Chapters 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 9, 14, 15, 16 Flashcards

1
Q

cell -> supercoiled DNA with histones -> also?

A

= A nucleus

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2
Q

cellular function -> isolated cell absorbs oxygen -> transform nutrients to energy?

A

= Respiration

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3
Q

eukaryotic cell -> DNA replication -> region of cell most genetic information?

A

= Nucleolus

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4
Q

fluid mosaic -> float singly or as aggregates in the fluid lipid bilayer?

A

-> Integral membrane proteins

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5
Q

Which can bind to plasma membrane receptors?

A

= Ligands

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6
Q

finding support diagnosis of metastatic cancer -> Alterations extracellular matrix that

A

= Decreased fibronectin

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7
Q

form cell communication used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact?

A

= Cell junction

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8
Q

Pancreatic beta cells ->insulin -> secretion of glucagon neighboring
alpha cells -> signaling types?

A

= Paracrine

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9
Q

cellular metabolism -> enzyme high affinity for a

A

= Substrate

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10
Q

what deficiency -> impaired muscle contraction

A

= ATP

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11
Q

phase of catabolism produces most ATP?

A

= Citric acid cycle

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12
Q

three phases of cellular catabolism

A

-> Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation & citric acid cycle

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13
Q

depleted all oxygen available muscle energy -> continues muscle performance?

A

= Anaerobic glycolysis

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14
Q

term movement -> small, electrically uncharged molecules -> semipermeable barrier

A

= Diffusion

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15
Q

Electrolytes are

A

= Electrically charged molecules

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16
Q

oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) determined

A

= Plasma proteins

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17
Q

body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg

A

= Osmolality

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18
Q

cirrhosis -> cholesterol?

A

= Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte, which reduces its ability to carry oxygen.

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19
Q

movement fluid across arterial end of capillary membranes into interstitial fluid surrounding capillary

A

= Hydrostatic pressure

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20
Q

diarrhea -> hypertonic saline solution intravenously replace -> sodium + chloride effect on cells?

A

= Cells will shrink.

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21
Q

glucose transport type -> blood to cell

A

= Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)

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22
Q

potassium + sodium transported across plasma membranes?

A

= By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)

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23
Q

potassium -> easily in and out of cells?

A

= Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium

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24
Q

transport type -> Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously same direction

A

Symport

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25
Q

process -> lysosomal enzymes -> degrade engulfed particles?

A

= Phagocytosis

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26
Q

cellular uptake of cholesterol depends on

A

= Receptor-mediated endocytosis

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27
Q

cancer drugs -> cell cycle phase of nuclear and cytoplasmic division

A

= M

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28
Q

causes rapid change resting membrane potential -> action potential?

A

= Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.

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29
Q

predominant intracellular ion is Na+ & extracellular ion is K+ -> voltage change -> action potential?

A

= K+ rushing into the cell

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30
Q

Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of

A

= Connective tissue cells

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31
Q

cell cycle -> centromeres split -> sister chromatids pulled apart

A

= Anaphase

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32
Q

role cytokines -> cell reproduction?

A

= Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development

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33
Q

biopsy -> lung bronchi -> ciliated epithelial cells capable secretion and absorption -> called _____ columnar epithelium

A

= Ciliated simple

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34
Q

predominant extracellular cation as

A

= Sodium

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35
Q

primary function of the nerve cell

A

= Conductivity

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36
Q

basic components of DNA

A

= A phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases

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37
Q

mutations -> most significant effect on protein synthesis?

A

= Frameshift mutations

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38
Q

base components DNA

A

= A, G, C, and T

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39
Q

DNA sequence ATCGGAT-> complementary strand

A

= TAGCCTAG

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40
Q

RNA directs the synthesis of protein

A

= Translation

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41
Q

homologous chromosomes -> fail separate during meiosis

A

= Nondisjunction

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42
Q

cell -> not multiple of 23 chromosomes

A

= polyploid

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43
Q

stillborn child -> fetus 92 chromosomes -> condition?

A

= Tetraploidy

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44
Q

extra portion chromosome -> each cell

A

= Partial trisomy

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45
Q

chromosomal mosaic, patient -> what that means -> genetic disease(s)

A

= Have a mild form

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46
Q

most common cause of Down syndrome

A

= Maternal nondisjunction

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47
Q

risk factors for Down syndrome

A

= Pregnancy in women over age 35

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48
Q

karyotype -> absent homologous X chromosome + only single X chromosome present -> medical diagnosis

A

= Turner syndrome

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49
Q

XXY -> genetic disorder is called -> syndrome

A

= Klinefelter

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50
Q

severe mental retardation -> deletion part chromosome 5 -> genetic disorder?

A

= Cri du chat syndrome

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51
Q

three offspring: one autosomal dominant disease trait, two normal ->father autosomal dominant disease, mother not disease gene -> risk autosomal dominant disease next child?

A

-> 50%

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52
Q

neurofibromatosis -> why varying degrees -> Which genetic principle

A

= Expressivity

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53
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by -> gene

A

= Autosomal recessive

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54
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome -> example of

A

= Gene imprinting

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55
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy -> inherited condition through -> trait

A

= Sex-linked recessive

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56
Q

blue eyes (bb) -> mother blue + father brown -> father?

A

= Bb

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57
Q

cystic fibrosis -> child’s parents’ siblings -> most likely the result of

A

= Consanguinity

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58
Q

Klinefelter syndrome -> karyotype

A

= XY

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59
Q

express polygenic trait

A

= Several genes must act together.

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60
Q

karyotype -> absent homologous X chromosome-> only a single X chromosome features: short stature, widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair

A

= Turner syndrome

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61
Q

normal male + female carrier for red-green color blindness mate X-linked recessive -> likelihood children affected?

A

= Males most affected; no females affected

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62
Q

gradual increase height -> population past 100 years

A

= A multifactorial trait

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63
Q

DNA replication -> enzyme is most important?

A

= DNA polymerase

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64
Q

regions heterogeneous nuclear RNA -> spliced out -> functional RNA

A

= Introns

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65
Q

mental retardation -> fragile X syndrome -> cause?

A

Duplication at fragile sites

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66
Q

Huntington’s disease -> Transmission associated

A

= Delayed age of onset

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67
Q

Mutations no change -> amino acid sequence -> no consequence -> mutation?

A

= Silent

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68
Q

pedigree chart -> looking for?

A

= The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease

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69
Q

disorder primarily in males?

A

= Muscular dystrophy

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70
Q

muscular atrophy -> decrease muscle cell

A

= Size

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71
Q

childhood -> thymus decreases size -> atrophy?

A

= Physiologic

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72
Q

response increased workload -> cardiac myocardial cells

A

= Increase in size

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73
Q

stratified squamous epithelial cells -> replaced normal columnar ciliated cells -> cellular adaption?

