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Patho Final > Chapter 10, 11, 12, 31, 32, 37, 38 > Flashcards

Chapter 10, 11, 12, 31, 32, 37, 38 Flashcards

1
Q

Correct understanding of stress?

A

It can be viewed as transactional.

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2
Q

Several structural changes in rats exposed to repeated stressors

A

Ulceration in the gastrointestinal system

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3
Q

heart beating harder, faster & aroused, and scared -> general adaptation syndrome

A

Alarm stage

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4
Q

Exhaustion occurs -> stress continues -> no

A

Adaptation

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5
Q

School Exam -> unprepared, expected?

A

Increased glucagon release

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6
Q

Contest- heart beating faster and harder -> sweat

A

Anticipatory response

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7
Q

Hormone -> activate adrenergic receptors

A

Epinephrine

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8
Q

Hormone predominant released by the tumor

A

Norepinephrine

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9
Q

sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla -> catecholamines =

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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10
Q

stress-induced stimulation -> adrenal cortex =

A

Cortisol

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11
Q

Stress-induced catecholamine -> adrenal medulla =

A

Elevated blood pressure

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12
Q

hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex =

A

Increased lipogenesis of face and trunk

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13
Q

poison ivy -> synthetic cortisol -> cortisol relief? =

A

Suppressing Th1 cell activity

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14
Q

effects of elevated endorphins -> monitor? =

A

Pain inhibition

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15
Q

child physically abused most likely suppressed? =

A

Growth hormone

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16
Q

Coping process of =

A

Managing stressful challenges

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17
Q

the stress-age syndrome =

A
  • Increased thyroxine,
  • Immunodepression,
  • Increased catecholamine secretion,
  • Hypercoagulation of the blood,
  • Free radical damage
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18
Q

findings associated with repression?

A
  • Decreased monocyte counts,
  • Increased eosinophil counts,
  • Increased medication reactions
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19
Q

Term -> tissue growth cancer =

A

Neoplasm

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20
Q

characteristics of malignant tumors? =

A

Has a high mitotic index

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21
Q

preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin =

A

Cancer in situ

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22
Q

type tumor -> breast glandular tissue =

A

Adenocarcinoma

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23
Q

cancer cells spread local lymph nodes -> stage =

A

3

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24
Q

cancer cell loses differentiation

A

= Anaplasia

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25
Q

possible tumor marker =

A

Enzymes

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26
Q

hepatitis C -> marker hepatic cancer =

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

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27
Q

cancer -> angiogenic factors stimulate =

A

New blood vessel growth

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28
Q

Presence telomere caps -> cancer cells =

A

The ability to divide over and over again

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29
Q

proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n) _____ gene =

A

Normal

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30
Q

genetic lesions -> cause cancer, most common?

A

= Point mutations

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31
Q

cervical cancer -> most likely cause

A

= Human papillomavirus (HPV)

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32
Q

Epstein-Barr virus -> most likely cancer?

A

= B cell lymphoma

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33
Q

Peptic ulcer -> presence of Helicobacter pylori, concern?

A

= Gastric cancer

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34
Q

common route -> metastasis -> blood vessels and

A

= Lymphatics

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35
Q

inflammation -> etiology cancer development

A

= Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer

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36
Q

Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment used

A

= After surgical removal of a tumor

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37
Q

type cancers -> response brachytherapy

A

= Cervix, Head, Lung

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38
Q

important environmental risk factor cancer -> exposure

A

= Cigarette smoke

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39
Q

organisms development contingent ->environment

A

= Developmental plasticity

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40
Q

types of cancers ->

A

= Squamous and small cell adenocarcinomas

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41
Q

Chromosome aberrations + mutations -> not directly irradiated -> referred

A

= Bystander effects

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42
Q

skin cancer on her head and neck -> most likely?

A

= Basal cell carcinoma

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43
Q

diet -> alter developing cancer -> minimize risk -> steak

A

= Rare

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44
Q

increase the risk of cancer -> combination smoking?

A

= Alcohol

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45
Q

cervical cancer -> many partners -> cause cancer

A

= HPV-16

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46
Q

physical activity -> reduce risk -> cancer type

A

= Colon

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47
Q

cancer -> construction work-> likely secondary occupational hazards?

A

= Mesothelioma

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48
Q

Indoor pollution worse than outdoor -> cigarette smoke and

A

= Radon

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49
Q

water test arsenic levels above 200 g/L -> cancer most likely?

A

= Skin

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50
Q

radiation induces genomic instability

A

= Facilitating new mutations

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51
Q

greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma

A

= Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair

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52
Q

physical activity -> prevention colon cancer-> identified by

A

= It increases gut motility thereby decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens

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53
Q

chronic alcohol intake -> risk cancer in which organs?

