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CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10: Communicating Between Networks Exam Answers > Check Point Certified Security Administrator – R81.20 (CCSA) v1.0 > Flashcards

Check Point Certified Security Administrator – R81.20 (CCSA) v1.0 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

A. CloudSec deployment
B. Disliked deployment
C. Router only deployment
D. Standalone deployment

A

D. Standalone deployment

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2
Q

Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

A. Read Only All
B. Full Access
C. Editor
D. Super User

A

A. Read Only All

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3
Q

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

A. Logging and Status
B. Monitoring
C. Threat Emulation
D. Application Control

A

B. Monitoring

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4
Q

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

A. Formal
B. Corporate
C. Central
D. Local

A

D. Local

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5
Q

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Anti-Malware
B. Content Awareness
C. Anti-Virus
D. IPS

A

C. Anti-Virus

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6
Q

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

A. Control Data Security
B. Decrease legal liability
C. Improve organizational security
D. Control Bandwidth issues

A

A. Control Data Security

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7
Q

Which one of the following is TRUE?

A. One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both.
B. Inline layer can be defined as a rule action.
C. Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy.
D. Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers.

A

B. Inline layer can be defined as a rule action.

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8
Q

Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _____ and _____.

A. Software container; software package
B. Software package; signature
C. Signature; software blade
D. Software blade; software container

A

A. Software container; software package

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9
Q

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

A. One-time Password
B. Token
C. Certificate
D. Internal Certificate Authority

A

A. One-time Password

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10
Q

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

A. Original packet and translated packet
B. Manipulated packet and original packet
C. Untranslated packet and manipulated packet
D. Translated packet and untranslated packet

A

A. Original packet and translated packet

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11
Q

Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

A. 192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop
B. src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
C. 192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
D. src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

A

B. src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

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12
Q

Fill in the blanks: The _____ collects logs and sends them to the _____.

A. Log server; Security Gateway
B. Security Gateways; log server
C. Log server; security management server
D. Security management server; Security Gateway

A

B. Security Gateways; log server

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

A. RADIUS
B. SecurID
C. Check Point password
D. Security questions

A

D. Security questions

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14
Q

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

A. Route-based- The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTIs. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.
B. Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.
A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.
C. Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.
D. Domain-based- VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways.
When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

A

A. Route-based- The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTIs. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

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15
Q

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

A. To see what users are doing.
B. Ensure security and privacy of information.
C. To filter out specific content.
D. To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

A

B. Ensure security and privacy of information.

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16
Q

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

A. superuser
B. monitor
C. altuser
D. admin

A

D. admin

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17
Q

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A. Eyeglasses
B. Pencil
C. Padlock
D. Book

A

B. Pencil

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18
Q

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

A. Logs Monitor
B. Manage Settings
C. Security Policies
D. Gateway Servers

A

A. Logs Monitor

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19
Q

Check Point Update Service Engine (CPUSE), also known as Deployment Agent [DA], is an advanced and intuitive mechanism for software deployment on Gaia OS. What software packages are supported for deployment?

A. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), and of Major Versions. Blink Packages and HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo) are not supported.
B. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), and of Major Versions.
C. It supports deployments of Major Versions and Blink packages only.
D. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), but not of Major Versions.

A

B. It supports deployments of single HotFixes (HF), of HotFix Accumulators (Jumbo), and of Major Versions

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20
Q

In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

A. MANAGE & SETTINGS
B. SECURITY POLICIES
C. GATEWAYS & SERVERS
D. LOGS & MONITOR

A

A. MANAGE & SETTINGS

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21
Q

Which tool allows automatic update of Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on Gaia OS?

A. CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service
B. CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine
C. CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine
D. CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine

A

B. CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

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22
Q

In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

A. Verify and compile Security Policies.
B. Display policies and logs on the administrator’s workstation.
C. Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.
D. Manage the object database.

A

B. Display policies and logs on the administrator’s workstation.

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23
Q

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

A. True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators
B. False, only one administrator can login with write permission
C. True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators
D. False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties

A

C. True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators

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24
Q

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

A. Check Point Update Engine
B. Check Point Upgrade Installation Service
C. Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE)
D. Check Point INSPECT Engine

A

C. Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE)

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25
Q

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Delete older versions of database.
B. Publish or discard the session.
C. Revert the session.
D. Save and install the Policy.