A

= Metaplasia

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74
Q

pregnant -> mammary glands enlarge

A

= Hormonal hyperplasia

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75
Q

excessive menstrual bleeding -> endometrial changes -> hormonal imbalances -> cellular change?

A

= Pathologic hyperplasia

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76
Q

hepatocellular cancer -> secondary hepatitis C -> cancerous region liver -> removed -> remaining cells undergo

A

= Compensatory hyperplasia

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77
Q

cervical cancer -> cellular changes?

A

= Dysplasia

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78
Q

chest pain on exertion -> most likely hypoxic injury secondary to

A

= Ischemia

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79
Q

heart attack -> progressive cell injury -> cell death + severe cell swelling + breakdown organelles

A

= Necrosis

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80
Q

Sodium + water accumulation -> injured cell

A

= Decreased ATP production

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81
Q

early dilation (swelling) cells -> endoplasmic reticulum

A

= Reduced protein synthesis

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82
Q

myocardial infarction -> secondary atherosclerosis + ischemia-> oxygen -> damaged heart, reperfusion injury

A

= Free radical formation

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83
Q

family -> headache, nausea, weakness + vomiting -> most likely

A

-> Carbon monoxide poisoning

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84
Q

common pathway -> irreversible cell injury -> increased intracellular

A

= Calcium

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85
Q

closed head injury -> collection blood inner surface -> dura mater + surface brain -> type injury?

A

= Subdural hematoma

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86
Q

jagged sharp-force injury -> longer than it is deep -> type wound?

A

= Incised wound

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87
Q

gunshot wound head -> seared edges + deep penetration -> smoke + gunpowder fragments

A

= Contact range entrance

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88
Q

15-year-old female ->physical assault-> internal damage neck + deep bruising -> fractures hyoid bone + tracheal + cricoid cartilage -> injuries?

A

= Manual strangulation

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89
Q

swelling feet-> aided development swelling?

A

= Na+ movement into the cell

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90
Q

multiple myeloma -> Biopsy -> Russell bodies + laboratory -> kidney dysfunction -> substance accumulating?

A

= Protein

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91
Q

newborn male -> albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance -> supported finding?

A

= Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4 dihydroxyphenylalanine)

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92
Q

black eye following a fight -> bruising due accumulation

A

= Hemosiderin

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93
Q

Liquefactive necrosis -> brain?

A

= It is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids

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94
Q

swallowed watch batteries -> ingestion, kidney function impaired -> heart began to fail -> cause?

A

= Coagulative necrosis

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95
Q

tuberculosis -> tissues soft and granular (like clumped cheese) -> cause?

A

= Caseous necrosis

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96
Q

Clostridium bacteria -> died week later -> RBC lysis membranes -> cause death?

A

= Gas gangrene

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97
Q

apoptosis -> cells program themselves to

A

= Die

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98
Q

intravenous drug user -> hepatitis C. -> cell death secondary

A

= Pathologic apoptosis

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99
Q

principle -> distinguish aging from diseases

A

= It is difficult to tell the difference because both processes are believed to result
from cell injury.

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100
Q

muscle stiffening -> 6 to 14 hours after death

A

= Rigor mortis

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101
Q

urinalysis -> alert -> cellular injury presence of

A

= Excessive protein

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102
Q

wasting syndrome -> aging -> vulnerable falls, functional decline, disease, death -> experiencing

A

= Frailty

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103
Q

Confirmation somatic death -> based on

A

= Complete cessation of respiration and circulation

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104
Q

blood plasma located -> fluid compartments?

A

= Intravascular fluid

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105
Q

male 70 kg -> how much ICF?

A

= 42 L

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106
Q

elderly higher risk -> dehydration

A

= Decreased muscle mass

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107
Q

patient decreased oncotic pressure -> capillaries?

A

= Liver failure

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108
Q

Water movement ICF + ECF compartments

A

= Osmotic forces

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109
Q

Starling forces -> fluid movement -> alteration fluid -> interstitial space?

A

= Increased interstitial oncotic pressure

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110
Q

dehydrated patient ->principle of water balance -> related balance

A

= Sodium

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111
Q

chronic renal failure -> edema -> condition cause?

A

= Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

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112
Q

10-year-old male -> ER -> incoherent and semiconscious -> cerebral edema

A

= Localized edema

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113
Q

Secretion of ADH is stimulated by

A

= Increased plasma osmolality

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114
Q

Secretion of aldosterone results in

A

= Increased blood volume

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115
Q

hormone-secreting tumor adrenal cortex -> lab results?

A

= Decreased blood K+ levels

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116
Q

Natriuretic hormones affect balance of

A

= Sodium

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117
Q

5-year-old male -> ER -> delirium + sunken eyes -> severe dehydration

A

= Intracellular dehydration

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118
Q

most risk hypernatremia?

A

= Dehydration

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119
Q

most common cause pure water deficit

A

= Renal water loss

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120
Q

Hyperlipidemia + hyperglycemia associated

A

= Hypertonic hyponatremia

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121
Q

lethargy, confusion, depressed reflexes -> not follow prescribed diet + medication
sporadically -> hyperglycemia

A

= Decreased sodium

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122
Q

Hyperkalemia causes a(n) _____ in resting membrane potential with _____ excitability of cardiac muscle

A

= Increase; increased

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123
Q

most prone to hypochloremia?

A

= Increased bicarbonate intake

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124
Q

monitor for hyperkalemia?

A

= Acute acidosis

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125
Q

organ system monitor -> long-term potassium deficits?

A

= Kidneys

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126
Q

muscle weakness + cardiac abnormalities. -> hypokalemic -> cause condition?

A

= Primary hyperaldosteronism

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127
Q

restlessness, muscle, cramping, diarrhea -> hyperkalemic -> caused condition?

A

= Acidosis

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128
Q

hyperkalemia-> assessment findings?

A

= Oliguria

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129
Q

buffer pairs -> major plasma buffering system?

A

= Carbonic acid/bicarbonate

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130
Q

regulation acid-base balance -> removal or retention volatile acids

A

= Lungs

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131
Q

Physiologic pH -> 7.4 -> carbonic acid + bicarbonate ratio

A

= 20:1

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132
Q

pt. most prone metabolic alkalosis

A

= Excessive loss of chloride (Cl)

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133
Q

pt. both -> hyperkalemia + metabolic acidosis

A

= Renal failure

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134
Q

pt. metabolic acidosis –> body compensates by

A

= Hyperventilating

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135
Q

finding -> diagnosis of respiratory acidosis?