A

= Larynx, Esophagus, Liver, Breast

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54
Q

region of the kidneys -> contains glomeruli

A

= Cortex

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55
Q

functional unit of the kidney -> term

A

= Nephron

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56
Q

type nephrons determine concentration urine

A

= Juxtamedullary

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57
Q

phagocytic cells between renal corpuscle

A

= Mesangial cells

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58
Q

glomerulus and Bowman capsule referred to renal

A

= Corpuscle

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59
Q

urinalysis -> plasma proteins should be absent, because?

A

= The negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma

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60
Q

sodium-sensing cells of the glomerulus -> term?

A

= Macula densa

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61
Q

before entering ureter -> urine passes through

A

= Renal pelvis

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62
Q

structure -> supplies blood to the medulla

A

= Vasa recta

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63
Q

trigone is defined as

A

= A triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra

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64
Q

portion male urethra that is closest to the bladder

A

= Prostatic

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65
Q

cardiac output -> average kidneys receive

A

= 20% to 25%

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66
Q

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

= Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries

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67
Q

blood vessels of kidneys -> innervated by

A

= Sympathetic nervous system

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68
Q

urinary -> renin-angiotensin system activated by

A

= Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles

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69
Q

renal system secretes renin -> causes direct activation of

A

= Angiotensin I

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70
Q

glucose will be excreted in the urine

A

= The carrier molecules have reached their maximum

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71
Q

majority of sodium reabsorption takes place in

A

= Proximal tubule

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72
Q

descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows

A

= Water reabsorption

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73
Q

substances actively secreted by renal tubules

A

= Hydrogen and potassium

74
Q

Reabsorption water in collecting ducts requires

A

= Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

75
Q

role kidneys play in vitamin D function =

A

Activates intestinally absorbed vitamin D

76
Q

hypertensive -> diuretic -> common side effects

A

= Hypokalemia

77
Q

hormone -> synthesized/ secreted by kidneys -> stimulate bone marrow production of RBC

A

= Erythropoietin

78
Q

estimate of renal function -> test?

A

= Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

79
Q

glomerular filtration rate (GFR) / plasma creatinine (PCR) -> related?

A

= Inversely

80
Q

components of the nephron include

A
  • Loop of Henle,
  • Renal corpuscle,
  • Proximal tubule,
  • Convoluted tubule
81
Q

renal structure -> drains directly into calyces

A

= Distal tubule, Collecting duct

82
Q

urinary tract obstruction-> hydronephrosis + decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by

A

= dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.

83
Q

severe kidney obstruction -> removal -> expect to occur?

A

= Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney

84
Q

lower urinary tract obstruction-> most concern

A

= Formation of renal calculi

85
Q

most common type of renal stone is composed of

A

= calcium.

86
Q

most important factor in renal calculus formation is

A

= urine pH.

87
Q

renal calculus -> causing obstruction -> symptoms

A

= Flank pain

88
Q

organisms most likely infecting urinary tract?

A

= Escherichia coli

89
Q

above the pontine micturition center – expected?

A

= Detrusor hyperreflexia

90
Q

loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing -> diagnosis?

A

= Stress incontinence

91
Q

detrusor sphincter dyssynergia -> beneficial medication treatment?

A

= Alpha blocker

92
Q

urinary tract infection (UTI) assessing for

A

= Other health problems

93
Q

pyelonephritis -> patients infection located

A

= Bladder

94
Q

most common condition -> acute pyelonephritis

A

= Urinary tract obstruction

95
Q

cloudy urine, flank pain, hematuria, and fever -> most likely?

A

= Acute cystitis

96
Q

pharyngitis -> later acute glomerulonephritis -> culture results -> cause of this disease?

A

= Group A -hemolytic streptococcus

97
Q

Goodpasture syndrome -> mechanisms would cause tissue injury?

A

= Production of antibodies against the glomerular basement membrane

98
Q

Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis -> primarily caused by

A

= Antigen-antibody complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage

99
Q

Hematuria -> red blood cell casts and proteinuria -> 3 to 5 g/day albumin major protein diagnosis

A

= Acute glomerulonephritis

100
Q

chronic glomerulonephritis -> oliguria related to?

A

= Thickening of the glomerular membrane and decreased renal blood flow

101
Q

nephrotic syndrome -> common symptom?

A

= Proteinuria

102
Q

loss of blood -> acute renal failure caused by

A

= Inadequate renal blood flow

103
Q

severely burns -> acute tubular necrosis (ATN) -> diagnosis

A

= Intrarenal

104
Q

flank pain and polyuria -> enlarged prostate -> types renal failure?

A

=Postrenal

105
Q

renal failure -> lab values most consistent?

A

=Elevated plasma creatinine level

106
Q

chronic renal failure-> anemia is caused by

A

= Inadequate production of erythropoietin

107
Q

chronic renal failure -> dietary treatment -> restricting

A

= Proteins

108
Q

Bone fractures -> risk factor in chronic renal failure

A

= The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D.