A

B. Publish or discard the session.

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26
Q

What are the two deployment options available for a security gateway?

A. Bridge and Switch
B. Local and Remote
C. Cloud and Router
D. Standalone and Distributed

A

D. Standalone and Distributed

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27
Q

One of major features in SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A. AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.
B. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.
C. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
D. AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

A

C. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

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28
Q

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer.

A. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.
B. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server dependency.
C. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.
D. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server’s Mgmt-interface and has no dependency on the gateway.

A

C. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

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29
Q

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are _____ types of Software Containers: _____.

A. Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security
B. Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security
C. Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management
D. Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

A

B. Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

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30
Q

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

A. Formal
B. Central
C. Local
D. Corporate

A

C. Local

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31
Q

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

A. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.
B. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.
C. Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.
D. Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

A

C. Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

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32
Q

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

A. Switch
B. Standalone
C. Distributed
D. Remote

A

B. Standalone

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33
Q

Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

A. Data Awareness
B. Threat Emulation
C. Application Control
D. Identity Awareness

A

D. Identity Awareness

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34
Q

DLP and Mobile Access Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A. Shared Policies
B. Unified Policies
C. Inspection Policies
D. Standard Policies

A

A. Shared Policies

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35
Q

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A. Read-only
B. Expert
C. Clish
D. Bash

A

C. Clish

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in SmartConsole?

A. WEBUI & COMMAND LINE
B. SECURITY POLICIES
C. GATEWAYS & SERVERS
D. LOGS & MONITOR

A

A. WEBUI & COMMAND LINE

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37
Q

What are two basic rules Check Point recommends for building an effective security policy?

A. Accept Rule and Drop Rule
B. Explicit Rule and Implied Rule
C. Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule
D. NAT Rule and Reject Rule

A

C. Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

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38
Q

When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

A. Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers
B. Ordered Layers and Inline Layers
C. Structured Layers and Overlap Layers
D. R81.X does not support Layers

A

B. Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

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39
Q

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

A. Smart Console, Standalone, Security Management Server
B. Policy-Client, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole, Security Policy Server, Logs & Monitoring
D. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

A

D. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

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40
Q

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

A. Threat Extraction
B. Threat Emulation
C. Firewall
D. Application Control

A

B. Threat Emulation

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41
Q

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

A. ask, block, and notify
B. block, action, and warn
C. action, inform, and ask
D. inform, ask, and drop

A

A. ask, block, and notify

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42
Q

By default, which port is used to connect to the GAiA Portal?

A. 4434
B. 80
C. 8080
D. 443

A

D. 443

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43
Q

Choose what BEST describes a Session.

A. Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.
B. Sessions locks the policy package for editing.
C. Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.
D. Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole.

A

C. Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

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44
Q

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

A. cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf
B. vpn tu tlist
C. vpn tu
D. cpview

A

C. vpn tu

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45
Q

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

A. Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.
B. Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.
C. The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.
D. The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

A

B. Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

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46
Q

Fill in the blank: Backup and restores can be accomplished through _____.

A. CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup
B. SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole
C. SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI
D. WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

A

C. SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

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47
Q

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

A. Automatic Hide NAT
B. Automatic Static NAT
C. Manual Static NAT
D. Manual Hide NAT

A

A. Automatic Hide NAT

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48
Q

Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the _____ is translated.

A. Hide; source
B. Simple; source
C. Static; source
D. Hide; destination

A

A. Hide; source

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49
Q

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

A. AppWiki
B. Application-Forensic Database
C. Application Library
D. Application database

A

A. AppWiki

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50
Q

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

A. Security Management Server
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartManager

A

A. Security Management Server

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51
Q

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in different tables?

A. Application Layer Firewall
B. Packet Filtering
C. Next-Generation Firewall
D. Stateful Inspection

A

D. Stateful Inspection

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52
Q

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

A. Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked.
B. From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor tab and filter for the IP address of the tablet.
C. Open SmartMonitor and connect remotely to the wireless controller.
D. Open SmartUpdate and review the logs tab.