A

= Pneumonia

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136
Q

long history smoking -> excessive tiredness, SOB + overall ill feelings-> decreased pH, increased CO2, normal bicarbonate ion

A

= Respiratory acidosis

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137
Q

respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by body

A

= Kidney excretion of H+

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138
Q

dizziness, confusion, tingling extremities -> elevated pH, decreased PCO2, slightly decreased HCO3

A

= Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation

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139
Q

elevated level natriuretic peptides -> organ priority?

A

= Heart

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140
Q

history of smoking -> hormone-secreting lung tumor -> assessment findings?

A

= Confusion, Weakness, Nausea, Muscle twitching

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141
Q

syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) -> symptoms?

A

= Weakness, Nausea, Headache, Muscle twitching

142
Q

Innate immunity is gained

A

= At birth

143
Q

Collectins are produced by

A

= Lungs

144
Q

knife wound arm -> altercation -> immunity compromised?

A

= Innate immunity

145
Q

Biochemical secretions -> trap + kill microorganisms

A

= Earwax

146
Q

vaginal discharge of a white, viscous, and foul-smelling substance -> microorganism?

A

= Decreased Lactobacillus

147
Q

purpose of the inflammatory process

A

= To prevent infection of the injured tissue

148
Q

child -> scraped knee -> area becomes painful -> observe upon assessment?

A

Edema at injured site

149
Q

mast cell - major activator inflammation - response process of

A

= Degranulation

150
Q

greatest risk opportunistic infection

A

-> 24-year-old who is immunocompromised

151
Q

directional migration leukocytes -> chemical gradient

A

= Chemotaxis

152
Q

shoot hand with a nail gun -> cell types -> prevent infection

A

= Neutrophils

153
Q

predominant phagocyte -> early inflammation

A

= Neutrophil

154
Q

aspirin relieves the headache by

A

= Decreasing prostaglandin production

155
Q

differentiate leukotrienes from histamine?

A

= Time of release

156
Q

fracture left femur + extensive soft tissue injury -> pain associated

A

= Kinins and prostaglandins

157
Q

complement, clotting, + kinin systems

A

= Activation of a series of proenzymes

158
Q

classic pathway -> complement system activated by

A

= Antigen-antibody complexes

159
Q

Bradykinin is involved in

A

= Increasing vascular permeability

160
Q

end product of the clotting system is

A

= Fibrin

161
Q

lipopolysaccharides on the bacterial cell surface -> complement pathways activated?

A

= Alternative pathway

162
Q

8-year-old edema -> hereditary angioedema -> deficient?

A

= C1 esterase inhibitor

163
Q

Opsonins are molecules that

A

= Enhance phagocytosis

164
Q

lab result -> response to parasite?

A

= Eosinophils

165
Q

metastatic breast cancer -> eliminate tumor cells + muscle wasting?

A

= Tumor necrosis factor

166
Q

phagocytes stick avidly to capillary walls, process?

A

= Margination

167
Q

infant fever secondary bacterial infection -> trigger?

A

= Interleukin-1

168
Q

intravenous (IV) drug user -> chronic hepatitis C. -> used to treat condition?

A

INFs

169
Q

lobar pneumonia (lung infection) -> present highest concentration -> site advanced inflammatory response?

A

= Fibrinous

170
Q

inflammation -> liver stimulated -> plasma proteins

A

= Acute phase reactants

171
Q

3-year-old -> eating play cakes -> toxoplasmosis + most likely present?

A

= Granuloma formation

172
Q

puncture wound pencil -> 1 week -> which phase of healing?

A

= Resolution

173
Q

macrophage secretion -> stimulates procollagen synthesis + secretion

A

= Transforming growth factor-beta

174
Q

mediators -> type I hypersensitivity allergic -> released from

A

= mast cells.

175
Q

genetically determined hypersensitivity -> common environmental allergens reactions

A

= atopic; urticaria

176
Q

Mismatched blood transfusion reaction -> hemolysis blood cells -> type II -> mediated hypersensitivity reaction

A

= antibody

177
Q

Type III hypersensitivity immune responses -> harmful immune complex
deposits tissue activate -> directly damage area tissues

A

= inflammation

178
Q

mechanism -> humans recognize self-cells from non-self (antigens)-cells

A

= self-tolerance

179
Q

Organ rejection -> complication organ transplantation -> recipient immune cells

A

= attack on the donor cells.

180
Q

leading -> death for people with HIV is opportunistic

A

= tuberculosis

181
Q

Wasting syndrome -> AIDS-defining illness -> involuntary weight loss 10% of presence of

A

= diarrhea.

182
Q

window period HIV infection -> period of time between infection and

A

= seroconversion.

183
Q

HIV-positive -> category 3 or clinical category C are considered to have

A

= AIDS-defining illnesses.

184
Q

Contact poison ivy -> intense pruritus, erythema, weeping -> Process signs & symptoms?

A

= Cytokine release by sensitized T cells

185
Q

hay fever –> immunotherapy -> therapeutic effect?

A

= By stimulating production of IgG to combine with antigens

186
Q

cirrhosis -> acute rejection donor liver -> cells central rejection?

A

= T cells

187
Q

aplastic anemia -> allogenic bone marrow transplantation -> signs and symptoms -> graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?

A

= Presence of a pruritic rash that has begun to slough off

188
Q

pericarditis -> acute glomerulonephritis -> presence group A, B hemolytic streptococci + antigens heart tissue -> autoimmune response?

A

= Molecular mimicry

189
Q

rheumatoid arthritis -> processes development health problem?

A

= Failure of normal self-tolerance

190
Q

normal assessment finding in a neonate?

A

= Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM

191
Q

HIV positive -> blood determining the stage + severity of disease?

A

= CD4+ cell counts

192
Q

treatment of HIV infection -> recently progressed AIDS -> actions prioritize care?

A

= Astute infection control and respiratory assessments

193
Q

HIV -> highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) -> primary goal?

A

= To slow the progression of the disease

194
Q

Hypersensitivity is best defined as

A

= An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen

195
Q

poison ivy -> immune reaction?

A

= Cell-mediated

196
Q

maternal immune system -> sensitized against antigens fetus -> type reaction?

A

= Alloimmune

197
Q

seasonal allergic rhinitis -> expressed through

A

= IgE-mediated reactions

198
Q

poison ivy on the extremities, face, buttocks

A

= Delayed hypersensitivity

199
Q

stung by a bee -> itching + develops pain, swelling, redness, respiratory difficulties

A

= Anaphylaxis

200
Q

most severe consequence -> type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

= Anaphylaxis

201
Q

histamine is released -> expected responses?

A

Edema

202
Q

further teaching -> hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response

A

= IV (do not involve antibodies)

203
Q

wheezing + difficulty breathing -> both parents allergies -> terms classify the child?

