome

367
Q

bacteriophages

A

viruses whose host cells are bacteria

368
Q

what happens to post-transcriptional pre-mRNA?

A
  1. add 5’ cap
  2. add 3’ poly-A tail (prevent degradation in cytosol)
  3. remove introns, non-coding regions
369
Q

How many base pairs is the 5’ cap?

A

1!

370
Q

What regions are included in mRNA?

A
  1. 5’ cap
  2. 5’ UTR
  3. coding regions extrons)
  4. 3’ UTR
  5. Poly-A-tail
371
Q

6 nucleotides=____ basepairs
6 nucleotides=_____amino acids

A

3 basepairs (bonds between either a G=C or A=T)
2 amino acids (3 nucleotides make up one codon, or one specific amino acid)

372
Q

What are 4 types of structural proteins?

A
  1. Keratin
  2. Actin
  3. Myosin
  4. Collagen
373
Q

Involuntary contraction of a muscle under voluntary control is likely due to

A
374
Q

Attenuation definition

A

the reduction of something

375
Q

Name factors that attenuate sound energy as it travels through the body

A
  1. absorption
  2. reflection
  3. refraction
  4. scattering
  5. diffracted
376
Q

ultrasound frequency is ______human hearing

A

is above the frequency that humans are able to hear at
“ultra”

377
Q

Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by

A

ATP

378
Q

Where is PEPCK located?

A

The mitochondria and cytosol

379
Q

What are the general formulas for
alkanes
alkenes
alkynes

A

alkanes: CnH2n+2
alkenes:CnH2n
alkynes:CnH2n-2

380
Q

A smaller pkb level corresponds to a ______base

A

stronger

Think synonymous with pKa: a smaller pKa indicates a stronger acid

381
Q

The inductive affect: Electron withdrawing groups cause vs electron donating cause

A

EWG increase acidity
EDG decrease acidity

382
Q

What effect does impurities have on the boiling point of pure substances

A

lowers them, and broadens their range

383
Q

What is the formula for phosphoric acid

A

H3PO4

384
Q

Heterocycle

A

A ring of atoms of more than one kind

385
Q

What is Huckel’s rule

A

Conjugated systems must have a factor 4n+2 pi electrons to be considered aromatic
(examples, 2, 6, 10, 14 etc)

386
Q

Glycolysis produces how much atp?

A

2 atp

387
Q

somatic cells vs germ cells

A

somatic cells = non- egg and sperm
germ cells= egg and sperm

388
Q

What migrates toward inflammation

A

leukocytes

389
Q

Bacteria is removed from lymph in the _______ and blood in the ______

A

lymph from lymph nodes
blood from the spleen

390
Q

What are the 2 main effects of helper T cells

A

They bind to foreign antigens on immune cells and release signaling molecules to:

1.activate cytotoxic T-cells
2. B lymphocyte antibody production

391
Q

Deoxygenated blood transfer through _____ side of the heart

A

right
DEOXY-Ribose

392
Q

Oxygenated blood transfers through the _____side of the heart

A

left

393
Q

Macrophage role post-cut (bleeding)

A
  1. phagocytosis, engulf and destroy foreign pathogens and damaged cells
  2. contribute to clot formation with platelets
394
Q

Open reading frames start with _____(start codon) and end with _____ (stop codon)

A

AUG: Start
UAA, UAG, UGA: STOP

395
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum responsibilities in muscle:

A

Ca2+ concentrations!!!!
Sequester Ca2+ when at rest, and control the release of them into cytosol during contraction

396
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

voluntary motor nerve fibers transmit impulses fromCBS to skeletal muscles

397
Q

Osmoregulation

A

provides the energy need to reverse natural diffusion of water process and maintain constant salt and water concentrations

Essentially ensure that things DON’T equilibriate

In its absence, will flow down concentration gradient etc.

398
Q

What type of interactions do antibodies have?

A

They bind non-covalently to proteins or chemicals called epitopes

399
Q

degradation of _____proteins go to the proteosome whereas degradation of _______go to the lysosome

A

degradation of cytosolic proteins go to the proteasome whereas degradation of secretory goes to the lysosome

400
Q

what type of tag marks cytosolic proteins for degradation by proteosomes?