A

B. From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor tab and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

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53
Q

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

A. Gaia iOS
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 4
C. Centos Unix
D. Gaia embedded

A

A. Gaia iOS

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54
Q

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

A. cplic print
B. show license -s
C. fw ctl tab -t license -s
D. license view

A

A. cplic print

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55
Q

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

A. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.
B. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.
C. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.
D. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

A

D. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

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56
Q

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The GAiA Portal (WebUI) can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and:

A. assign privileges to users.
B. assign user rights to the directory structure on the Security Management Server.
C. add more users to the Gaia operating system.
D. change the home directory of the user.

A

B. assign user rights to the directory structure on the Security Management Server.

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57
Q

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

A. 3DES
B. AES-128
C. DES
D. AES-256

A

C. DES

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58
Q

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _____ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

A. SmartMonitor
B. SmartReporter
C. SmartTracker
D. SmartView Web Application

A

D. SmartView Web Application

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59
Q

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

A. None
B. Alert
C. Log
D. Tracking

A

C. Log

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60
Q

Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a _____ should be installed.

A. License Management file
B. License Contract file
C. Security Gateway Contract file
D. Service Contract file

A

D. Service Contract file

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61
Q

When should you generate new licenses?

A. Only when the license is upgraded.
B. After a device upgrade.
C. When the existing license expires, the license is upgraded, or the IP address associated with the license changes.
D. Before installing contract files.

A

C. When the existing license expires, the license is upgraded, or the IP address associated with the license changes.

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62
Q

Fill in the blank: The position of an Implied rule is manipulated in the _____ window.

A. Firewall
B. Object Explorer
C. Global Properties
D. NAT

A

C. Global Properties

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63
Q

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

A. The existing license expires.
B. The Security Gateway is upgraded.
C. The license is upgraded.
D. The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

A

B. The Security Gateway is upgraded.

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64
Q

You have enabled “Extended Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

A. Log Trimming is enabled.
B. Content Awareness is not enabled.
C. Logging has disk space issues.
D. Identity Awareness is not enabled.

A

B. Content Awareness is not enabled.

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65
Q

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the _____.

A. Package repository
B. Download Center Web site
C. License and Contract repository
D. User Center

A

C. License and Contract repository

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66
Q

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

A. Shared Secret Passwords
B. Unique Passwords
C. Shared User Certificates
D. Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

A

D. Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

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67
Q

Main Mode in iKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

A. 3
B. depends on the make of the peer gateway
C. 6
D. 4

A

C. 6

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68
Q

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

A. Proxy Server
B. Endpoint VPN client
C. Identity Collector
D. SmartConsole

A

D. SmartConsole

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69
Q

What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?

A. Destination and Hide
B. Source and Destination
C. Static and Source
D. Hide and Static

A

D. Hide and Static

70
Q

Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

A. Explicit
B. Implicit drop
C. Implicit accept
D. Inline

A

A. Explicit

71
Q

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

A. In Global Properties.
B. On each Security Gateway.
C. On the Policy layer.
D. On the Policy Package.

A

C. On the Policy layer.

72
Q

Log query results can be exported to what file format?

A. Comma Separated Value (csv).
B. Word Document (docx).
C. Text (txt).
D. Portable Document Format (pdf).

A

A. Comma Separated Value (csv).

73
Q

In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Select the BEST answer.

A. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
B. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.
C. mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.
D. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

A

B. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

74
Q

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

A. Anti-spam and Email Security
B. Anti-Virus
C. Firewall
D. Application Control

A

B. Anti-Virus

75
Q

When a Security Gateway communicates about its status to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option was chosen?

A. Targeted
B. Bridge Mode
C. Distributed
D. Standalone

A

C. Distributed

76
Q

In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the “Actions” column of a rule?

A. “Inspect”, “Bypass”, “Block”
B. “Inspect”, “Bypass”, “Categorize”
C. “Inspect”, “Bypass”
D. “Detect”, “Bypass”

A

A. “Inspect”, “Bypass”, “Block”

77
Q

Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

A. Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.
B. Central Licensing actually not supported with Gaia.
C. Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.
D. Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gaia.