A

= Atopic

204
Q

fatigue, excessive, sweating, increased appetite -> protruding eyes -> hyperthyroidism secondary to autoantibody production -> hypersensitivity type

A

= II

205
Q

difficulty breathing, spitting blood -> pigeons cages -> allergic alveolitis

A

= Arthus reaction

206
Q

immune-complex-mediated disease

A

= Serum sickness

207
Q

tuberculosis -> reaction test -> hypersensitivity type

A

= IV

208
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

= Autoimmunity

209
Q

A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color.
Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present?

a. Anti-LE antibodies
b. Antinuclear antibodies
c. Antiherpes antibodies
d. Anti-CMV antibodies

A

ANS: B

210
Q

A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the following findings would be
considered a symptom of this disease?

a. Gastrointestinal ulcers
b. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
c. Rash on trunk and extremities
d. Photosensitivity

A

ANS: D

211
Q
  1. What is the chance that two siblings share both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match
    for an organ transplant from one to the other?

a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%

A

ANS: D

212
Q
  1. When a nurse notices that a patient has type O blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____
    antibodies are present in the patient’s body.

a. A only
b. B only
c. A and B
d. O

A

ANS: C

213
Q
  1. In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:

a. HLA type
b. Rh antigen
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Platelet compatibility

A

ANS: B

214
Q

A 15-year-old male -> severe hemorrhage -> motor vehicle accident -> blood transfusion, -> afterward = red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis.
Which of the following blood type-transfusion type matches would cause
this?

a. A-A
b. B-O
c. AB-O
d. A-AB

A

ANS: D

215
Q
  1. When an immunologist teaches about the relationship that benefits the organism but causes
    no harm to the host, the immunologist is describing which of the following?
    a. Symbiosis
    b. Mutualism
    c. Commensalism
    d. Pathogenicity
A

ANS: C

216
Q
  1. The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are important for:

a. Regulating inflammation
b. Secreting bacteriostatic substances
c. Activating white blood cells
d. Preventing the colonization and multiplication of pathogens

A

ANS: D

217
Q
  1. When bacterial pathogens enter a patients body, they can defend themselves from an immune
    response by:

a. Producing capsules
b. Phagocytosis
c. Retreating
d. Developing antibodies

A

ANS: A

218
Q
  1. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given
    in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

a. Alive, but less infectious
b. Mutated, but highly infectious
c. Normal, but not infectious
d. Inactive, but infectious

A

ANS: A

219
Q
  1. An immunologist is discussing endotoxin production. Which information should the
    immunologist include? Endotoxins are produced by:

a. Gram-negative bacteria
b. Gram-positive bacteria
c. Gram-negative fungi
d. Gram-positive fungi

A

ANS: A

220
Q
  1. A 5-year-old male becomes ill with a severe cough. Histologic examination reveals a
    bacterial infection, and further laboratory testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased
    protein synthesis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness?

a. Endotoxin
b. Exotoxin
c. Hemolysis
d. Septicemia

A

ANS: B

221
Q
  1. A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery,
    cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death. A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected.
    Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Gram-negative bacteria
d. Virus

A

ANS: C

222
Q
  1. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good
    understanding of viruses? Viruses:

a. Contain no DNA or RNA
b. Are capable of independent reproduction
c. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
d. Are easily killed by antimicrobials

A

ANS: C

223
Q
  1. A patient has chicken pox. How does the varicella replicate?

a. With the host cell DNA
b. Using host cell DNA polymerase
c. Using reverse transcriptase
d. In the cytoplasm

A

ANS: D

224
Q
  1. A 25-year-old female reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with several men. Blood
    tests reveal that she is positive for human papillomavirus. What else should the nurse assess for?

a. Vaginal discharge
b. Liver failure
c. Breast cancer
d. Warts

A

ANS: D

225
Q
  1. After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi?

Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
a. Are easily treated with penicillin
b. Are extremely rare
c. Never occur with other infections
d. Are commonly opportunistic

A

ANS: D

226
Q
  1. When trying to distinguish between an infectious disease and noninfectious disease, what is the hallmark symptom for most infectious diseases?

a. Fever
b. Jaundice
c. Vomiting
d. Pain

A

ANS: A

227
Q
  1. Which information indicates a correct understanding of viral vaccines? Most viral vaccines
    contain:

a. Active viruses
b. Attenuated viruses
c. Killed viruses
d. Viral toxins

A

ANS: B

228
Q
  1. Which information indicates a good understanding of bacterial vaccines? Most bacterial
    vaccines contain:

a. Active bacteria
b. Synthetic bacteria
c. Dead bacteria
d. Bacterial toxins

A

ANS: C

229
Q
  1. A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:

a. Proliferation
b. Attenuation
c. Specialization
d. Mutation

A

ANS: D

230
Q
  1. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?

a. Anemia
b. Recurrent infections
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Autoantibody production

A

ANS: B

231
Q
  1. When a patient asks what the somatic nervous system controls, how should the nurse respond?
    It controls:

a. The heart
b. The spinal cord
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Smooth muscle organs

A

ANS: C

232
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to teach about nerves. Which information should the nurse include? The
    axon leaves the cell body at the:

a. Axon hillock
b. Nissl body
c. Node of Ranvier
d. Myelin sheath

A

ANS: A

233
Q
  1. When a student asks in which region of the neuron do nerve impulses travel the fastest, how
    should the nurse respond? The:

a. Large axon
b. Axon hillock
c. Cell body
d. Dendrites

A

ANS: A

234
Q
  1. A neurologist is teaching the staff about motor neurons. Which information should be
    included? Motor neurons are structurally classified as _____ neurons.

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar

A

ANS: D

235
Q
  1. An experiment looking at an isolated neuron revealed a sensory nerve with one process
    containing a dendritic portion extending away from the CNS and an axon extending toward the
    CNS. Which of the following classifications would this neuron fall into?

a. Bipolar
b. Multipolar
c. Pseudounipolar
d. Interpolar

A

ANS: C

236
Q
  1. A cell was isolated from the CNS. A researcher revealed that its main function was to clear
    cellular debris. What type of cell is the researcher studying?

a. Astrocyte
b. Ependymal cell
c. Microglia
d. Schwann cell

A

ANS: C

237
Q
  1. Which answer indicates a nurse understands regeneration of neurons? Neurons that have the
    capacity for regeneration include:

a. Unmyelinated neurons in the brain
b. Myelinated neurons in the spinal cord
c. Myelinated peripheral neurons
d. Postganglionic motor neurons

