Bio/Biochem Flashcards
1
Q
Where is growth hormone released from?
A
anterior pituitary gland
2
Q
where is ghrelin released from, what does it act on, and what does it result in?
A
released from the stomach cells it is a gut hormone, that acts on the hypothalamus, and stimulates appetite (think food gremlin)
3
Q
what is a tropic hormone
A
a hormone that targets endocrine cells and stimulates the release of other hormones
Opposite of direct!!
4
Q
what is a steroid hormone
A
a group of hormones derived from cholesterol that act as chemical messengers in the body
5
Q
What happens in G0 phase
A
resting phase, is the phase of the cell cycle during which a cell isn’t dividing or preparing to divide
6
Q
what are the three main components of intercellular scaffolding
A
microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules
7
Q
What do microtubules do?
A
regulate cell growth and movement
8
Q
which direction does kinesin transport? Dynein?
A
kinesin: nucleus-> distant
dynein: distant->nucleus
D first, Dynein/Distant
9
Q
what 3 things help maintain resting potential
A
passive transport, active transport, membrane selective permeability
10
Q
how are substances filtered through the glomerular capillaries?
A
by size
11
Q
If something is in the proximal convoluted tubule, was it filtered as the glomerulus
A
Yes- just have been small enough to pass through glomerulus to make it to PCT
12
Q
what do hot temperatures cause? Cold temperatures?
Vaso____ and vaso____
A
hot- vasodilation
cold-vasoconstriction
13
Q
what is the outermost layer of skin
A
epidermis
14
Q
what is the most superficial layer of the epidermis
A
stratum corneum
15
Q
what is the stratum corneum composed of and what purpose does it do?
A
Keratinocytes; barrier against external pathogen invasion, prevent water and salt loss thru skin surface
16
Q
How does Ca 2+ work in muscle contraction?
A
Ca2+ binds to troponin-> troponin moves tropomyosin-> myosin moves actin
ca-tropo-tropomyo-myo
17
Q
what does skeletal muscle contraction do to veins? Blood delivery to the heart?
A
Compress veins, increase the delivery of venous blood to the heart
18
Q
which amino acid has an R-configuration?
A
cysteine
19
Q
How do you calculate pI of arginine?
A
It’s basic, so
(pka NH3+ + pka R-group)/2
20
Q
How do you calculate pI or Aspartic acid
A
It’s acidic so
(pka COOH +pka r-group)/2
21
Q
How do you calculate pka from valine?
A
It’s non-polar/uncharged so
(pka COOH + pka NH3+)//2
22
Q
What molecule is released during the formation of a peptide bond
A
H2O
23
Q
What is the difference between an oligopeptide and polypeptide
A
oligopeptide= few (or any less than 20 but greater than 1 amino acid)
polypetide= many (more than 20)
24
Q
what role does proline play in secondary structures
A
proline has a rigid structure, causes it to induce kinks in alpha-helices or turn in Beta sheets
25
what are stabilizing bonds of tertiary structures (4)?
van der waals forces
hydrogen bonds
ionic bonds
covalent bonds
26
What are three different prosthetic groups and what are the names of the conjugated proteins?
prosthetic groups: lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates
conjugated protein: lipoprotein, glycoprotein, nucleoproteins
27
How does heat work to denature proteins?
increase average kinetic energy->disrupting hydrophobic interactions and other weak forms of bonding
28
how do solutes work to denature proteins?
disrupt bond folding: secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure
29
The conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP and inorganic phosphate is most likely catalyzed by which class of enzyme
Lyase
30
How does gel electrophoresis separate out molecules
by molecule weight
31
What two metabolic pathways are activated to increase the production of glucose?
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
32
what also is produced when Succinyl-CoA is converted to succinate in the citric acid cycle?
One NTP
33
How many NAD+ are consumed when glucose is converted to two acetyl-CoA molecules?
4
34
Michaelis-menten equation
35
what shift on a line weaver burke plot would show decreased Km and Vmax?
36
Catalysts do no effect...
equilibrium concentrations
37
increasing the amount of enzyme available has what effect on Vmax and Km?
increase Vmax
no change to Km
38
Which is the only R-configuration amino acid?
Cysteine
39
What are the 4 basic steps of every blotting technique?
1. Gel electrophoresis to separate by size
2. transfer from gel to membrane
3. addition of probe
4. visualization of probe
40
Which amino acids are the most common sites of phosphorylation? Why?
Serine, Threonine, and tyrosine because of their hydroxyl groups
41
what is collagen's structure and where is it found?
trihelical structure (3 left handed helices woven together) and mostly found in extracellular matrix
42
Where is elastin found and what is it important for?
`extracellular matrix of connective tissue, stretches and recoils like a spring to help restore original shape of tissue
43
Keratins are in what category and what do they mostly make up?
They are intermediate filaments and make up hair and nails
44
What does actin make up in myofibrils?
microfilaments and the thin filaments in myofibrils
45
What is a key feature of actin's structure and how does it aid in transport?
They are polar with a positive and negative side; allowing motor proteins to travel along it unidirectionally
46
Tubulin is the protein that makes up
microtubules
47
What role does myosin play in myofibrils?
Thick filament
48
What class of protein are cadherins?
cell adhesion molecules; hold 2 cells of the same or similar type together
49
What are 3 types of cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)
cadherins, integrins, and selectins
50
What is the most common protein in immune response?
antibodies (aka immunoglobulins)
51
Where are antibodies produced? What do they do?
They're produced in B-cells, and they neutralize tragets like bacteria and toxins and recruit other cells to help eliminate the threat
52
What is the structure of antibodies?
Y-shaped, two heavy chains and two light chains that are bound together thru cysteine bonds
53
When antibodies bind to antigens what are three potential outcomes?
1) Neutralize it -can't exert any more effect on the body
2)Opsonization-mark it to be destroyed by other white blood cells
3)agglutinating- stay connected and clump together to then be phagocytized by macrophages
54
Are motor proteins catalytic?
Yes- because of the ATPase activity that they display
55
What type of adhesion does integrin aid in?
cell to protein in the extracellular matrix
56
What type of adhesion does selectin aid in?
cell to carbohydrates (usually on the surface of other cells)
57
What are the three types of G proteins in protein-coupled receptors/what they do?
Gs: Stimulates adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP in cell
Gi: Inhibits adenylate cyclase which decreases cAMP in the cell
Gq: activates phospholipase c
Gs: Stimulate
Gi: inhibit
Gq: mind your ps and qs- q activates phospholipase c
58
What 3 physical characteristics do both enzyme-linked receptors and G-protein coupled receptors both display?
1. contain extracellular domain
2. contain transmembrane domain
3. Ligand binding
59
What type of ion channel is always open? Example
ungated channels; potassium channels
60
Electrophoresis general overview
Used to separate proteins
Attached to battery; anode and cathode
gel is normally polyacrylamide gel
travel based on size and charge
61
How does isoelectric focusing separate proteins?
Based on their pI; moves toward electrode until it reaches region of gel where pH=pI of protein
62
Native PAGE vs SDS PAGE
Native maintains protein shape, but results are difficult to compare b/c of mass-to-charge ratios differing
SDS denatures and makes size comparison more accurate, but cannot make that protein functional again
63
In size-exclusion chromatography which molecules elute first and why
large ones, because the smaller ones get trapped in small pores
64
what two factors have a role in how fast a protein moves in column chromatography
size and polarity
65
What are two methods used to determine protein structure? Which is the most popular?
Xray crystallography (most popular)
NMR spectroscopy
66
how can amino acid composition be determined?
could be by simple hydrolysis, but sequencing requires sequential degradation, like Edman degradation
67
What are the two colors of Bradford protein assays? What do they show
Starting color is a brown-green hue, if increased protein concentration is, then will turn to blue.
More blue=more protein
68
At what pH would one protein be best separated from two others with higher pIs in electrophoresis?