A

A. Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

78
Q

In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

A. Install policy
B. Publish changes
C. Install database
D. Save changes

A

A. Install policy

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

A. SNMP
B. User defined alert
C. High alert
D. Mail

A

C. High alert

80
Q

The VPN Link Selection will perform the following if the primary VPN link goes down?

A. The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces
B. The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down
C. The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel
D. The Firewall will drop the packets

A

C. The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel

81
Q

A layer can support different combinations of blades. What are the supported blades:

A. Firewall, NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access
B. Firewall, URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access
C. Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness
D. Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

A

D. Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

82
Q

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the _____ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the _____ layer.

A. Upper; Application
B. Lower; Application
C. First two; Internet
D. First two; Transport

A

B. Lower; Application

83
Q

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

A. Log, Alert, None
B. Drop Packet, Alert, None
C. Log, Allow Packets, Email
D. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

A

A. Log, Alert, None

84
Q

What licensing feature automatically verifies current licenses and activates new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

A. Automatic Licensing and Verification tool
B. Verification licensing
C. Verification tool
D. Automatic licensing

A

D. Automatic licensing

85
Q

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

A. Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates
B. PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets
C. Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket
D. PKI Certificates and DynamicID OTP

A

A. Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

86
Q

Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?

A. Advanced
B. Accounting
C. Data
D. Logs

A

B. Accounting

87
Q

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

A. Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.
B. Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.
C. Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.
D. Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

A

A. Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT

88
Q

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _____.

A. Stored on the Security Management Server.
B. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.
C. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
D. Sent to the Security Administrator.

A

B. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

89
Q

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

A. Threat Emulation
B. Anti-Virus
C. Advanced Networking Blade
D. Application Control

A

C. Advanced Networking Blade

90
Q

In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

A. Monitoring Blade
B. SNMP
C. None - the data is available by default
D. Logging & Monitoring

A

A. Monitoring Blade

91
Q

How do logs change when the “Accounting” tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

A. Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.
B. Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.
C. Provides additional information to the connected user.
D. Provides log details view email to the Administrator.

A

A. Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.

92
Q

What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R81.20 and higher?

A. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS, File and URL Reputation
B. IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction
C. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS
D. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

A

A. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS, File and URL Reputation

93
Q

In large organizations where there are a number of managed Check Point firewalls that generate a lot of logs it is recommended to install the Log Server on a dedicated computer. Which statement is FALSE?

A. The dedicated Log Server must be the same version as the Security Management Server.
B. A Log Server has a SIC certificate which allows secure communication with the SMS and Security Gateways.
C. More than one Log Server can be installed.
D. A dedicated SmartEvent server is required for a separate Log Server to be deployed in the SmartEvent server.

A

D. A dedicated SmartEvent server is required for a separate Log Server to be deployed in the SmartEvent server.

94
Q

What is required for a site-to-site VPN tunnel that does not use certificates?

A. Unique Passwords
B. Pre-Shared Secret
C. SecureID
D. RSA Token

A

B. Pre-Shared Secret

95
Q

Fill in the blanks: A _____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

A. Local; formal
B. Central; local
C. Formal; corporate
D. Local; central

A

B. Central; local

96
Q

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

A. The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
B. The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
C. The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.
D. The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.

A

C. The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service.

97
Q

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

A. Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.
B. Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.
C. Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.
D. Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

A

C. Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

98
Q

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

A. Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention
B. Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN
C. Firewall, Application Control and IPS
D. Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

A

D. Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

99
Q

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to “First”, what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

A. Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.
B. Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.
C. Track log column is set to none.
D. Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

A

B. Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

100
Q

What are the types of Software Containers?

A. Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway
B. Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security
C. Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway
D. Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

A

B. Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

101
Q

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.
B. During the primary Security Management Server deployment process.
C. Upon creation of a certificate.
D. When an administrator decides to create one.

A

B. During the primary Security Management Server deployment process.

102
Q

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server (SMS) to other Check Point Gateways and Servers. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal Communication (SIC)?

A. After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.
B. New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.
C. A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.
D. Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

A

A. After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.

103
Q

Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detected security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

A. LOGS & MONITOR
B. SECURITY POLICIES
C. GATEWAYS & SERVERS
D. MANAGE & SETTINGS

A

A. LOGS & MONITOR

104
Q

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

A. The installation can be done on virtual machines only, but not on appliances and not in mixed environments.
B. The installation is done on different computers or appliances.
C. The installation is done on the same computer or appliance.
D. The installation is allowed in Azure only but not in AWS cloud environments.