A

ANS: C

238
Q
  1. When a presynaptic neuron is stimulated in a patients body by an electrical current,
    neurotransmitters are released from the:

a. Synapse
b. Synaptic bouton
c. Synaptic cleft
d. Receptor

A

ANS: B

239
Q
  1. An aide asks a nurse what neurotransmitters interact with. Which response is the nurses best
    answer? Neurotransmitters interact with the postsynaptic membrane by binding to a:

a. Receptor
b. Nissl body
c. Glial cell
d. Neurofibril

A

ANS: A

240
Q
  1. If a neurons membrane potential is held as close to the threshold potential by excitatory
    postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs), the neuron is said to be:

a. Hyperpolarized
b. Facilitated
c. Integrated
d. Inhibited

A

ANS: B

241
Q
  1. A 20-year-old male was brought to the emergency room (ER) for severe burns. He requested something for the excruciating pain he was experiencing. Blocking which of the following
    neurotransmitters would reduce his pain?

a. Enkephalin
b. Dopamine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Substance P

A

ANS: D

242
Q
  1. A 19-year-old male college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets. A drug that stimulates which of the
    following areas would best treat his problem?

a. Corpora quadrigemina
b. Reticular activating system
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

A

ANS: B

243
Q
  1. A 32-year-old female suffers from severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident.
    After rehabilitation she notices that her thought processes and goal-oriented behavior are
    impaired. Which area does the nurse suspect is damaged?

a. Thalamus
b. Limbic
c. Prefrontal
d. Occipital

A

ANS: C

244
Q
  1. A neurologist is teaching about the region responsible for motor aspects of speech. Which area is the neurologist discussing?

a. Wernicke area
b. Broca area
c. Primary speech area
d. Insula

A

ANS: B

245
Q
  1. A patient is looking at a picture of the brain and points to the convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum. The nurse should tell the patient these are called:

a. Sulci
b. Fissures
c. Reticular formations
d. Gyri

A

ANS: D

246
Q
  1. A 45-year-old male was previously diagnosed with Parkinson disease. He has impaired fine repetitive motor movements. Which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is most likely
    damaged?

a. Basal ganglia
b. Prefrontal area
c. Hippocampus
d. Temporal lobe

A

ANS: A

247
Q
  1. A neurologist is teaching about the location of the primary visual cortex in the brain. Which area is the neurologist discussing?

a. Frontal lobe
b. Temporal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Parietal lobe

A

ANS: C

248
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive
    behavioral patterns. Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing?

a. Thalamus
b. Medulla
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

A

ANS: D

249
Q
  1. When a nurse is teaching about the transverse fiber tract that connects the two cerebral hemispheres, what term should the nurse use?

a. Peduncle
b. Corpus callosum
c. Basal ganglia
d. Pons

A

ANS: B

250
Q
  1. A student nurse asks the nurse what controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate and
    blood pressure. What is the nurses best response? These reflex activities are controlled by the:

a. Medulla oblongata
b. Pons
c. Midbrain
d. Cerebrum

A

ANS: A

251
Q
  1. A 12-year-old presents with hydrocephalus. Blockage of which of the following would cause
    this condition?

a. Cerebral aqueduct
b. Inferior colliculi
c. Red nucleus
d. Tegmentum

A

ANS: A

252
Q
  1. A patient presents with altered respiratory patterns following head trauma. Based upon the
    symptoms, which of the following areas does the nurse suspect is injured?

a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Midbrain
d. Reticular formation

A

ANS: D

253
Q
  1. A nurse recalls characteristics of upper motor neurons include:

a. Directly innervating muscles
b. Influencing and modifying spinal reflex arcs
c. Cell bodies located in the gray matter of the spinal cord
d. Dendritic processes extending out of the CNS

A

ANS: B

254
Q
  1. A nurse is teaching about the area of the spinal cord that contains cell bodies involved in the
    autonomic nervous system. Which of the following area is the nurse discussing?

a. Anterior horn
b. Ventral horn
c. Lateral horn
d. Dorsal horn

A

ANS: C

255
Q
  1. A neurologist is teaching about sensory pathways. Which information should the neurologist
    include? Sensory pathways in the spinal cord include the:

a. Corticospinal tract
b. Pyramids
c. Spinothalamic tract
d. Anterior column

A

ANS: C

256
Q
  1. A nurse is discussing the membrane that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. What
    term should the nurse use to describe this membrane?

a. Tentorium cerebelli
b. Falx cerebri
c. Arachnoid membrane
d. Temporal lobe

A

ANS: A

257
Q
  1. What term should the nurse use when talking about the outermost membrane surrounding the
    brain?

a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid mater
c. Pia mater
d. Falx cerebri

A

ANS: A

258
Q
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accumulate around the brain when there is injury to the sites
    of CSF reabsorption, which are called the:

a. Arachnoid villi
b. Epidural foramina
c. Lateral apertures
d. Choroid plexuses

A

ANS: A

259
Q
  1. A nurse remembers the brain receives approximately ____% of the cardiac output.

a. 80
b. 40
c. 20
d. 10

A

ANS: C

260
Q
  1. The _____ ensures collateral blood flow from blood vessels supplying the brain.

a. Carotid arteries
b. Basal artery
c. Circle of Willis
d. Vertebral arteries

A

ANS: C

261
Q
  1. Which cell type is the nurse discussing? A cell that is involved in forming the blood-brain
    barrier is the:

a. Microglia
b. Schwann cell
c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Astrocyte

A

ANS: D

262
Q
  1. When a patients vagus nerve is stimulated, what does the nurse expect to observe?

a. Increased gastrointestinal activity
b. Increased heart rate
c. Pupil constriction
d. Vasoconstriction

A

ANS: A

263
Q
  1. A 40-year-old male suffers from head trauma that affects cranial nerve I. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?

a. Visual disturbances
b. Loss of sense of smell
c. Loss of ability to taste
d. Hearing disturbances

A

ANS: B

264
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is released when a patients parasympathetic motor neurons are
    stimulated?

a. Epinephrine
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Substance P

A

ANS: C

265
Q
  1. Which action will occur when a patients -1 receptors are stimulated?

a. Dilation of the coronary arteries
b. Vasoconstriction of arteries
c. Increase in the strength of myocardial contraction
d. Decrease in the rate of myocardial contraction

A

ANS: C

266
Q
  1. A patient begins taking a new drug that causes pupil dilation, vasoconstriction, decreased
    gastrointestinal motility, and goose bumps. Which of the following receptors are activated?

a. Alpha 1
b. Alpha 2
c. Beta 1
d. Beta 2

A

ANS: A

267
Q
  1. When a student asks which type of nerves transmit nerve impulses at the fastest rate, what is
    the best response by the nurse?

a. Large, non-myelinated
b. Small, myelinated
c. Large, myelinated
d. Small, non-myelinated

A

ANS: C

268
Q
  1. Which of the following patients has the best chance of recovery from nerve injury? A patient
    with a(n):

a. Torn nerve
b. Crushed nerve
c. Injury located closer to the cell body of the nerve
d. Injury located closer to the synapse

A

ANS: B

269
Q
  1. The nurse is assessing the patient with a pen light. The integrity of which cranial nerve is
    being evaluated?
    a. Olfactory
    b. Vagus
    c. Oculomotor
    d. Trigeminal
A