A

Ubiquitin

401
Q

What is a ping pong mechanism

A

one where a substrate binds, reacts, and leaves before the next substrate binds

402
Q

What affect do competitive inhibitors have on the maximum reaction rate

A

They do not change the maximum reaction rate

403
Q

What do chaperone proteins do?

A

Facilitate proper protein folding

404
Q

What will RNA that is destined for the cell membrane normally have

A

a cell signaling sequence

405
Q

Which portion of the collecting duct is urine the most concentrated?

A

the medullary portion of the collecting duct

406
Q

which type of molecules pass directly through the membrane?

A

Hydrophobic! Like this

407
Q

The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by:

A

passive flow due to a pressure difference.

408
Q

Which type of enzyme is capable of changing the chirality of a molecule?

A

Isomerase

409
Q

How are nucleotides linked

A

Nucleotides are linked to one another by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one nucleotide (thymine) and the phosphate group of the adjacent nucleotide (adenine) in a way that the 5′ end bears a phosphate, and the 3′ end a hydroxyl group.

410
Q

The endomembrane system is responsible for

A

modifying cells that are going to be secreted

411
Q
A
412
Q

Influx of Na+ across the motor end plate is directly mediated by

A

a ligand-gated ion channel

413
Q

Restriction sites for southern blots are most likely

A

palindromes 4-6 base pair length
palindrome sequences read the same in the 3’ and 5’ direction

414
Q

What is a prion?

A

A prion is a misfolded protein that causes other proteins to misfold

415
Q

What is the average weight of an amino acid?

A

110 Da

416
Q

The opponent enzyme to kinase is

A

phosphatase

417
Q

Difference between kinase and phosphorylase

A

kinase uses a phosphate from ATP and adds it to an organic molecule, and phosphorylase uses an inorganic phosphate group

418
Q

Law of reflection

A

angle of incidence = angle of reflection

419
Q

DNA is bonded by

A

phosphodiester bonds

420
Q

nucleotides are bonded by

A

phosphodiester bonds

421
Q

which amino acid has a sulfahydryl group

A

cysteine

422
Q

After a carbohydrate is phagocytized by a cell where will it go

A

phagosome(endosome) that then fuses with a lysosome where the carbohydrate is ingested by enzymes

423
Q

ANY process against concentration gradient requires

A

energy; active transport

424
Q

A protein with an isoelectric point around 9

A

Has a postive charge

425
Q

Folding of secretory proteins happens in the

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

426
Q

Something that activates transcription most likely has

A

a nuclear localization sequence, since transcription MUST happen in nucleus

427
Q

What effect does ubiquitination have on a protein?

A

It targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome into short peptides

P U! Proteasome, ubiquitination

428
Q

Protein subunits that can be separated by reduction are most likely connected by

A

disulfide bridges between cysteine bonds

429
Q

histone acetylation is a type of

A

post translational modification

430
Q

What is another name for ADH

A

vasopressin

431
Q

something that enters the bloodstream from the small intestine will first encounter which organ

A

the liver; which receives blood from the abdomen via the hepatic portal vein

432
Q

The main 2 roles of the liver

A

process nutrients, and detoxify

433
Q

Internalization of viruses via endocytosis is mediated by

A

endosomes

434
Q

A frameshift mutation, that doesn’t result in a premature stop codon, most likely changes

A

the primary carboxyl-terminal sequence

435
Q

1 mol of glucose produces___ net mols of ATP in glycolysis

A

2 mols; 1 for each pyruvate

436
Q

egg and sperm are both _____ (ploidy)

A

haploid

437
Q

What does the epididymis do

A

stores sperm; where it gains motility

438
Q

Where is the site of spermatogenesis

A

seminiferous tubules of the testis

439
Q

Which 2 amino acids are unlikely to be found in alpha helices because they disrupt bond angles?