A

B. The installation is done on different computers or appliances.

105
Q

What is the default shell for the Gaia command line interface?

A. Admin
B. Clish
C. Expert
D. Bash

A

B. Clish

106
Q

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ______ or ______.

A. GaiaUI; command line interface (serial console only)
B. Gaia Interface; Gaia Ultimate Shell
C. Command line interface; GAiA Portal
D. Web Ultimate Interface; Gaia Interface (SSH)

A

C. Command line interface; GAiA Portal

107
Q

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

A. Execute the command ‘enable’ in the cli.sh shell
B. Execute the ‘conf t’ command in the cli.sh shell
C. Execute the command ‘expert’ in the cli.sh shell
D. Execute the ‘exit’ command in the cli.sh shell

A

C. Execute the command ‘expert’ in the cli.sh shell

108
Q

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Infinite

A

D. Infinite

109
Q

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit, delete, and clone objects?

A. Object Explorer
B. Object Navigator
C. Object Editor
D. Object Browser

A

C. Object Editor

110
Q

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

A. Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.
B. Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.
C. Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.
D. No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server.

A

A. Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

111
Q

When an Admin logs into SmartConsole and sees a lock icon on a gateway object and cannot edit that object, what does that indicate?

A. Incorrect routing to reach the gateway.
B. The Admin would need to login to Read-Only mode.
C. The gateway is not powered on.
D. Another Admin has made an edit to that object and has yet to publish the change.

A

D. Another Admin has made an edit to that object and has yet to publish the change.

112
Q

Which of the following is considered a “Subscription Blade”, requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

A. IPS blade
B. IPSEC VPN Blade
C. Firewall Blade
D. Identity Awareness Blade

A

A. IPS blade

113
Q

The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

A. The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.
B. Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.
C. The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.
D. No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

A

B. Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

114
Q

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

A. Security Gateway and Security Management.
B. On-premise and Public Cloud.
C. Central and Local.
D. Access Control and Threat Prevention.

A

C. Central and Local.

115
Q

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway.

A. True, Central Licenses can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway
B. True, CLI is the preferred method for Licensing
C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways
D. False, Central Licenses are handled via Security Management Server

A

D. False, Central Licenses are handled via Security Management Server

116
Q

Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?

A. Deployment Agent
B. SmartLicense
C. SmartProvisioning
D. SmartUpdate

A

D. SmartUpdate

117
Q

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

A. show licenses
B. fwlic print
C. cplic print
D. print cplic

A

C. cplic print

118
Q

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

A. Network Object
B. IP Address
C. Limit
D. Custom Application / Site

A

B. IP Address

119
Q

What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A. To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.
B. To reduce the number of rules in the database.
C. To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.
D. To make the gateway visible to the Internet.

A

C. To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

120
Q

What are the advantages of a “shared policy”?

A. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway.
B. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server.
C. Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package.
D. Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway.

A

C. Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package.

121
Q

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

A. Threat Prevention
B. QoS
C. Threat Emulation
D. Access Control

A

B. QoS

122
Q

Which Check Point Application Control feature enables application scanning and detection?

A. Application Dictionary
B. Application Library
C. CPApp
D. AppWiki

A

D. AppWiki

123
Q

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

A. Source
B. Destination
C. Hide
D. Static

A

D. Static

124
Q

For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default.
B. Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default.
C. Automatic NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.
D. Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.

A

A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default.

125
Q

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

A. When they configure an “Automatic Static NAT” which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.
B. When they configure an “Automatic Hide NAT” which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.
C. When they configure a “Manual Static NAT” which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.
D. When they configure a “Manual Hide NAT” which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

A

C. When they configure a “Manual Static NAT” which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

126
Q

What is UserCheck?

A. Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.
B. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.
C. Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.
D. Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

A

B. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

127
Q

Which Autonomous Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

A. Cloud/data Center
B. Guest Network
C. Sandbox
D. Perimeter

A

D. Perimeter

128
Q

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

A. WebCheck
B. URL categorization
C. UserCheck
D. Harmony Endpoint

A

C. UserCheck

129
Q

You want to set up a VPN tunnel to an external gateway. You had to make sure that the IKE P2 SA will only be established between two subnets and not all subnets defined in the default VPN domain of your gateway.

A. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Management add the following line to the $FWDIR/conf/user.def.FW1 file -> subnet_for_range_and_peer = { };
B. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Selecting the local gateway in the Community you can set the VPN Domain to ‘User defined’ and put in the local network.
C. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Gateway add the following line to the $FWDIR/conf/user.def.FW1 file -> subnet_for_range_and_peer = { };
D. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Go to Security Policies / Access Control and create an in-line layer rule with source and destination containing the two networks used for the IKE P2 SA. Put the name of the Community in the VPN column.

A

B. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Selecting the local gateway in the Community you can set the VPN Domain to ‘User defined’ and put in the local network.

130
Q

Can Check Point and Third-party Gateways establish a certificate-based Site-to-Site VPN tunnel?

A. No, Certificate based VPNs are only possible between Check Point devices
B. No, they cannot share certificate authorities
C. Yes, but they have to have a pre-shared secret key
D. Yes, but they need to have a mutually trusted certificate authority

A

D. Yes, but they need to have a mutually trusted certificate authority

131
Q

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

A. Smart Event
B. Gateways & Servers Tab
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Logs & Monitoring

A

C. SmartView Monitor

132
Q

Where can alerts be viewed?

A. Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor.
B. Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.
C. Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.
D. Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

A

A. Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor.

133
Q

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartEvent
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartUpdate

A

B. SmartEvent

134
Q

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A. Security Management Server and Security Gateway
B. SmartConsole
C. SmartConsole and Security Management Server
D. Security Management Server

A

A. Security Management Server and Security Gateway

135
Q

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R81.x?

A. Full Log
B. Log
C. Detailed Log
D. Extended Log

A

A. Full Log

136
Q

What makes log queries faster?

A. Size of physical memory on the log server.
B. Logs are stored in the management server instead of a separate log server.
C. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.
D. Optimized log query where SmartConsole queries logs directly from the Security Gateway.

A

C. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

137
Q

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A. data type information
B. application information
C. file attributes
D. destination port

A

C. file attributes

138
Q

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 2

A

B. 4

139
Q

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

A. User ID 99
B. User ID 1
C. User ID 2
D. User ID 0

A

D. User ID 0

140
Q

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

A. Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.
B. Collect security gateway logs, index the logs and then compress the logs.
C. Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.
D. Analyze log entries and identify events.

A

D. Analyze log entries and identify events.

141
Q

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A. There is one default user that can be deleted.
B. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
C. There is only one default user that cannot be deleted.
D. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

A

B. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

142
Q

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

A. A rule that allows administrators to access SmartConsole from any device.
B. To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.
C. A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
D. A rule used to hide a server’s IP address from the outside world.

A

B. To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

143
Q

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

A. Expert and Clish
B. Control and Monitor
C. Admin and Monitor
D. Admin and Default

A

C. Admin and Monitor

144
Q

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

A. IPS
B. Anti-Spam
C. Anti-bot
D. Anti-Virus

A

A. IPS

145
Q

You had setup the VPN Community ‘VPN-Stores’ with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(1.1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways.

A. action:”Key Install” AND 1.1.1.1 AND Quick Mode
B. Blade:”VPN” AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode
C. action:”Key Install” AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode
D. Blade:”VPN” AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

A

D. Blade:”VPN” AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

146
Q

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

A. Anti-Virus
B. Anti-Malware
C. Threat Extraction
D. Threat Emulation

A

C. Threat Extraction

147
Q

John is the administrator of a Security Management server managing a Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators before installing a policy, what should John do?

A. File > Save
B. Publish the session.
C. Install database.
D. Logout of the session.

A

B. Publish the session.

148
Q

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

A. Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.
B. Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.
C. Cache the data to speed up its own function.
D. Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

A

A. Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

149
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

A. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use clish for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks.
B. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert mode for OS-level tasks.
C. Configuration changes should be done in expert mode and clish is used for monitoring.
D. All configurations should be done through clish and expert mode should be used for Linux commands or remaining tasks.