ANS: C

270
Q
  1. Which of the following is a neuroglial cell? (Select all that apply.)

a. Astrocyte
b. Oligodendrocyte
c. Neuron
d. Ependymal cell
e. Melanocyte

A

ANS: A, B, D

271
Q
  1. A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One
    location in which nociceptors can be found is the:

a. Skin
b. Spinal cord
c. Efferent pathways
d. Hypothalamus

A

ANS: A

272
Q
  1. A nurse is discussing an individuals conditioned or learned approach or avoidance behavior in
    response to pain. Which system is the nurse describing?

a. Sensory-discriminative system
b. Affective-motivational system
c. Sensory-motivational system
d. Cognitive-evaluative system

A

ANS: B

273
Q
  1. When a neurologist explains how pricking a finger with a needle provides minimal pain while
    cutting the finger with a knife provides more severe pain, what theory is being described?

a. Gate control theory
b. Neuromatrix theory
c. Specificity theory
d. Neuromodulation

A

ANS: C

274
Q
  1. A 5-year-old female breaks her leg after falling from a merry-go-round. Which of the
    following would be released from the midbrain to modulate her pain?

a. Endorphin
b. Enkephalin
c. Endomorphin
d. Dynorphin

A

ANS: D

275
Q
  1. A 15-year-old female scrapes her knee while playing soccer and complains of sharp and welllocalized pain. Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately

characterize her pain?
a. Chronic pain
b. Referred pain
c. Somatic pain
d. Visceral pain

A

ANS: C

276
Q
  1. A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports
    the pain has lasted longer than:

a. 1 month
b. 3 to 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 to 3 years

A

ANS: B

277
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male cut his hand off while working in a sawmill. Several years later he still
    sporadically feels pain in the absent hand. What type of pain should the nurse document in the
    chart?

a. Neuropathic pain
b. Visceral pain
c. Phantom limb pain
d. Chronic pain

A

ANS: C

278
Q
  1. When planning care for a child in pain, which principle should the nurse remember? The pain
    threshold in children is _____ that of adults.

a. Higher than
b. Lower than
c. The same as
d. Not related to

A

ANS: B

279
Q
  1. When the nurse is taking a patients temperature, which principle should the nurse remember?
    Regulation of body temperature primarily occurs in the:

a. Cerebrum
b. Brainstem
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pituitary gland

A

ANS: C

280
Q
  1. When the nurse is discussing the patients cyclical temperature fluctuation occurring on a
    daily basis, what term should the nurse use?

a. Thermogenesis cycle
b. Thermoconductive phases
c. Adaptive pattern
d. Circadian rhythm

A

ANS: D

281
Q
  1. A nurse wants to teach about one of the primary organs responsible for heat production.
    Which organ should the nurse include?

a. Pancreas
b. Liver
c. Adrenal gland
d. Heart

A

ANS: C

282
Q
  1. Which statement by a patient indicates teaching was successful for heat loss? Heat loss from
    the body via convection occurs by:

a. Evaporation of electromagnetic waves
b. Transfer of heat through currents of liquids or gas
c. Dilation of blood vessels bringing blood to skin surfaces
d. Direct heat loss from molecule-to-molecule transfer

A

ANS: B

283
Q
  1. For evaporation to function effectively as a means of dissipating excess body heat, which one
    of the following conditions must be present?

a. Moisture
b. Fever
c. Pyrogens
d. Trauma

A

ANS: A

284
Q
  1. A 25-year-old female received a prescription for a weight loss pill. One effect of the pills is
    to increase the release of epinephrine. Which of the following would be expected to also occur?

a. Decreased vascular tone
b. Increased skeletal muscle tone
c. Increased heat production
d. Decreased basal metabolic rate

A

ANS: C

285
Q
  1. When a patient has a fever, which of the following thermoregulatory mechanisms is
    activated?

a. The bodys thermostat is adjusted to a lower temperature.
b. Temperature is raised above the set point.
c. Bacteria directly stimulate peripheral thermogenesis.
d. The bodys thermostat is reset to a higher level.

A

ANS: D

286
Q
  1. A patient has researched exogenous pyrogens on the Internet. Which information indicates
    the patient has a good understanding? Exogenous pyrogens are:

a. Interleukins
b. Endotoxins
c. Prostaglandins
d. Corticotropin-releasing factors

A

ANS: B

287
Q
  1. Hikers are attempting to cross the Arizona desert with a small supply of water. The
    temperatures cause them to sweat profusely and become dehydrated. The hikers are
    experiencing:

a. Heat cramping
b. Heat exhaustion
c. Heat stroke
d. Malignant hyperthermia

A

ANS: B

288
Q
  1. A 10-year-old male sneaks into a meat freezer at the local supermarket. Fearing he will get
    caught if he comes out, he decides to stay in there for several hours until the store closes. While
    in the cooler his body is most likely experiencing:

a. Increased respirations
b. Ischemic tissue damage
c. CNS excitation
d. Increased cellular metabolism

A

ANS: B

289
Q
  1. A 10-year-old male sneaks into a meat freezer at the local supermarket. Fearing he will get
    caught if he comes out, he decides to stay in there for several hours until the store closes. While
    in the cooler his body is most likely experiencing:

a. Increased respirations
b. Ischemic tissue damage
c. CNS excitation
d. Increased cellular metabolism

A

ANS: B

290
Q
  1. Which finding indicates the patient is having complications from heat stroke?

a. Mild elevation of core body temperatures
b. Cerebral edema and degeneration of the CNS
c. Spasmodic cramping in the abdomen and extremities
d. Alterations in calcium uptake

A

ANS: B

291
Q
  1. For which patient would the primary care provider order therapeutic hypothermia? A patient
    with:

a. Malnutrition
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Reimplantation surgery
d. Parkinson disease

A

ANS: C

292
Q
  1. A patient is undergoing a sleep lab test. When the sleep lab worker notices EEG patterns with
    brain activity similar to the normal awake pattern, which phase of sleep is occurring?

a. Non-rapid eye movement (REM)
b. Fast wave
c. REM
d. Delta wave

A

ANS: C

293
Q
  1. A patient asks when most dreams occur. What is the nurses best response? Most dreams
    occur during _____ sleep.

a. Non-REM
b. Alpha wave
c. REM
d. Delta wave

A

ANS: C

294
Q
  1. During the sleep cycle, when does loss of temperature control occur?

a. Non-REM sleep
b. Light sleep
c. REM sleep
d. Delta wave sleep

A

ANS: C

295
Q
  1. A patient asks the nurse how often REM sleep occurs. How should the nurse respond? About
    every _____ minutes.