A

Proline and Glycine

440
Q

List 4 types of non-covalent interactions

A
  1. Hydrogen bonding
  2. Hydrophobic effect
  3. london dispersion
  4. salt bridges
441
Q

Attentuate=

A

Decrease

442
Q

Proteases break what type of bonds?

A

Peptide bonds in proteins

443
Q

Km definition

A

the substrate concentration when half the Vmax is reached

444
Q

Increasing Km indicates

A

decreasing binding affinity

445
Q

what type of cells are ovarian cells?

A

Epithelial cells

446
Q

What are considered reducing sugars?

A

ALL monosaccharides aldoses and ketoses are considered reducing sugars; only disaccharides with a free anomeric carbon are considered reducing

447
Q

Erythrocytes don’t contain both DNA and

A

mitochondria

448
Q

Product of PCR is

A

DNA

449
Q

What is the benefit of storing glucose as glycogen?

A

It reduces the osmotic pressure on the cell membrane

450
Q

What is kcat?

A

Turnover number

451
Q

How do you calculate catalytic efficiency?

A

kcat/km

452
Q

What is the definition of catalytic efficiency?

A

How effective an enzyme is at low concentrations

453
Q

Which metabolic pathways are aerobic?

A

Krebs cycle and ETC

454
Q

What affect does the accumulation of lactic acid have?

A

It causes acidification of the cytoplasm

455
Q

Slow-twitch fibers likely have which 3 characteristics that separates them from fast-twitch fibers

A

slow twitch:
1. more mitochondria
2. more oxygen-binding proteins
3. greater capillary density

456
Q

What does helicase do?

A

catalyzes the separation of the parent DNA strands at the origin of replication

457
Q

Primary active transport requires

A

direct input of ATP to stimulate transport

458
Q

When would b-hydroxybutyrate (b-OHB) levels be increased?

A

b-OHB are ketone bodies, so during prolonged periods of starvation or exercise

459
Q

What is a product of lactic acid fermentation that goes on to be used in glycolysis?

A

NAD+

460
Q

Imprinted genes

A

Genes that are expressed in a parent-specific manner, based on epigenetic factors (something not directly in the gene, relationship with something else)

461
Q
A
462
Q

microfilament vs microtubule

A

microfilament: in cytoplasm and muscles, actin
microtubules: cell “highways” for dynein (retrograde transport) and kinesin (anterograde transport). Also cilia flagella are made of microtubules

463
Q

In an operon system the repressor binds to the the

A

operator (which is upstream of the coding region

464
Q

Larger proteins move _____ through SDS PAGE and _______ through size exclusion chromatography

A

Larger proteins move smaller distance through SDS PAGE and quicker through size exclusion chromatography

465
Q

Women over 35 years of age have an increased risk of nondisjunction due to errors in what phase of meiosis?

A

Anaphase II

466
Q

Kd

A

Way to quickly test binding affinity; a low Kd indicates that the enzyme and substrate do not readily dissociate ie stronger binding affinity. In picture, Enzyme y has a greater binding affinity

467
Q

Leydig cells

A

In response to LH, they produce testosterone and androgens

LH->Leydig cells-> produce testost/andro

L and L

468
Q

Sertoli cells

A

During spermatogenesis, the main function of Sertoli cells is to nourish the developing sperm cells. These cells are located in the epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubules and are activated by FSH.

FSH->seritoli cells->nourish sperm cells

469
Q
A
470
Q

Unsaturated fatty acids have ______ melting points than saturated fatty acids

A

lower melting points that saturated fatty acids

471
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

can produce energy in the presence or absense of oxygen

472
Q
A

The coding strand and mRNA are the SAME (minus T->U) and are both complementary to the template strand

473
Q

The ETC pumps protons from the __________ to the ___________

A

mitochondrial matrix -> intermembrane space
pump protons from mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space thereby generating an electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

474
Q

Which blotting technique cannot be used to detect gene expression levels?