At a pH greater then the proteins pI, but less then the pI of the other two proteins
69
cell migration:
movement of cells
70
A hormone found in low concentrations, but has a strong effect would likely act on which types of receptors?
1. Enzyme-linked receptors
2. G protein-coupled receptor
3. Ligand-gated ion channels
1. Enzyme-linked receptors
2. G protein-coupled receptor
not ligand-gated bc there is no second messenger cascade, so small amount binding could not have a strong effect
71
Do antibodies bind to 1 or multiple different antigens?
one antigen
72
what method would be good to separate proteins of different sizes but similar pI?
Size-exclusion chromatography
73
Which amino acid structures are best used for UV spectroscopy
aromatic ones because of double bonds
74
How to establish a negative control
keep the conditions almost the same, but the addition of something that is known not to have thee desired effect
75
What is a parameter in research?
A measure using every person in a population, not of a sample
76
enantiomers
non-identical mirror image of each other; different chirality
77
how do you calculate the number of stereoisomers with a common backbone
2^number of chiral centers
78
diastereomers
two sugars in the same family (same #carbon, either ketoses or aldoses) that are not identical or mirror images
79
epimers
diastereomers that only differ at one position
80
What determines the D or L shape of carbohydrates
the -OH closest to the CH2OH group. If to the left=L if to the right=D
81
Cyclic hemiacetals are formed from
aldoses
82
Cyclic hemiketals are formed from
ketoses
83
What is the difference between an aldose and ketone?
Aldose: =O is at the end
Ketone: =O is in the middle
84
What is the difference between the alpha and beta anomeric forms of glucose?
Alpha= -OH group (that used to carbonyl) is axial and down
Beta=-OH group (that used to carbonyl) is equatorial and up
85
What is mutarotation in sugars? What is needed
the addition of water to open a hemiacetal chain and convert it to the other anomer (aloha to beta or vice versa)
86
Lactone sttucture and how it forms
Results from the oxidation of a hemiacetal ring (reducing sugar)
87
What two reagents can detect the presence of a reducing sugar? What colors do they turn when present
Tollen's reagent: turns silvery
Tolkein: Silver haired elves
Benedicts reagent: produces solid
Eggs benedict: not runny
88
saturated vs unsaturated lipid fatty acid chain
saturated: only single bonds
unsaturated: at least one double bond
89
Sphingolipid structure
Have nitrogen in the backbone (part of sphingosine) rather than straight glycerol. simplest is the ceramide with just a hydrogen head
90
Isoprene formula and what important lipids they make up
C5H8 and they makeup terpenes and terpenoids
91
Common steroid structure
3 cyclohexanes and a cyclopentane
92
what do prostaglandins do, and what effects do they have on the body
They regulate cAMP levels, and effect muscle contraction, body temperature, sleep-wake cycle and fever/ pain
93
In which main two molecules does the human body store energy? Which is preferred?
Glycogen and triacylglycerols; triacylglycerols are preferred because of the long carbon chain
94
triglycerol structure
glycerol backbone esterified to three fatty acids
95
Name of animal cells used for storage of large triacylglycerol
adipocytes
96
What is the difference between deoxyribose and ribose
deoxyribose lacks an -OH group on the 2' carbon
97
The common name for a guanine nucleotide
GTP
98
The name for an adenosine nucleotide
ATP
99
What are the names of the 5 important nucleotide/nucleoside bases?
adenine
guanine
cytosine
uracil
thymine
100
Directionally, How is the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA formed? Which way is it read?
The 3' of the carbon of one group to the 5' phosphate group of the next incoming sugar. It is read 5' to 3'
101
Purine structure vs pyrimidine structure
purine= 2 ring, pyriminide=1 ring
102
What four rules must be satisfied to something to be considered aromatic
1. cyclic
2. planar
3. conjugated
4. 4n+2 =pi electrons (huckel's rule)
103
Which bases are purines
Guanine and adenine
104
Which bases are pyrimidines
cytosine, thymine, uracil
105
What happens when DNA is denatured
the double helix is broken into single strands, but the covalent links between the nucleotides and backbone break
106
What are common ways to denature DNA
heat, alkaline pH, chemicals like urea
107
Can denatured DNA be brought back together?
Yes; by reannealing, when the denaturation condition is slowly removed
108
DNA is wound around ______ forming________
DNA is wound around histones forming chromatin
109
Nucleosomes are composed of
DNA wrapped around histones They are the rolled film shape, the dna is the the actual film line, and histones are the internal canister that wraps it up
110
Differences between heterochromatin and euchromatin
heterchromatin: dark, dense, transcriptionally silent
euchromatin: light uncondensed and expressed
111
Telomeres
located at the end of DNA, high G-C concentration helps prevent unraveling
112
What happens to telomeres during replication? What enzyme can this be remedied by?
They are shortened; can be reversed by telomerase
113
centromeres
located in the center of chromosomes and hold sister chromatids together. HIgh GC concentration
114
During what phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated
Anaphase
115
Which enzyme unwinds DNA
Helicase
116
DNA topoisomerases act by
cuts and then reseals strands to release the tension caused from positive super coiling
117
Why is DNA replication semiconservative
because each new strand also incorporates one parent strand
118
DNA polymerases function
read parent strands and generate daughter strands
119
What is the reading direction of DNA polymerase
3'-5', but it synthesizes the new strand 5'-3'
120
Which strand has Okazaki fragments? Why?
Lagging strand, because DNA polymerase "reads" in the 3' to 5' direction
121
Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments
DNA ligase
122
Mutations of _______ cause oncogenes
proto-oncogenes
123
Tumor suppressor genes
code for proteins that reduce cell cycling or promote DNA repair
124
During which phase of the cell cycle does mismatch repair happen
G2
125
How does nucleotide excision repair work
fix helix deforming lesions of DNA using excision endonuclease
126
how to fix thymine dimers
nucleotide excision repair using excision endonuclease
127
How to fix cytosine deamination
base excision repair using AP endonuclease
128
Which is not a glycolipid?
a.cerebroside
b.globoside
c.ganglioside
d.sphingomyelin
sphingomyelin; it's a phospholipid because it doesn't have a glycosidic bond
129
Why are triacylglycerols used in the human body for energy storage?
The carbon atoms of fatty acid chains are highly reduced and therefore yield more energy upon oxidation
130
What vitamin is necessary for the posttranslational introduction of calcium-binding sites
Vitamin K
131
Saturated or unsaturated make a more fluid solution?
Unsaturated
132
What inhibits prostaglandin synthesis?
NSAIDs
133
A 95% confidence interval will fall within what distance from the mean?
=/- 2 sigma
134
How is cDNA created
the reverse transcription of processed mRNA
135
What do endonucleases do and what are a couple of things they're used for
Endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA
Used for:
DNA repair
Scientists during DNA analyses as restriction enzymes
(cleave DNA before electrophoresis, southern blotting)
136
During which phase of the cell cycle are DNA repair systems least active?
M
137
Which enzyme transcribes mRNA from template DNA
RNA polymerase
138
What enzyme charges or activates tRNA with an amino acid?
aa: aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
139
Many rRNA molecules can function as
ribozymes
140
Where is the wobble position in codons
the third base pair- because changes to it can still result in the same protein (ie be a silent mutation)
141
3 types of point mutations
silent: nothing happens
missense: 1 aa difference
nonsense: 1 aa difference is a premature stop codon
142
free card:)
woohoo
143
The start codon is _____ and codes for_____
AUG-methionine
144
The 3 stop codons are
UAA
UAG
UGA
U Are ANnoying
U Go Away
U Are Gone
145
where does RNA polymerase II bind in the promoter region during transcription of mRNA
TATA box
146
what is the name of the primary transcript formed immediately after transcription
hnRNA; after posttranscriptional processing is mRNA
147
what two posttranscriptional processes help protect against degradation
addition of 5' cap and 3' poly-A-tail
148
Which type/ of RNA polymerase is associated with which type/types of RNA?