a. 15
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90

A

ANS: D

296
Q
  1. A 52-year-old male enters a sleep study to gather information about his sleep disturbances.
    He reports that his wife will not let him sleep in the bed with her until he stops snoring so loudly.
    He also reports feeling tired a lot through the day. When the nurse checks the chart, what is the
    most likely diagnosis?

a. Insomnia
b. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
c. Somnambulism
d. Jet-lag syndrome

A

ANS: B

297
Q
  1. A 14-month-old child suffers from sudden apparent arousals in which she expresses intense
    fear or other emotion. Her mother reports that she seems to wake screaming, but that she is
    difficult to waken completely. The child most likely suffers from:

a. Night terrors
b. Parasomnia
c. Somnambulism
d. Enuresis episodes

A

ANS: A

298
Q
  1. The ophthalmologist is teaching about the structure of the eye that prevents light from
    scattering in the eye. What structure is the ophthalmologist describing?

a. Iris
b. Pupil
c. Choroid
d. Retina

A

ANS: C

299
Q
  1. A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his
    primary care provider. After examination, the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells
    that allow him to see are degenerated. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?

a. Lens
b. Pupil
c. Cornea
d. Retina

A

ANS: D

300
Q
  1. A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye
    deviation. One of the childs eyes deviates outward, thereby decreasing the visual field. Which of
    the following diagnoses is most likely?

a. Entropia
b. Extropia
c. Diplopia
d. Nystagmus

A

ANS: B

301
Q
  1. A patient has increased intraocular pressure. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe on the
    chart?

a. Glaucoma
b. Ocular degeneration
c. Diplopia
d. Nystagmus

A

ANS: A

302
Q
  1. A 70-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting loss of vision. He reports
    that he has hypertension and smokes cigarettes. Which of the following disorders is most likely
    causing his visual loss?

a. Presbyopia
b. Macular degeneration
c. Strabismus
d. Amblyopia

A

ANS: B

303
Q
  1. Which group of people is most prone to red-green color blindness?

a. Males
b. Females
c. Elderly persons
d. Children

A

ANS: A

304
Q
  1. A 35-year-old female presents with watering and severely reddened eyes. She reports being
    very sensitive to light. Her primary care provider determined it was viral conjunctivitis caused
    by:

a. Secondary bacterial infections
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Herpes virus
d. Adenovirus

A

ANS: D

305
Q
  1. A nurse is teaching about the structure that connects the middle ear with the pharynx. Which
    structure is the nurse describing?

a. Organ of Corti
b. Eustachian tube
c. Semicircular canal
d. Auditory canal

A

ANS: B

306
Q
  1. The most common form of sensorineural hearing loss in the elderly is:

a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Acute otitis media
c. Presbycusis
d. Mnire disease

A

ANS: C

307
Q
  1. A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with an outer ear infection. Which of the following is
    most likely to cause this infection?

a. Haemophilus
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Escherichia coli

A

ANS: D

308
Q
  1. The nurse would expect the patient with an alteration in proprioception to experience vertigo
    which is manifested by:

a. Headache
b. Light sensitivity
c. A sensation that the room is spinning
d. Loss of feeling in the lips

A

ANS: C

309
Q
  1. Which system modulates a patients perception of pain?

a. Sensory-discriminative system
b. Affective-motivational system
c. Cognitive-evaluative system
d. Reticular-activating system

A

ANS: C

310
Q
  1. While planning care for infants, which principles should the nurse remember? (Select all that
    apply.) Infants have problems with thermoregulation because they:

a. Cannot conserve heat
b. Do not shiver
c. Rarely sweat
d. Have decreased metabolic rates
e. Have excess subcutaneous fat

A

ANS: A, B

311
Q
  1. Fever of unknown origin (FUO) is characterized by a fever of ____ F or greater
A

ANS:
101

312
Q
  1. A neurologists explains that arousal is mediated by the:

a. Cerebral cortex
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Reticular activating system
d. Cingulate gyrus

A

ANS: C

313
Q
  1. A 20-year-old male suffers a severe closed head injury in a motor vehicle accident. He
    remains in a vegetative state (VS) 1 month after the accident. Which of the following structures
    is most likely keeping him in a vegetative state?

a. Cerebral cortex
b. Brainstem
c. Spinal cord
d. Cerebellum

A

ANS: B

314
Q
  1. A 16-year-old male took a recreational drug that altered his level of arousal. Physical exam
    revealed a negative Babinski sign, equal and reactive pupils, and roving eye movements. Which
    of the following diagnosis will the nurse most likely see on the chart?

a. Psychogenic arousal alteration
b. Metabolically induced coma
c. Structurally induced coma
d. Structural arousal alteration

A

ANS: B

315
Q
  1. The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels
    in the blood is:

a. Cheyne-Stokes
b. Ataxic
c. Central neurogenic
d. Normal

A

ANS: A

316
Q
  1. A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A
    CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:

a. Skull fractures
b. Thalamus
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Frontal lobe

A

ANS: C

317
Q
  1. A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A
    CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:

a. Skull fractures
b. Thalamus
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Frontal lobe

A

ANS: C6

318
Q
  1. A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A
    CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:

a. Skull fractures
b. Thalamus
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Frontal lobe

A

ANS: C

319
Q
  1. A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A
    CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:

a. Skull fractures
b. Thalamus
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Frontal lobe

A

ANS: C

320
Q
  1. A teenage boy sustains a severe closed head injury following an all-terrain vehicle (ATV)
    accident. He is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening.
    How should the nurse document this in the chart?

a. Confusion
b. Coma
c. Obtundation
d. Stupor

A

ANS: D

321
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male suffers a severe head injury when his motorcycle hits a tree. His breathing
    becomes deep and rapid but with normal pattern. What term should the nurse use for this
    condition?

a. Gasping
b. Ataxic breathing
c. Apneusis
d. Central neurogenic hyperventilation

A

ANS: D

322
Q
  1. When a student asks what can cause dilated, fixed pupils, what is the nurses best response?
    Dilated fixed pupils can be caused by:

a. Brainstem hypoxia
b. Cerebral contusions
c. Compression of the hypothalamus
d. Spinal shock

A

ANS: A

323
Q
  1. An attorney spoke to the nurses regarding brain death. Which statement indicates the nurses
    understood brain death? For legal purposes, brain death is defined as:

a. Cessation of brain function
b. Lack of cortical function
c. A VS
d. Death of the brainstem

A

ANS: A

324
Q
  1. When thought content and arousal level are intact but a patient cannot communicate, the
    patient has:

a. Cerebral death
b. Locked-in syndrome
c. Dysphagia
d. Cerebellar motor syndrome