A

Southern blotting; detects sequences of DNA, but not expression levels

475
Q

Of these 3 groups, which will deprotonate at physiological pH?
alcohols
carboxylic acids
phosphate groups

A

alcohols: no, they are not acidic
carboxylic acids: yes (+1)
Phosphate groups: yes (+2)

476
Q

Role of bile salts

A

mechanically digest lipid globules by breaking them into smaller droplets through emulsification

477
Q

Cardiac sphincter

A

located end of esophagus->stomach

478
Q

What two components help protect stomach against autodigestion by gastric juices?

A

mucus and bicarbonate

479
Q

prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes both have what in common?

A

both are still double stranded dna!

480
Q

Characteristic of prokaryotic transcription/translation

A

They happen at the same time because of no nucleus!

481
Q

Genetic mutations that disrupt gluconeogenesis or gycogenolysis can be helped by dietary supplementation with

A

glucose sources; like starch!

482
Q

What stabilizes alpha helices?

A

hydrogen bonding between peptide backbone amide hydrogens and carbonyl oxygens

483
Q

If an answer or question ever asks about binding affinities #1 thing to do

A

ALWAYS look at shapes of passage graphs; sigmoidal indicates cooporativity!!

484
Q

Name 3 categories of AA side chains that can act as nucleophiles in an active site

A
485
Q

What are two methods that can be used to assess relative quantity of genes?

A

DNA sequencing and southern blotting

486
Q

What key things happen during inspiration?

A

Muscles contract, diphram moves down, volume increases, pressure decreases (eventually below atm -> air flows down lungs)

487
Q

Yeast is eukaryotic or prokaryotic?

A

eukaryotic

488
Q

Filtered blood substances are collected in the __________, whereas unfiltered blood goes to the ________

A

Filtered blood substances are collected in the bowman’s capsule, whereas unfiltered blood goes to the efferent arterioles

489
Q

What are two characteristics to look out for on blotting and what do they represent

A

Thickness of band: quantity of expression
location of band: shows size
Here, FL-SMN has the largest size, but SMN7 has the highest expression

490
Q

mRNA is the ______as coding strand and __________ to template strand

A

mRNA is the SAME (besides U->T) as coding strand and complementary to template strand

491
Q

If two reactions are carried out at the same enzyme concentrations, what can be said about Vmax and Kcat?

A

They are directly correlated bc
kcat=vmax/[E]

492
Q

cytochrome P450 does what?

A

Cytochrome P450 acts as an OXIDIZING agent to allow drug metabolism. Cytochrome P450 itself is reduced, so it oxidizes drugs when it works

493
Q

What do transcription factors do

A

They bind to the DNA promoter region and then help recruit the appropriate polymerases

494
Q

An enzyme that inhibits the carnitine shuttle will

A

decrease fatty acid oxidation

495
Q

What is the first step in fatty acid synthesis?

A

ACRDR; activate (this is A), condense, reduce, dehydrate, reduce

496
Q

Where do 32 P and 35 S incorporate into?

A

32 P: DNA
35 S: proteins

497
Q

What are the phosphorlatable amino acids?

A

Serine, threonine, and tyrosine

498
Q

Disulfide bond formation can be both ______ and ________

A

intramolecular and intermolecular

499
Q

Hemoglobin affinity for oxygen would ______ with a decrease in plasma Pco2

A

increase; because with less CO2, higher pH, and hemoglobin is less likely to let go of oxygen

500
Q

Henry’s Law

A

Conc [gas]= partial pressure gas* kH (constant)
Basically says partial pressure of a gas is proportional to the concentration of that gas

501
Q

How many nucleotides are used to code a 10 AA chain?

A

33! 3 per base+ 3 for the stop codon!

502
Q

Following a meal you would expect (2 main things)

A

Decreased levels of circulating glucagon
Increased levels of circulating insulin

503
Q

Aspartate 1 letter code

A

D

504
Q

tRNA transition through the ribosome

A
505
Q

RT-PCR vs PCR

A

PCR: measures DNA levels
RT-PCR: measures mRNA levels

506
Q

C-terminus/N-terminus characteristic

A

C-terminus: - negatively charged
N-terminus: positively charged

507
Q

How does gel filtration chromatography separate proteins?