RNA polymerase I: rRNA
RNA polymerase II: mRNA also hnRNA and snRNA
RNA polymerase III: tRNA and some rRNA
149
where does translation occur
ribosomes
150
Chaperones
aid in posttranslational protein folding
151
Name for post-translational addition of lipid groups to membrane-bound enzymes
prenylation
152
What are the 3 sites of ribosomes important during translation?
APE
A-site
P-site
E-site
153
lac operon is what type of system?
negative inducible system- under normal conditions turned off, but by removing bound repressor lac operon turns on
154
trp operon works as what type of system?
negative repressible system- under normal conditions are on, but can be turned off by coupling of repressor and corepressor binding to operator site
155
Histone acetylation results in
decreased positive charge on lysine residues and weaker interactions of histone with DNA- open chromatin, easier access of transcription
156
Difference between promoter and enhancer locations in DNA
promoters: within 25 base pairs of the transcription start site
enhancers: more than 25 base pairs from the transcription state site
157
What role does peptidyl transferase play in protein synthesis
catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between incoming aa in A site and the growing polypeptide chain in the P site
158
The promoter is the location of where what binds.
RNA polymerase
159
Enhancers enhance the activity of
RNA polymerase at a single promoter site
160
3 types of RNA are found in the spliceosome
snRNA, hnRNA, snRNP
161
connection of a carboxylate group of one amino acid to a the amino group of an incoming amino acid form what type of bond?
Amide (aka a petpide bond)
162
What do flippases do?
They help flip lipids from one side of the the membrane through to other (difficult because middle is so hydrophobic)
163
Lipid rafts
groupings of similar lipids that can serve as attachment points for other biomolecules
164
List the following from most to least plentiful in the membrane:
Carbs, nucleic acids, proteins, lipids
Lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids
165
what is one way to visually tell if a fatty acid tail is saturated or unsaturated?
Unsaturated will have a bend or kink in the chain (double bond)
166
How does cholesterol impact membrane fluidity at high and low temps?
High temps: decreases fluidity
Low temps: increases fluidity
bidirectional!
167
Gap junctions
Allow direct cell to cell transport of water and some solutes
168
Tight junctions
physical link between cells as they form a single layer of tissue. DO NOT allow the transport of solutes or water
169
The formula for osmotic pressure
170
What thermodynamic factor is primarily responsible for passive transport?
Entroopy
171
resting membrane potential is least likely to be -75, 0, or +35?
0, because the resting membrane potential
172
Inner mitochondrial membrane vs outer mitochondrial
inner is much more impermeable and lacks cholesterol
173
gangliosides are a category of
sphingolipids
174
Where is GLUT 2 located? km high or low?
hepatocytes and pancreatic cells/ km high
175
Where is GLUT4 located?km high or low?
adipose tissue and muscle/km low
176
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis
phosphofructokinase-1
177
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of fermentation
lactate dehydrogenase
178
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis
glycogen phophorylase
179
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis
fructose-1,6-biphosphatase
180
What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
181
When should the cell turn on glycolysis?
when it needs energy (high AMP)
182
When should the cell turn off glycolysis?
When it has sufficient energy (high ATP)
183
What do hexokinase and glucokinase do in glycolysis? what is the difference between them?
They both are the first step of glycolysis and convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.
Glucokinase is used in the liver rather than hexokinase which is used every where else
184
What are the differences between hexokinase and glucokinase?
hexokinase: in most tissues, low km, inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate
glucokinase: in hepatocytes and pancreatic B-islets, high km, induced by insulin
185
What does phosphofructokinase-1 do?
In glycolysis converts fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-biphosphate using ATP
186
Insulin _______PFK-1 and glucagon _________PFK-1 in hepatocytes
Insulin stimulates PFK-1 and glucagon inhibits PFK-1 in hepatocytes
187
What does glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatase do in glycolysis
catalyze the oxidation and inorganic phosphate addition to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphateglycerate
and reduction of NAD+ to NADH
188
3-phosphoglycerate kinase catalyzes the production of what two things in glycolysis?
1)3-phosphoglycerate
2) ATP
189
What earlier product of glycolysis activates pyruvate kinase? What is this called?
fructose 1,6-bisphosphate,
called feed-forward activation
190
What is the key enzyme of fermentation? What does it do
lactate dehydrogenase, and it oxidizes NADH to NAD+
191
Which glycolysis intermediate can be used for triacylglycerol synthesis in hepatic and adipose tissue?
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
192
What are the irreversible enzymes of glycolysis
hexokinase, glucokinase, PFK-1, Pyruvate kinase
How Glycolysis Pushes Forward the Process: Kinases
193
What is galactose phosphorylated by?
galactokinase, trapping it in cell
194
What is fructose phosphorylated by?
fructokinase, trapping it in the cell
195
What are the 3 reactants of the PDH complex?
Pyruvate, NAD+, CoA
196
What are the 3 products of the PDH complex?
Acetyl-CoA, NADH, and CO2 are the products
197
What does Pyruvate dehydrogenase do?
Convert pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
198
What stimulates PDH? What inhibits it?
Stimulates: insulin
Inhibits: acetyl-CoA
199
Glycogen
A branched polymer of glucose, is a storage form of glucose
200
How is glycogen used in the liver vs in skeletal muscle?
Liver: glycogen is broken down to maintain levels of glucose
skeletal muscle: glycogen is broken down to provide glucose during vigorous exercise
201
In what form do plants store excess glucose?
Starch
202
Glycogenesis
The synthesis of glycogen granules
203
glycogenolysis
The breaking down of glycogen
204
Two key enzymes of glycogenesis
1. glycogen synthase (a 1-4 links keep extending branches of glycogen)
2. Branching enzyme (a 1-6 puts a new branch on glycogen
a-1,4 keeps the same branch moving "4ward", while a 1-SIX puts a new branch in the MIX
205
two key enzymes of glycogenolysis
1. glycogen phosphorylase (breaks a 1-4 links)
2. debranching enzyme (breaksa 1-6 bond)
206
What are the key counterregulatory hormones to insulin (4)?
glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol, growth hormone
207
Glucogenic amino acids
can be converted into intermediates that feed into gluconeogenesis
all of them except the Ls leucine and lysine
208
Which 2 enzymes of gluconeogenesis bypass pyruvate kinase of glycolysis?
Pyruvate carboxylase and PEPCK
209
Which enzyme of gluconeogenesis bypasses glucokinase? Where is it found?
Glucose-6-phosphatase; found only in the endoplasmic reticulum of the liver
210
What are the two major metabolic products of the pentose phosphate pathway?
ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH
211
What are the 3 primary functions of NADPH
1. Lipid biosynthesis
2. bactericidal bleach formation in white blood cells (helps with bactericidal)
3. maintenance of glutathione stores to protect against reactive oxygen species
212
What four molecules other than pyruvate can be used to make acteyl-CoA
fatty acids, ketogenic amino acids, ketones, alcohol
213
What is the first step of the citric acid cycle?
Condensation rxn of Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate catalyzed by citrate synthase
214
In the citric acid cycle, isocitrate is oxidized to alpha-ketoglutarate by
isocitrate dehydrogenase
215
Substrates of the citric acid cycle
Pyruvate
Citrate
Isocitrate
a-ketoglutarate
Succinyl-CoA
Succinate
Fumerate
Malate
Oxaloacetate
Please, Can I Keep Selling Seashells For Money, Officer
216
from glycolysis thru oxidative phosphorylation, how much ATP is yielded?
32 ATP
217
What are the 3 checkpoints of the citric acid cycle that can be inhibited or stimulated?
1. citrate synthase
2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (RATE LIMITING STEP)
3.a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
218
What inhibits citrate synthase?
ATP, NADH, succinyl-CoA, citrate
219
What inhibits isocitrate dehydrogenase? Stimulates?