A

B. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert mode for OS-level tasks.

150
Q

When connected to the Check Point Management Server using the SmartConsole, the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

A. only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.
B. the entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.
C. the entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.
D. only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

A

C. the entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

151
Q

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored?

A. Check Point user center
B. Security Management Server
C. Security Gateway
D. SmartConsole installed device

A

B. Security Management Server

152
Q

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

A. Security Gateway
B. Security Gateway container
C. Management server
D. Management container

A

A. Security Gateway

153
Q

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

A. Antivirus
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. Application Control
D. NAT

A

D. NAT

154
Q

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

A. HTTPS
B. CPD
C. CPM
D. FWD

A

A. HTTPS

155
Q

Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

A. Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation
B. Subscription and Perpetual
C. Perpetual and Trial
D. Evaluation and Subscription

A

A. Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation

156
Q

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

A. Stateful Inspection, URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention
B. Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade
C. Firewall Blade, URL/Application Blade, and IPS
D. Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

A

B. Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade

157
Q

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT)
B. Static Route
C. HTTPS Inspection
D. Static NAT

A

A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

158
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

A. Concurrent policy packages
B. Shared policies
C. Global Policies
D. Concurrent policies

A

B. Shared policies

159
Q

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious?

A. Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)
B. Penalty Box
C. Drop Rule in the rulebase
D. Stealth rule

A

C. Drop Rule in the rulebase

160
Q

What is a role of Publishing?

A. The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public.
B. The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways.
C. The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways.
D. Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base.

A

A. The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public.

161
Q

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time. What tool can you use to block this traffic?

A. Anti-Bot protection
B. Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules
C. Anti-Malware protection
D. Policy-based routing

A

B. Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

162
Q

What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

A. High Performance
B. No Screening above Network Layer
C. Good Security
D. Transparency

A

B. No Screening above Network Layer

163
Q

From the GAiA Portal, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

A. Add a static route
B. View Security Management GUI Clients
C. Verify a Security Policy
D. Open a terminal shell

A

C. Verify a Security Policy

164
Q

AdminA and AdminB are both logged into SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a lock icon on a rule? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published.
B. Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available.
C. Rule is locked by AdminB because the save button has not been pressed.
D. Rule is locked by AdminB because the rule is currently being edited.

A

A. Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published.

165
Q

Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?

A. Stateful Inspection looks at both the headers of packets, as well as examining their content.
B. Stateful Inspection requires two rules, one for outgoing traffic and one for incoming traffic.
C. Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection’s state.
D. Stateful Inspection tracks state using two tables, one for incoming traffic and one for outgoing traffic.

A

C. Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection’s state.

166
Q

Aggressive Mode in iKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

A. 3
B. depends on the make of the peer gateway
C. 6
D. 5

A

A. 3

167
Q

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

A. Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.
B. The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.
C. Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.
D. When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

A

B. The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

168
Q

What does the ‘unknown’ SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

A. The management can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication
B. Administrator input the wrong SIC key
C. SIC activation key requires a reset
D. There is no connection between the Security Gateway and Security Management Server

A

A. The management can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication

169
Q

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

A. Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage
B. Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection
C. Only one rule is required for each connection.
D. Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

A

C. Only one rule is required for each connection.

170
Q

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compares traffic to this information. Where is the information stored?

A. It is stored in the OS sessions table.
B. It is stored using state tables.
C. It is stored in the system SMEM memory pool.
D. It is stored in a CSV file on the security gateway hard drive located in “$FWDIR/conf/…”.

A

B. It is stored using state tables.

171
Q

You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

A. Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.
B. Contact your ISP to request them to block the traffic.
C. Create a Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rule to block that traffic.
D. Create a new policy rule to block the traffic.

A

C. Create a Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rule to block that traffic.

172
Q

Where can the administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

A. Using cpconfig on any Gateway or Server, in the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server.
B. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.
C. In the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server, using SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.
D. Using cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators >Trusted Clients.

A

D. Using cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the GAiA Portal logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators >Trusted Clients.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10: Communicating Between Networks Exam Answers (15 decks)

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