A

Based on size alone; NOT charge. Large molecules travel through quicker, small ones get trapped in pores

508
Q
A
509
Q

What is true of the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females?

A

It is one of the last chromosome to replicate
Female mammals have 2 X chromosomes so to prevent duplicates one of them is inactivated

510
Q

Free energy _____in a spontaneous reaction

A

decreases! Becomes more negative

511
Q

What is not included in Keq equation?

A

Pure solids and liquids, including H2O!

512
Q

For bile to be released, what two muscular events need to happen?

A

1)smooth muscles around the gallbladder need to contract
2) Hepatopancreatic sphincter will need to relax

513
Q

Water is excreted through:

A

1) Urine (MAJORITY)
2)skin
3) lungs

514
Q

During exercise, the osmolarity of venous blood from active muscles will increase as a result of an increase in:

A

Lactate concentration in plasma

515
Q

What is the immune cell that will mount a response in the CNS

A

Microglia; monitor and maintain health by detecting injuries to the neuron

516
Q

What intercellular connection between endothelial cells of the brain capillaries result in the blood-brain barrier?

A

Tight junctions

517
Q

If the 3rd codon of a coding region is TAG what will happen?

A

UAG in mRNA sequence (stop codon), so full-length protein will not be made

518
Q

What is the receptor proteins pathway to the cell surface?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, and secretory transport vesicle

519
Q

What is plasma composed of?

A
520
Q

Break down the acrosome and cortical reactions of sperm binding

A
  1. acrosome reaction: degrades zona pellucida
    so that plasma membranes can fuse and sperm can enter the oocyte
  2. after this cortical reaction happens and cortical granules harden the zona pellucida so that no more sperm can enter
521
Q

What is happening during the follicular phase?

A

days 1-13: LH and FSH are high and influence the maturation of ovarian follicles (FSH:first several follicles, then LH, particularly 1)

522
Q

Ovulation

A

day 14 of cycle after follicular phase before luteal phase, when an oocyte is released

523
Q

Luteal Phase

A

Occurs during days 15-28, with high progesterone and estrogen. Progesterone thickens endometrium to make it receptive to embryo implantation

524
Q

Oxygen Binding: where in cooperative curve is it in the T state vs R state?

A

T->R (Tom Roberts)

525
Q

How does 2,3-BPG shift the oxihemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

To the right! (ie better) right shift is better!!

526
Q

A left shift in the oxygen/hemoglobin dissociation curve indicates

A

lower CO2 or H+ levels in the blood

527
Q

What is the primary component of bacteria cell walls?

A

Peptidoglycan

528
Q

What is the primary component of the cell walls in plants?

A

cellulose

529
Q

What are 3 hormones that increase blood pressure?

A
  1. Angiotensin II
  2. Aldosterone
  3. ADH
530
Q

Ceramide is a type of

A

sphingolipid

531
Q

What makes a lipid hydrolyzable, and name categories of non-hydrolyzable and hydrolyzable lipids

A

hydrolyzable: have an ester bond that can be cleaved by lipases through the addition of water

532
Q

Adenylate cyclase does what?

A

Convert ATP into cyclicAMP (cAMP)

533
Q

Viroids

A

subviral infectious particles consisting of short circular strand of viral rna

534
Q

Break down the germ layer derivatives

A
535
Q

Albumin is the major blood osmoregulatory protein. The most likely effect of a sharp rise in the level of serum albumin is:

A
536
Q

If chromosomal duplication before tetrad formation occurred twice during spermatogenesis, while the other steps of meiosis proceeded normally, which of the following would result from a single spermatocyte?

A
537
Q

Describe the ploidy difference between mitosis and meiosis

A

mitosis results in 2 diploid and meiosis results in 4 haploid

538
Q
A
539
Q

A positive hydropathy index indicates

A

The amino acids are hydrophobic

540
Q

Where do microtubules radiate from?

A

Centrioles toward the plasma membrane

541
Q

Ghrelin is released from ______ and leptin is released from ________

A

ghrelin-gastric cells (g-g)
leptin (adipose cells)

542
Q

Describe some things enzymes, increase, decrease, and do not change in a reaction

A
543
Q

What will happen in patients with insulin resistance after a meal?