Inhibit: ATP, NADH
Stimulate: ADP, NAD+
220
What are the 4 complexes of the ETC each most responsible for?
Complex I: NADH-> CoQH2 (Co-enzyme Q)
Complex II: Succinate-> CoQH2
Complex III: CoQH2->Cytochrome c
Complex IV:Cytochrome c+ O2->2H2O
221
Why does cyanide have such an intense effect on the body?
Cyanide attaches to iron group needed for the last step of the ETC (Complex IV) and prevents the transfer of electrons
222
proton motive force
generated by the ETC, creates an electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane which drives ATP synthase
223
What are two shuttle methods used to help NADH enter the inner mitochondrial membrane
-malate-aspartate shuttle (more efficient)
-Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle
224
Oxidative phosphorylation
The process by which ATP is generated via harnessing the proton gradient and utilizing ATP synthase
225
which GLUT transporter is used by cells in the liver to store excess glucose and by beta cells in the pancreas as a glucose sensor
GLUT 2
226
Which organ does not require a constant source of glucose from the blood for energy during a fast?
Liver- it can produce its own glucose through gluconeogenesis
227
When b-oxidation is predominant, the TCA will shift to do what
Shift backwards to produce oxaloacetate for gluconeogenesis
228
Citrate is a negative allosteric regulator of what step in glycolysis
phosphofructokinase-1
229
Does fructose enter glycolysis unstream or downstream of PFK-1?
Downstream
230
Of glycolysis, TCA, and the ETC which is involved in anaerobic metabolism
Glycolysis
231
Where is the citric acid cycle located?
In the mitochondrial matrix (NOT the outer or inner mitochondrial membrane)
232
Fatty acids enter the catabolic pathway in the form of
Acetyl-CoA
233
Reduction of fatty acids results in what during metabolism?
palmitic acid
234
How much ATP is produced from 1 FADH2
1.5 ATP
235
What type of enzyme catalyzes GDP->GTP and ADP->ATP
phosphatase
236
Which complex of the ETC does not contribute to the proton-motive force?
Complex II
237
Increasing insulin ______ lipid storage
increases; leading to weight gain
238
chylomicrons and VLDLs are primarily responsible for transporting __________
triacylglycerols
239
LDLs and HDLs are primarily responsible for transporting_________
cholesterol
240
apoliproteins (aka apoproteins) are the protein component of lipoproteins and aid in
signaling
241
What two organs synthesize lipoproteins?
Liver, intestine
242
fatty acid synthesis is stimulated by
insulin
243
________ is the primary end product of fatty acid synthesis
palmitic acid
244
fatty acid synthesis is the reverse reaction to
Beta-oxidation
245
fatty acids are synthesized in the ___________ and modified by enzymes in the ___________
fatty acids are synthesized in the cytoplasm and modified by enzymes in the smooth ER
246
Where are ketone bodies produced?
Liver
247
Under what conditions are ketone bodies used?
During prolonged starvation
248
The bulk of protein digestion occurs in the
small intestine
249
What does ΔG0' adjust for?= that ΔG0 doesn't?
pH-standard state 7 pH
250
What type of reactions is ATP used to fuel?
Energetically unfavorable ones
251
How much energy does ATP hydrolysis yield?
about 30 kJ/mol
252
FMN is a ________ electron carrier that contains a modified ________.
FMN is a membrane-bound electron-carrier that contains a modified vitamin B2
**modified B2 makes it a flavoprotein
253
During the postprandial state there is more ________ and less__________
During the postprandial state (well fed state), there is more anabolism and less catabolism
254
Which types of hormones become more active in the postabsorptive state?
Counterregulatory hormones
(glucagon, cortisol, norepinephrine, epinephrine, growth hormone)
255
During which state is there the greatest decrease in insulin levels
postabsorptive state
256
What tissue is least able to change its fuel source during periods of prolonged starvation
anaerobic- most notably red blood cells
257
What type of hormone is insulin?
Peptide hormone
258
What type of hormone is glucagon?
Peptide hormone
259
Where is insulin released from? Glucagon?
Insulin- Beta cells of the pancreatic islet cells of langerhans
Glucagon- alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of langerhans
260
Cortisol is a type of
glucocorticoid and steroid hormone
261
Glucocorticoids are secreted from the __________ while catecholamines are secreted from the ___________
Glucocorticoids are secreted from the adrenal cortex while catecholamines are secreted from the adrenal medulla
262
What are the preferred fuels of the liver in well-fed state and fasting state?
well-fed: glucose and AA
fasting: fatty acids
263
What are the preferred fuels of resting skeletal muscle in well-fed and fasting states?
well-fed: glucose
fasting: fatty acids, ketones
264
What are the preferred fuels of cardiac muscle in well-fed state and fasting state?
wf: fattty acids
fast: fatty acids and ketones
265
What are the preferred fuels of the adipose tissue in well-fed state and fasting state?
wf: glucose
fasting: fatty acids
266
What are the preferred fuels of the brain in well-fed state and fasting state?
wf: glucose
fasting: glucose (only ketones in prolonged fast)
267
What are the preferred fuels of red blood cells in well-fed state and fasting state?
wf and fasting: glucose
268
What is the short-term source of fuel for active skeletal muscles?
Creatine phosphate
269
What organ consumes the greatest amount of glucose relative to its percentage of body mass?
The brain
270
Leptin's effect
decreases appetite by suppressing orexin (which stimulates appetite)
271
Adipocytes
compose adipose tissue and help with fat storage
272
What enzyme breaks down triacylglycerols in adipocytes?
Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
273
Chylomicrons originate in the _______ while VLDL originates in the _________
Chylomicrons originate in the small intestine while VLDL originates in the liver
VLDL- basically has LIVER letters
274
Apoliproteins
Control the interactions between lipoproteins and the environment; without them lipoproteins could not properly transfer in and out of cells
275
What does LCAT help with?
-allowing HDL to transfer cholesterol to the liver
276
Which is the only fatty acid humans can synthesize?
Palamatic acid (16:0, 16 carbons, no double bonds)
277
ketolysis
breakdown of ketone bodies to acetyl-CoA for energy
278
amino acids with ______ carbon chains will most energy
long, the more carbons the better!
279
The free energy of hydrolysis of ATP compared to ADP
nearly the same
280
What is the reduction half-reaction in the last step of the ETC?
O2+4E-+4H+->2H2O
just good to know the water part really
281
In a well-fed state cardiac muscles run off of
fatty acids
282
phosphorylation and dephosphorylation modify which type of bonds?
Covalent
283
Why are glucocorticoids implicated in stress-related weight gain?
they increase glucose levels, which cause insulin secretion
284
Which organ is most sensitive to oxygen-deprivation?
The brain
285
How to tell a D-sugar Fischer projections? Beta?
the O is to the left of the bottom carbon (D) and O is to the left of top carbon (beta)
286
How does histone associate with DNA?
form salt bridges between positively charged residues and negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA
287
How can you tell something is a racemic mixture?
It says it has no optical activity
opposite rotations so their values cancel each other out
288
kDa is what type of value?
molar mass!
1 kDa= 1 kg/mol
289
what shape does a protein with positive cooperativity show? What is Hill's coefficient?
sigmoidal and Hills coeff>1
290
The secretion of stored posterior pituitary hormones is mediated by
depolarization of nerve terminals
anterior=first=more independent of hypothalamus
291
The release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex is mediated by
secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone from the anterior pituitary
292
The endothelium makes up the inner most surface of what system
cardiovascular system (heart and blood vessels)
293
What is synapsis and during what phase of meiosis does it occur?
Synapsis: joining of homologous chromosomes into tetrads during prophase 1
294
Isoprene unit structure and what do multiple isoprene units together make?
A terpene!
295
Based on this image what bond and at what positions link a GlcNAc residue of the glycan chain to a mannose residue?