A

ANS: B

325
Q
  1. A 10-year-old female was brought to the ER following a sudden onset of convulsions. The
    primary care provider thinks that she experienced an explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral
    neurons referred to as:

a. Reflex
b. Seizure
c. Inattentiveness
d. Brain death

A

ANS: B

326
Q
  1. A 30-year-old female had a seizure that started with her fingers and progressive1y spread up
    her arm and then extended to her leg, with no loss of consciousness. How should the nurse chart
    this?

a. Myoclonic seizure
b. Tonic-clonic seizure
c. Focal motor seizure
d. Atonic seizure

A

ANS: C

327
Q
  1. A 20-year-old male was at the supermarket when he fell to the ground. Bystanders reported
    that he lost consciousness and his body tensed up then relaxed, then tensed and relaxed several
    times. He most likely was experiencing a(n):

a. Partial seizure
b. Absence seizure
c. Myoclonic seizure
d. Tonic-clonic seizure

A

ANS: D

328
Q
  1. When a patient has a peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure, what term
    should the nurse use to describe this sensation?

a. Prodroma
b. Agnosia
c. Spasm
d. Aura

A

ANS: D

329
Q
  1. A patient has memory loss of events that occurred before a head injury. What cognitive
    disorder does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

a. Selective memory deficit
b. Anterograde amnesia
c. Retrograde amnesia
d. Executive memory deficit

A

ANS: C

330
Q
  1. A 65-year-old male recently suffered a cerebral vascular accident. He is now unable to
    recognize and identify objects by touch because of injury to the sensory cortex. How should the
    nurse document this finding?

a. Hypomimesis
b. Agnosia
c. Dysphasia
d. Echolalia

A

ANS: B

331
Q
  1. A 75-year-old female suffers a stroke and now has difficulty writing and production of
    language. This condition is most likely caused by occlusion of the:

a. Anterior communicating artery
b. Posterior communicating artery
c. Circle of Willis
d. Middle cerebral artery

A

ANS: D

332
Q
  1. A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center. He experiences
    delirium, inability to concentrate, and is easily distracted. From which of the following is he
    most likely suffering?

a. Acute confusional state
b. Echolalia
c. Dementia
d. Dysphagia

A

ANS: A

333
Q
  1. A nurse thinks a patient may be experiencing dementia. Which assessment finding will most
    help support this diagnosis?

a. Violent behavior
b. Hyperactivity
c. Depression
d. Loss of recent and remote memory

A

ANS: D

334
Q
  1. The progress notes read: the cerebellar tonsil has shifted through the foramen magnum due to
    increased pressure within the posterior fossa. The nurse would identify this note as a description
    of _____ herniation.

a. Supratentorial
b. Central
c. Cingulated gyrus
d. Infratentorial

A

ANS: D

335
Q
  1. The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in:

a. Brain tissue hypoxia
b. Intracranial hypotension
c. Ventricular swelling
d. Expansion of the cranial vault

A

ANS: A

336
Q
  1. A compensatory alteration in the diameter of cerebral blood vessels in response to increased
    intracranial pressure is called:

a. Herniation
b. Vasodilation
c. Autoregulation
d. Amyotrophy

A

ANS: C

337
Q
  1. The primary care provider states that the patient has vasogenic edema. The nurse realizes
    vasogenic edema is clinically important because:

a. It usually has an infectious cause.
b. The blood-brain barrier is disrupted.
c. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is excessively high.
d. It always causes herniation.

A

ANS: B

338
Q
  1. A 51-year-old male is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed headinjury.
    All four extremities are in rigid extension, his forearm is hyperpronated, and his legs are in plantar extension.
    How should the nurse chart this condition?

a. Decorticate posturing
b. Decerebrate posturing
c. Caloric posturing
d. Excitation posturing

A

ANS: B

339
Q
  1. A 20-year-old male is admitted to the neurological critical care unit with a severe closed head
    injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the ICP is recorded at 24 mm Hg. How
    should the nurse interpret this reading? This reading is:

a. Higher than normal
b. Lower than normal
c. Normal
d. Borderline

A

ANS: A

340
Q
  1. A 70-year-old female is being closely monitored in the neurological critical care unit for a
    severe closed head injury. After 48 hours, her condition begins to deteriorate. Her pupils are
    small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and she is bradycardic. These clinical findings
    are evidence of what stage of intracranial hypertension?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

ANS: C

341
Q
  1. An infant is diagnosed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is an immediate
    priority concern for this patient?

a. Metabolic edema
b. Interstitial edema
c. Vasogenic edema
d. Ischemic edema

A

ANS: B

342
Q
  1. An adult has hydrocephalus. When the patient asks the nurse what caused this, how should
    the nurse respond? Hydrocephalus in adults is most often caused by:

a. Overproduction of CSF
b. Intercellular edema
c. Elevated arterial blood pressure
d. Defective CSF reabsorption

A

ANS: D

343
Q
  1. A 16-year-old male fell off the bed of a pickup truck and hit his forehead on the road. He
    now has resistance to passive movement that varies proportionally with the force applied. He is
    most likely suffering from:

a. Spasticity
b. Gegenhalten
c. Rigidity
d. Dystonia

A

ANS: B

344
Q
  1. A patient has paralysis of both legs. What type of paralysis does the patient have?

a. Paraplegia
b. Quadriplegia
c. Infraparaplegia
d. Paresthesia

A

ANS: A

345
Q
  1. A patient has excessive movement. What disorder will the nurse see documented on the
    chart?

a. Hypokinesia
b. Akinesia
c. Hyperkinesia
d. Dyskinesia

A

ANS: C

346
Q
  1. Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with spinal
    shock? Spinal shock is characterized by:

a. Loss of voluntary motor function with preservation of reflexes
b. Cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion
c. Loss of spinal cord function at the level of the lesion only
d. Temporary loss of spinal cord function above the lesion

A

ANS: B

347
Q
  1. A 40-year-old male complains of uncontrolled excessive movement and progressive
    dysfunction of intellectual and thought processes. He is experiencing movement problems that
    begin in the face and arms that eventually affect the entire body. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Tardive dyskinesia
b. Huntington disease
c. Hypokinesia
d. Alzheimer disease

A

ANS: B

348
Q
  1. A nurse notes that a patient walks with the leg extended and held stiff, causing a scraping
    over the floor surface. What type of gait is the patient experiencing?

a. Spastic gait
b. Cerebellar gait
c. Basal ganglion gait
d. Scissors gait

A

ANS: A

349
Q
  1. A male patient complains of tiring easily, has difficulty rising from a sitting position, and
    cannot stand on his toes. The nurse would expect a diagnosis of:

a. Parkinson disease
b. Hypotonia
c. Huntington disease
d. Paresis

A

ANS: B

350
Q
  1. A nurse recalls neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems. (Select all
    that apply.)

a. Attentional
b. Memory and language
c. Affective
d. Sensory and motor
e. Tactile

A

ANS: A, B, C