A

the liver cell will increase production of glucose and decrease production of glycogen

544
Q

chondrocytes

A

are located in the ends of long bones at the growth plate; help long bones grow, and stop dividing when bone growth is complete

545
Q

Decreased blood pressure cause activation of

A

the renin-angiotensin system

546
Q

Specify differences in the 3 types of muscles

A
547
Q

Name a few of the niche differences between the germ layers

A
548
Q

What 3 things cause right shifts in oxygen binding curves?

A
  1. Increase 2,3-BPG
    2.Decreased pH
    3.Increased pCO2
  2. High H+ concentration
549
Q

after eating, what is the order of metabolic states?

A

eat->postprandial (anabolism)->postabsorptive (somewhat a mix, glucagon active for sure)->starvation (catabolism

550
Q

Single stranded-genomes can be found in

A

some viruses, NOT eukaryotes

551
Q

DNA mismatch repair is a process during

A

DNA replication, strands should NOT involve uracil because not transcription

552
Q

All prokaryotes and eukaryotes have

A

a phospholipid bilayer! Viruses will not if they are nonenveloped by eukaryote

553
Q

How to tell beta/alpha and D/L on a fischer projection of a carbohydrate?

A

anomeric carbon at the top, left = beta, right=alpha
furthest carbon = Left=L, right=D

554
Q

what does lactate dehydrogenase do?

A

It either converts pyruvate to lactic acid and produces NAD+
or converts lactic acid to pyruvate and creates NADH

555
Q

Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson–Crick base pair?

A

Cytosine!

556
Q

What type of media would be needed to grow viruses in a laboratory?

A

Viruses take advantage of the elaborate intracellular mechanisms of the host cell using them to make more virus particles. To do this they need intact host cells. Non-cellular media such as the nutrient broths and suspensions in choices A, B and C will not support culture of viruses. They can be grown in tissue culture, so choice D is the correct answer.

557
Q

Which assumption of the gas laws does not hold at pressures much higher than 1 atm?

A

the volume of the individual gas particles are no longer negligible

558
Q

What happens in necrosis but not apoptosis?

A

Necrosis causes damage to nearby cells due to lysis

559
Q

Lutineizing Hormone

A

hormone responsible for triggering ovulation

560
Q

Distinguish between some of the anabolic and catabolic processes in metabolism

A
561
Q

As you inhale, what happens to intrapleural volume and pressure

A

Volume goes up and pressure goes down!!!
Boyles law! Inversely related!

562
Q

Slope vs area under the curve

A

They do not represent the same thing!! Slope units are x/y, but area units are x*y

563
Q

What are 2 major isomers of Glucose

A

galactose and fructose

564
Q

Fructose and Glucose are

A

structural isomers

565
Q

Butyrate, propionate, and acetate are examples of

A

Short chain fatty acids. Think about the structure of them and the structure of fatty acids that I know (long hydrocarbon chain and carboxylic acid group)

566
Q

A reduction in the quantity of something that consumes H+ in a reaction will do what?

A

Decrease pH since less H+ being consumed

567
Q

Leucine vs Isoleucine

A
568
Q

Glycoproteins cannot

A

cross the cell membrane (like other peptide hormones, unlike other steroid hormones)

569
Q

Transduction

A

Transduction is the process by which nucleic acids are transferred from viruses to cells.

570
Q
A
571
Q

Regions of DNA that are highly conserved likely

A

are vital to an organisms survival

572
Q

What type of enzyme will break glycosidic linkages?

A

hydrolases

573
Q

Specific Activity is a measure of

A

a measure of the amount of enzyme per milligram of total protein. This provides a measure of the purity of an enzymatic mixture.

574
Q

Dehydrogenases are what class of enzymes

A

oxidoreductases

575
Q

G-C bonds have more ________and increase _____strength

A

hydrogen bonding and pi-stacking strength

576
Q

Ovum

A

the most developed egg ready for fertilization; haploid number of maternally divided cells

MCAT (3 decks)

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