A glycosidic bond between carbon 1 of mannose and carbon 4 of GlcNAc
**makes sense bc the 1 carbon of GlcNAc is already participating in the bond with the earlier GlcNAc (makes sense orientation adding the tip to tail so to speak)
296
The isoelectric point can be described as the point where a protein has a ______charge
net neutral
297
when pH=pI how do proteins function
leat soluble and least stable, at their lowest
want to be close but not exactly
298
What is the order in which information travels from the CNS to the periphery (5)?
Cerebral cortex-> spinal cord-> efferent neurons-> interneurons->muscle tissue
299
A medication to treat symptoms of Parkinson's would most likely do what?
Increase dopamine concentrations
300
An action potential that causes a muscle response would most likely have what 2 processes involved related to Na+ and Ca2+?
1. Na+ influx, and Ca2+ release
301
What happens between G2 and M phases of the cell cycle?
G2: ensures chromosomes have been replicated and prepares cells for M
M: mitosis- where cell division happens
302
Totipotent stem cells' main characteristic that separates them from multi or pluripotent stem cells
Ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body!
How they're all the same: All stem cells have ability to self-renewal of undifferentiated stem cells
303
Higher levels of pro-apoptotic gene expression would most likely have what effect on cancer proliferation
SLOW proliferation by killing more cancer cells
304
What is the main stabilizing factor in the peptide bonds found in the backbone of proteins?
Resonance
They exhibit resonant stability around the carbonyl carbons
305
What is the process called of binding complementary nucleotides in RNA and DNA?
Hybridization
306
What is the process called of stringing together nucleotides to form a single-stranded RNA strand?
polymerization
307
Between which groups is there a statistically significant difference in results?
0:1 and 10:1
0:1 and 5:1
1:1 and 10:1
308
What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?
Innate immunity: nonspecific generalized immunity (granulocytes heavilly involved like eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils)
adaptive immunity: immunity against a particular pathogen that the body has previously been exposed to
309
What is unique about red-blood cells?
They do not have DNA or a membrane-bound nucleus
310
PKA is stimulated by
cAMP
311
What does PKA do to a substrate? What enzyme could reverse this process?
PKA adds a phosphate group to a substrate; removal of a phosphate group requires PHOSPHATASE enzymes
312
Phosphatase vs phosphorylase
Phosphorylase: add phosphate to substrate
phosphatase: remove phosphate from substrate
313
Pupils _____ is a classic response of the ________ nervous system during a __________ response
Pupils dilation is a classic response of the sympathetic nervous system during a fight or flight response
parasympathetic: rest and digest
314
what effect does aldesterone have in the nephron?
Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct by upregulating sodium-potassium pumps along the lining of the nephron
315
What happens to cells undergoing mitosis as they slowly get closer to apoptosis?
Chromosomal telomeres shorten each round of division and eventually, chromones lose them entirely undergoing apoptosis
316
What are characteristics of mitochondrial DNA?
1. Located in cytoplasm
2. Maternally-inherited
3. circular structure
4. undergoes binary fission (asexual reproduction- happens so during cell division each daughter cell has ample amounts)
317
What are synaptonemal complexes associated with?
Complexes made out of chromosomes (in nucleus, not related to cytoplasm)
318
During what phase of meiosis does cross-over happen?
Prophase I
319
What is the main difference between single and double cross-over?
Single-crossover events affect only the ends of chromosome arms, whereas double-crossover events can affect segments in the middle
320
When is isomerase likely used?
Isomerases are used when molecules have the same atomic ingredients but different structures (ie double bond character)
321
Increased quantities of insulin in the body will lead to increased synthesis of which two molecules?
glycogen and lipids= both used to store energy
322
High ammonia levels in blood will result from what type of metabolism?
Protein metabolism; ammonia is a waste product of protein metabolism
323
What is the main benefit of alveoli in the lungs?
Increased surface area!! Increased amount increase the rate at which O2 and CO2 can diffuse through the lung epithelium
324
Mitotic spindle are made of
microtubules
325
What is the composition of fatty-acid tails?
carbons and hydrogens (not good oxidizing agents or electron acceptors)
326
What is the main characteristic of bacteria and archaea?
They do not have nuclei!
327
How can plasma proteins help buffer blood?
plasma proteins can help buffer blood by amino acids releasing or absorbing protons (acting as Bronsted-Lowry acids or bases)
328
Analogous vs homologous structures
analogous: evolved independently but serve the same function (wing of bird and wing of bee)
homologous: have similar evolutionary history even if different functions now (an arm of a human and flipper of a walrus)
329
Which are the two stereospecific steps of the citric acid cycle?
Chiral:
IM cool AF
D-isocrite and L-malate which are produced by aconitase and fumarase
330
Does ADP or ATP inhibit the citric acid cycle?
ATP!! It is being produced, so more of it would make it not run.
ATP is also not used to produce anything in the citric acid cycle
331
Which complex in the ETC does not pump protons into the intermembrane space? What affect does it have on pH?
Complex II does not, and therefore does not affect pH!!!
protons/H/pH all go together
332
What is true regarding the reduction potentials of each subsequent step of the ETC?
They must have a HIGHER REDUCTION POTENTIAL than the step before
Must have a higher tendency to be reduced or gain electrons!!
333
Between which two complexes of the ETC is cytochrome c?
Complex II and Complex III
cytochrome has 2 cs and than c so
2->3 Cs
334
What effect does fructose-2,6-bisphosphate have on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
allosterically activates PFK-1 in glycolysis, thus increasing it
allosterically inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphate in gluconeogenesis, inhibiting it
335
By what pathway does bound insulin activate glycolysis?
336
What role do T-tubules play in muscle cells?
it is where the action potential travels down from the sarcolemma, causing it to open its channels and release Ca2+ into the cytoplasm
essentially: means by which action potential travels (causing SR Ca2+ into cytoplasm)
337
Between what 2 types of molecules is a Schiff base formed?
a primary amine (N bonded to 1 carbon) and a carbonyl group
Pic is example with Lysine
338
Light causes photoreceptor ___________
and dark causes photoreceptor ________
Light causes photoreceptor hyperpolarization
and dark causes photoreceptor depolarization
339
Where does fermentation occur?
The cytosol
340
How does substrate-level phosphorylation work?
the energy released from one reaction is directly coupled with the endergonic phosphorylation of ADP to produce ATP
341
During which step of metabolism does oxidative phosphorylation happen?
ETC!!!
If the question does not involve the ETC, it does not involve oxidative phosphorylation
342
what connects cells in cardiac muscles that is unique to that specific type of muscle?
Intercolated disks
343
higher pKa= _____acidity
lower
344
What are the two biggest characteristics of the gene sequences of telomeres?
1. Non-coding
2. highly repetitive
345
Transcription of a gene involves_______polymerase, not __________polymerase
Transcription of a gene involves RNA polymerase, not DNA polymerase
-DNA Polymerase is involved in replication, not transcription
346
Down-regulation of K+ channels would result in what stage of an action potential to occur more slowly? does this make the neuron hypo or hyper excitable?
Repolarization occurs more slowly, meaning cells will remain above RMP longer, making it hyper excitable
347
What are the 4 different types of neuroglia in the CNS?
1. Ependymal cells: produce cerebrospinal fluid
2.Oligodendrocytes: form myelin sheaths
3.Microglia: serve as immune cells (phagocytize damaging things)
4. astrocytes: contact blood vessels and maintain neurotransmitter homeostatis. Help develop and maintain other glial cells
348
What type of bonds/numbers does A-T form? G-C?
A-T: 2 hydrogen bonds from nitrogenous groups
G-C: 3 hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous groups
349
What are two primary factors that generally determine the level of blood pressure?
Cardiac output (HR*SV) and resistance to blood flow
350
Effects of vasoconstriction vs vasodilation
vasoconstriction: decreases blood flow to an organ
ex. when your body attempts to stop hemorrhage
vasodilation: increases blood flow to an organ
ex. during strenuous activity to your muscles or to your cheeks when blushing
351
If toxic CN- disrupts cytochrome c oxidase, what would you expect?
I. increased oxygen demand.
II. reduced intracellular ATP.
III. apoptosis or necrosis.
II and III only; if cytochrome c isn't workin, there would be no demand for oxygen since it won't be reduced
352
Buffers work in the flat region of the graph because these are the regions where the pH changes very little with respect to the titrant
353
Chemoattractant definition
a substance that attracts motile cells of a particular type
354
Antibodies bind to
antigens; no specific structure but tend to be macromolecules or proteins on the surface of the cell
355
What are the hormones involved in Calcium blood levels? Explain their effects
Hormones that regulate Ca: PTH (increases Ca blood conc, increases osteoclast activity releasing calcium into blood from bones) and calcitonin (decreases Ca in blood, osteoblast activity increases as it stores calcium in bones)
356
operators are found in ______ (type of cell)
prokatyotes
357
Myelin main effect
increases the velocity of action potentials
358
commenalism
one species benefits while the other does not
359
as long as calcium is present in the muscle cell....
it will continue to contract! Tetanic contraction
360
acronym for cell development and each explained
More Blasting Gas, I'm Nervous
Morula (16 cells)
Blastocyst (developed blastocoel)
Gatsrula (ectoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm)
neurulation (ectoderm-> nervous system)
361
angiogenesis
Formation of new blood vessels
362
Post-exercise, new myofibrils are..
increased in thickness and number post angiogenesis, to create muscle hypertrophy (protein synthesis exceeds protein breakdown)
363
Isoelectric focusing purpose and technique
IEF: separate proteins by isoelectric point.
Cathode of IEF is negatively charged electrode, so things that are positively charged will move towards it
364
What processes of metabolism take place in the mitochondria?
Citric acid cycle, beta oxidation, and oxidative phosphorylation
365
What do sympathomemetic compounds do?
tend to promote responses typical of the sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight)
366
Bacteria can be killed by viruses in which phase?
The lytic cycle; not the lysogenic cycle when the virus is being integrated into the bacterial genome
Lysogenic… gen= being added to the bacterial genome
367
bacteriophages
viruses whose host cells are bacteria
368
what happens to post-transcriptional pre-mRNA?
1. add 5' cap
2. add 3' poly-A tail (prevent degradation in cytosol)
3. remove introns, non-coding regions
369
How many base pairs is the 5' cap?
1!
370
What regions are included in mRNA?
1. 5' cap
2. 5' UTR
3. coding regions extrons)
4. 3' UTR
5. Poly-A-tail
371
6 nucleotides=____ basepairs
6 nucleotides=_____amino acids
3 basepairs (bonds between either a G=C or A=T)
2 amino acids (3 nucleotides make up one codon, or one specific amino acid)
372
What are 4 types of structural proteins?
1. Keratin
2. Actin
3. Myosin
4. Collagen
373
Involuntary contraction of a muscle under voluntary control is likely due to
374
Attenuation definition
the reduction of something
375
Name factors that attenuate sound energy as it travels through the body
1. absorption
2. reflection
3. refraction
4. scattering
5. diffracted
376
ultrasound frequency is ______human hearing
is above the frequency that humans are able to hear at
"ultra"
377
Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by
ATP
378
Where is PEPCK located?
The mitochondria and cytosol
379
What are the general formulas for
alkanes
alkenes
alkynes
alkanes: CnH2n+2
alkenes:CnH2n
alkynes:CnH2n-2
380
A smaller pkb level corresponds to a ______base
stronger
Think synonymous with pKa: a smaller pKa indicates a stronger acid
381
The inductive affect: Electron withdrawing groups cause vs electron donating cause
EWG increase acidity
EDG decrease acidity
382
What effect does impurities have on the boiling point of pure substances
lowers them, and broadens their range
383
What is the formula for phosphoric acid
H3PO4
384
Heterocycle
A ring of atoms of more than one kind
385
What is Huckel's rule
Conjugated systems must have a factor 4n+2 pi electrons to be considered aromatic
(examples, 2, 6, 10, 14 etc)
386
Glycolysis produces how much atp?
2 atp
387
somatic cells vs germ cells
somatic cells = non- egg and sperm
germ cells= egg and sperm
388
What migrates toward inflammation
leukocytes
389
Bacteria is removed from lymph in the _______ and blood in the ______
lymph from lymph nodes
blood from the spleen
390
What are the 2 main effects of helper T cells
They bind to foreign antigens on immune cells and release signaling molecules to:
1.activate cytotoxic T-cells
2. B lymphocyte antibody production
391
Deoxygenated blood transfer through _____ side of the heart
right
DEOXY-Ribose
392
Oxygenated blood transfers through the _____side of the heart
left
393
Macrophage role post-cut (bleeding)
1. phagocytosis, engulf and destroy foreign pathogens and damaged cells
2. contribute to clot formation with platelets
394
Open reading frames start with _____(start codon) and end with _____ (stop codon)
AUG: Start
UAA, UAG, UGA: STOP
395
Sarcoplasmic reticulum responsibilities in muscle:
Ca2+ concentrations!!!!
Sequester Ca2+ when at rest, and control the release of them into cytosol during contraction
396
Somatic nervous system
voluntary motor nerve fibers transmit impulses fromCBS to skeletal muscles
397
Osmoregulation
provides the energy need to reverse natural diffusion of water process and maintain constant salt and water concentrations
Essentially ensure that things DON'T equilibriate
In its absence, will flow down concentration gradient etc.
398
What type of interactions do antibodies have?
They bind non-covalently to proteins or chemicals called epitopes
399
degradation of _____proteins go to the proteosome whereas degradation of _______go to the lysosome
degradation of cytosolic proteins go to the proteasome whereas degradation of secretory goes to the lysosome
400
what type of tag marks cytosolic proteins for degradation by proteosomes?
Ubiquitin
401
What is a ping pong mechanism
one where a substrate binds, reacts, and leaves before the next substrate binds
402
What affect do competitive inhibitors have on the maximum reaction rate
They do not change the maximum reaction rate
403
What do chaperone proteins do?
Facilitate proper protein folding
404
What will RNA that is destined for the cell membrane normally have
a cell signaling sequence
405
Which portion of the collecting duct is urine the most concentrated?
the medullary portion of the collecting duct
406
which type of molecules pass directly through the membrane?
Hydrophobic! Like this
407
The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by:
passive flow due to a pressure difference.
408
Which type of enzyme is capable of changing the chirality of a molecule?
Isomerase
409
How are nucleotides linked
Nucleotides are linked to one another by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one nucleotide (thymine) and the phosphate group of the adjacent nucleotide (adenine) in a way that the 5′ end bears a phosphate, and the 3′ end a hydroxyl group.
410
The endomembrane system is responsible for
modifying cells that are going to be secreted
411
412
Influx of Na+ across the motor end plate is directly mediated by
a ligand-gated ion channel
413
Restriction sites for southern blots are most likely
palindromes 4-6 base pair length
palindrome sequences read the same in the 3' and 5' direction
414
What is a prion?
A prion is a misfolded protein that causes other proteins to misfold
415
What is the average weight of an amino acid?
110 Da
416
The opponent enzyme to kinase is
phosphatase
417
Difference between kinase and phosphorylase
kinase uses a phosphate from ATP and adds it to an organic molecule, and phosphorylase uses an inorganic phosphate group
418
Law of reflection
angle of incidence = angle of reflection
419
DNA is bonded by
phosphodiester bonds
420
nucleotides are bonded by
phosphodiester bonds
421
which amino acid has a sulfahydryl group
cysteine
422
After a carbohydrate is phagocytized by a cell where will it go
phagosome(endosome) that then fuses with a lysosome where the carbohydrate is ingested by enzymes
423
ANY process against concentration gradient requires
energy; active transport
424
A protein with an isoelectric point around 9
Has a postive charge
425
Folding of secretory proteins happens in the
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
426
Something that activates transcription most likely has
a nuclear localization sequence, since transcription MUST happen in nucleus
427
What effect does ubiquitination have on a protein?
It targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome into short peptides
P U! Proteasome, ubiquitination
428
Protein subunits that can be separated by reduction are most likely connected by
disulfide bridges between cysteine bonds
429
histone acetylation is a type of
post translational modification
430
What is another name for ADH
vasopressin
431
something that enters the bloodstream from the small intestine will first encounter which organ
the liver; which receives blood from the abdomen via the hepatic portal vein
432
The main 2 roles of the liver
process nutrients, and detoxify
433
Internalization of viruses via endocytosis is mediated by
endosomes
434
A frameshift mutation, that doesn't result in a premature stop codon, most likely changes
the primary carboxyl-terminal sequence
435
1 mol of glucose produces___ net mols of ATP in glycolysis
2 mols; 1 for each pyruvate
436
egg and sperm are both _____ (ploidy)
haploid
437
What does the epididymis do
stores sperm; where it gains motility
438
Where is the site of spermatogenesis
seminiferous tubules of the testis
439
Which 2 amino acids are unlikely to be found in alpha helices because they disrupt bond angles?
Proline and Glycine
440
List 4 types of non-covalent interactions
1. Hydrogen bonding
2. Hydrophobic effect
3. london dispersion
4. salt bridges
441
Attentuate=
Decrease
442
Proteases break what type of bonds?
Peptide bonds in proteins
443
Km definition
the substrate concentration when half the Vmax is reached
444
Increasing Km indicates
decreasing binding affinity
445
what type of cells are ovarian cells?
Epithelial cells
446
What are considered reducing sugars?
ALL monosaccharides aldoses and ketoses are considered reducing sugars; only disaccharides with a free anomeric carbon are considered reducing
447
Erythrocytes don't contain both DNA and
mitochondria
448
Product of PCR is
DNA
449
What is the benefit of storing glucose as glycogen?
It reduces the osmotic pressure on the cell membrane
450
What is kcat?
Turnover number
451
How do you calculate catalytic efficiency?
kcat/km
452
What is the definition of catalytic efficiency?
How effective an enzyme is at low concentrations
453
Which metabolic pathways are aerobic?
Krebs cycle and ETC
454
What affect does the accumulation of lactic acid have?
It causes acidification of the cytoplasm
455
Slow-twitch fibers likely have which 3 characteristics that separates them from fast-twitch fibers
slow twitch:
1. more mitochondria
2. more oxygen-binding proteins
3. greater capillary density
456
What does helicase do?
catalyzes the separation of the parent DNA strands at the origin of replication
457
Primary active transport requires
direct input of ATP to stimulate transport
458
When would b-hydroxybutyrate (b-OHB) levels be increased?
b-OHB are ketone bodies, so during prolonged periods of starvation or exercise
459
What is a product of lactic acid fermentation that goes on to be used in glycolysis?
NAD+
460
Imprinted genes
Genes that are expressed in a parent-specific manner, based on epigenetic factors (something not directly in the gene, relationship with something else)
461
462
microfilament vs microtubule
microfilament: in cytoplasm and muscles, actin
microtubules: cell "highways" for dynein (retrograde transport) and kinesin (anterograde transport). Also cilia flagella are made of microtubules
463
In an operon system the repressor binds to the the
operator (which is upstream of the coding region
464
Larger proteins move _____ through SDS PAGE and _______ through size exclusion chromatography
Larger proteins move smaller distance through SDS PAGE and quicker through size exclusion chromatography
465
Women over 35 years of age have an increased risk of nondisjunction due to errors in what phase of meiosis?
Anaphase II
466
Kd
Way to quickly test binding affinity; a low Kd indicates that the enzyme and substrate do not readily dissociate ie stronger binding affinity. In picture, Enzyme y has a greater binding affinity
467
Leydig cells
In response to LH, they produce testosterone and androgens
LH->Leydig cells-> produce testost/andro
L and L
468
Sertoli cells
During spermatogenesis, the main function of Sertoli cells is to nourish the developing sperm cells. These cells are located in the epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubules and are activated by FSH.
FSH->seritoli cells->nourish sperm cells
469
470
Unsaturated fatty acids have ______ melting points than saturated fatty acids
lower melting points that saturated fatty acids
471
Facultative anaerobes
can produce energy in the presence or absense of oxygen
472
The coding strand and mRNA are the SAME (minus T->U) and are both complementary to the template strand
473
The ETC pumps protons from the __________ to the ___________
mitochondrial matrix -> intermembrane space
pump protons from mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space thereby generating an electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
474
Which blotting technique cannot be used to detect gene expression levels?
Southern blotting; detects sequences of DNA, but not expression levels
475
Of these 3 groups, which will deprotonate at physiological pH?
alcohols
carboxylic acids
phosphate groups
alcohols: no, they are not acidic
carboxylic acids: yes (+1)
Phosphate groups: yes (+2)
476
Role of bile salts
mechanically digest lipid globules by breaking them into smaller droplets through emulsification
477
Cardiac sphincter
located end of esophagus->stomach
478
What two components help protect stomach against autodigestion by gastric juices?
mucus and bicarbonate
479
prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes both have what in common?
both are still double stranded dna!
480
Characteristic of prokaryotic transcription/translation
They happen at the same time because of no nucleus!
481
Genetic mutations that disrupt gluconeogenesis or gycogenolysis can be helped by dietary supplementation with
glucose sources; like starch!
482
What stabilizes alpha helices?
hydrogen bonding between peptide backbone amide hydrogens and carbonyl oxygens
483
If an answer or question ever asks about binding affinities #1 thing to do
ALWAYS look at shapes of passage graphs; sigmoidal indicates cooporativity!!
484
Name 3 categories of AA side chains that can act as nucleophiles in an active site
485
What are two methods that can be used to assess relative quantity of genes?
DNA sequencing and southern blotting
486
What key things happen during inspiration?
Muscles contract, diphram moves down, volume increases, pressure decreases (eventually below atm -> air flows down lungs)
487
Yeast is eukaryotic or prokaryotic?
eukaryotic
488
Filtered blood substances are collected in the __________, whereas unfiltered blood goes to the ________
Filtered blood substances are collected in the bowman's capsule, whereas unfiltered blood goes to the efferent arterioles
489
What are two characteristics to look out for on blotting and what do they represent
Thickness of band: quantity of expression
location of band: shows size
Here, FL-SMN has the largest size, but SMN7 has the highest expression
490
mRNA is the ______as coding strand and __________ to template strand
mRNA is the SAME (besides U->T) as coding strand and complementary to template strand
491
If two reactions are carried out at the same enzyme concentrations, what can be said about Vmax and Kcat?
They are directly correlated bc
kcat=vmax/[E]
492
cytochrome P450 does what?
Cytochrome P450 acts as an OXIDIZING agent to allow drug metabolism. Cytochrome P450 itself is reduced, so it oxidizes drugs when it works
493
What do transcription factors do
They bind to the DNA promoter region and then help recruit the appropriate polymerases
494
An enzyme that inhibits the carnitine shuttle will
decrease fatty acid oxidation
495
What is the first step in fatty acid synthesis?
ACRDR; activate (this is A), condense, reduce, dehydrate, reduce
496
Where do 32 P and 35 S incorporate into?
32 P: DNA
35 S: proteins
497
What are the phosphorlatable amino acids?
Serine, threonine, and tyrosine
498
Disulfide bond formation can be both ______ and ________
intramolecular and intermolecular
499
Hemoglobin affinity for oxygen would ______ with a decrease in plasma Pco2
increase; because with less CO2, higher pH, and hemoglobin is less likely to let go of oxygen
500
Henry's Law
Conc [gas]= partial pressure gas* kH (constant)
Basically says partial pressure of a gas is proportional to the concentration of that gas
501
How many nucleotides are used to code a 10 AA chain?
33! 3 per base+ 3 for the stop codon!
502
Following a meal you would expect (2 main things)
Decreased levels of circulating glucagon
Increased levels of circulating insulin
503
Aspartate 1 letter code
D
504
tRNA transition through the ribosome
505
RT-PCR vs PCR
PCR: measures DNA levels
RT-PCR: measures mRNA levels
506
C-terminus/N-terminus characteristic
C-terminus: - negatively charged
N-terminus: positively charged
507
How does gel filtration chromatography separate proteins?
Based on size alone; NOT charge. Large molecules travel through quicker, small ones get trapped in pores
508
509
What is true of the inactive X chromosome in mammalian females?
It is one of the last chromosome to replicate
Female mammals have 2 X chromosomes so to prevent duplicates one of them is inactivated
510
Free energy _____in a spontaneous reaction
decreases! Becomes more negative
511
What is not included in Keq equation?
Pure solids and liquids, including H2O!
512
For bile to be released, what two muscular events need to happen?
1)smooth muscles around the gallbladder need to contract
2) Hepatopancreatic sphincter will need to relax
513
Water is excreted through:
1) Urine (MAJORITY)
2)skin
3) lungs
514
During exercise, the osmolarity of venous blood from active muscles will increase as a result of an increase in:
Lactate concentration in plasma
515
What is the immune cell that will mount a response in the CNS
Microglia; monitor and maintain health by detecting injuries to the neuron
516
What intercellular connection between endothelial cells of the brain capillaries result in the blood-brain barrier?
Tight junctions
517
If the 3rd codon of a coding region is TAG what will happen?
UAG in mRNA sequence (stop codon), so full-length protein will not be made
518
What is the receptor proteins pathway to the cell surface?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, and secretory transport vesicle
519
What is plasma composed of?
520
Break down the acrosome and cortical reactions of sperm binding
1. acrosome reaction: degrades zona pellucida
so that plasma membranes can fuse and sperm can enter the oocyte
2. after this cortical reaction happens and cortical granules harden the zona pellucida so that no more sperm can enter
521
What is happening during the follicular phase?
days 1-13: LH and FSH are high and influence the maturation of ovarian follicles (FSH:first several follicles, then LH, particularly 1)
522
Ovulation
day 14 of cycle after follicular phase before luteal phase, when an oocyte is released
523
Luteal Phase
Occurs during days 15-28, with high progesterone and estrogen. Progesterone thickens endometrium to make it receptive to embryo implantation
524
Oxygen Binding: where in cooperative curve is it in the T state vs R state?
T->R (Tom Roberts)
525
How does 2,3-BPG shift the oxihemoglobin dissociation curve?
To the right! (ie better) right shift is better!!
526
A left shift in the oxygen/hemoglobin dissociation curve indicates
lower CO2 or H+ levels in the blood
527
What is the primary component of bacteria cell walls?
Peptidoglycan
528
What is the primary component of the cell walls in plants?
cellulose
529
What are 3 hormones that increase blood pressure?
1. Angiotensin II
2. Aldosterone
3. ADH
530
Ceramide is a type of
sphingolipid
531
What makes a lipid hydrolyzable, and name categories of non-hydrolyzable and hydrolyzable lipids
hydrolyzable: have an ester bond that can be cleaved by lipases through the addition of water
532
Adenylate cyclase does what?
Convert ATP into cyclicAMP (cAMP)
533
Viroids
subviral infectious particles consisting of short circular strand of viral rna
534
Break down the germ layer derivatives
535
Albumin is the major blood osmoregulatory protein. The most likely effect of a sharp rise in the level of serum albumin is:
536
If chromosomal duplication before tetrad formation occurred twice during spermatogenesis, while the other steps of meiosis proceeded normally, which of the following would result from a single spermatocyte?
537
Describe the ploidy difference between mitosis and meiosis
mitosis results in 2 diploid and meiosis results in 4 haploid
538
539
A positive hydropathy index indicates
The amino acids are hydrophobic
540
Where do microtubules radiate from?
Centrioles toward the plasma membrane
541
Ghrelin is released from ______ and leptin is released from ________
ghrelin-gastric cells (g-g)
leptin (adipose cells)
542
Describe some things enzymes, increase, decrease, and do not change in a reaction
543
What will happen in patients with insulin resistance after a meal?
the liver cell will increase production of glucose and decrease production of glycogen
544
chondrocytes
are located in the ends of long bones at the growth plate; help long bones grow, and stop dividing when bone growth is complete
545
Decreased blood pressure cause activation of
the renin-angiotensin system
546
Specify differences in the 3 types of muscles
547
Name a few of the niche differences between the germ layers
548
What 3 things cause right shifts in oxygen binding curves?
1. Increase 2,3-BPG
2.Decreased pH
3.Increased pCO2
4. High H+ concentration
549
after eating, what is the order of metabolic states?
eat->postprandial (anabolism)->postabsorptive (somewhat a mix, glucagon active for sure)->starvation (catabolism
550
Single stranded-genomes can be found in
some viruses, NOT eukaryotes
551
DNA mismatch repair is a process during
DNA replication, strands should NOT involve uracil because not transcription
552
All prokaryotes and eukaryotes have
a phospholipid bilayer! Viruses will not if they are nonenveloped by eukaryote
553
How to tell beta/alpha and D/L on a fischer projection of a carbohydrate?
anomeric carbon at the top, left = beta, right=alpha
furthest carbon = Left=L, right=D
554
what does lactate dehydrogenase do?
It either converts pyruvate to lactic acid and produces NAD+
or converts lactic acid to pyruvate and creates NADH
555
Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson–Crick base pair?
Cytosine!
556
What type of media would be needed to grow viruses in a laboratory?
Viruses take advantage of the elaborate intracellular mechanisms of the host cell using them to make more virus particles. To do this they need intact host cells. Non-cellular media such as the nutrient broths and suspensions in choices A, B and C will not support culture of viruses. They can be grown in tissue culture, so choice D is the correct answer.
557
Which assumption of the gas laws does not hold at pressures much higher than 1 atm?
the volume of the individual gas particles are no longer negligible
558
What happens in necrosis but not apoptosis?
Necrosis causes damage to nearby cells due to lysis
559
Lutineizing Hormone
hormone responsible for triggering ovulation
560
Distinguish between some of the anabolic and catabolic processes in metabolism
561
As you inhale, what happens to intrapleural volume and pressure
Volume goes up and pressure goes down!!!
Boyles law! Inversely related!
562
Slope vs area under the curve
They do not represent the same thing!! Slope units are x/y, but area units are x*y
563
What are 2 major isomers of Glucose
galactose and fructose
564
Fructose and Glucose are
structural isomers
565
Butyrate, propionate, and acetate are examples of
Short chain fatty acids. Think about the structure of them and the structure of fatty acids that I know (long hydrocarbon chain and carboxylic acid group)
566
A reduction in the quantity of something that consumes H+ in a reaction will do what?
Decrease pH since less H+ being consumed
567
Leucine vs Isoleucine
568
Glycoproteins cannot
cross the cell membrane (like other peptide hormones, unlike other steroid hormones)
569
Transduction
Transduction is the process by which nucleic acids are transferred from viruses to cells.
570
571
Regions of DNA that are highly conserved likely
are vital to an organisms survival
572
What type of enzyme will break glycosidic linkages?
hydrolases
573
Specific Activity is a measure of
a measure of the amount of enzyme per milligram of total protein. This provides a measure of the purity of an enzymatic mixture.
574
Dehydrogenases are what class of enzymes
oxidoreductases
575
G-C bonds have more ________and increase _____strength
hydrogen bonding and pi-stacking strength
576
Ovum
the most developed egg ready for fertilization; haploid number of maternally divided cells