109
Q

Anemia -> chronic renal failure

A

= Inadequate production of erythropoietin

110
Q

end-stage renal disease -> pruritus -> caused by high levels of

A

= Calcium

111
Q

Mechanisms -> defense urinary pathogens in men include

A

= long length of the urethra, antimicrobial secretions from the prostate

112
Q

salivary -amylase (ptyalin) -> initiates the digestion of

A

= Carbohydrates

113
Q

drug-> inhibits parasympathetic nervous system activity -> salivary glands will become

A

= Hypoactive

114
Q

normal saliva -> reveals which immunoglobulin?

A

= IgA

115
Q

food moves down esophagus -> process termed

A

= Peristalsis

116
Q

esophageal reflux -> which sphincter malfunction?

A

= Lower esophageal

117
Q

autonomic and hormonal control involved in GI motility and

A

= Digestive enzyme secretion

118
Q

cells -> gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid?

A

= Parietal

119
Q

Mucus production -> mucosal barrier in the stomach -> stimulated by release of

A

= Prostaglandins

120
Q

very hungry during class -> thoughts trigger phase of gastric secretion?

A

= Cephalic

121
Q

Which sphincter prevents reflux -> digested material colon into the small intestine?

A

= Ileocecal valve

122
Q

ileum and jejunum -> suspended by folds peritoneum -> extensive vascular and nervous network.

A

= Mesentery

123
Q

Absorption nutrients -> intestine through

A

= Villi

124
Q

Digested fats -> primarily absorbed into

A

= Lacteals

125
Q

reflex inhibits gastric motility -> ileum overdistended

A

= Ileogastric

126
Q

vermiform appendix-> attached to

A

= Cecum

127
Q

sphincter -> controls movement of chyme -> sigmoid colon into rectum?

A

= OBeirne

128
Q

reflex -> initiates propulsion in entire colon -> during or immediately after eating

A

= Gastrocolic

129
Q

colon receives splanchnic blood flow -> which artery(ies)

A

= Superior and inferior mesenteric

130
Q

capillaries of liver -> more commonly known as hepatic

A

= Sinusoids

131
Q

Which liver cells are phagocytic?

A

= Kupffer

132
Q

primary bile acids are synthesized -> by hepatocytes lining bile canaliculi

A

= Cholesterol

133
Q

liver -> free bilirubin plasma -> sinusoids -> hepatocytes -> converted?

A

= Conjugated bilirubin

134
Q

During cephalic and gastric phases -> digestion, gallbladder contraction mediated by branches of

A

= Vagus nerve

135
Q

Sphincter -> relaxes -> bile flow into the duodenum?

A

= Sphincter of Oddi

136
Q

exocrine portion -> pancreas contains

A

= Ducts

137
Q

function acinar cells -> pancreas -> secrete

A

= Enzymes

138
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation -> pancreas -> reactions?

A

= Enzyme secretion

139
Q

substance prevents premature activation of proteolytic enzymes in pancreas?

A

= Trypsin inhibitor

140
Q

GI tract -> following processes?

A
  • Absorption of digested food,
  • Chemical breakdown of food particles,
  • Mechanical breakdown of food particles,
  • Secretion of mucus
141
Q

frequent GI problems -> processes decrease, including

A
  • Gastric juice secretion,
  • Hepatic regeneration,
  • Efficiency of drug metabolism,
  • Mucosal barrier protection
142
Q

bacterial GI infection -> type diarrhea most likely occurs?

A

= Secretory

143
Q

lactose intolerance -> ice cream -> diarrhea classified as?

A

= Osmotic

144
Q

pain near midline epigastrium -> stimulus acting abdominal organ -> pain classified

A

= Visceral

145
Q

most common disorder -> upper GI bleeding

A

= Esophageal varices

146
Q

bleeding from the rectum -> referred to

A

= Hematochezia

147
Q

reflux of chyme stomach -> gastroesophageal reflux -> caused by

A

= Loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter

148
Q

Reflux esophagitis is defined

A

= Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux

149
Q

heartburn after eating/ difficulty swallowing

A

-> Hiatal hernia

150
Q

serious complication of paraesophageal hiatal hernia

A

= Strangulation

151
Q

condition narrowing opening stomach + duodenum

A

= Pyloric obstruction

152
Q

cardinal sign -> pyloric stenosis -> ulceration or tumors

A

= Vomiting

153
Q

baby colicky pain followed by vomiting, sweating, nausea, and irritability -> one part of intestine telescopes into another -> type intestinal obstruction?

A

= Intussusception

154
Q

intestinal obstruction -> protrusion intestine through inguinal ring

A

= A hernia

155
Q

Chronic gastritis classified

A

= Location of lesions

156
Q

abdominal discomfort, epigastric tenderness, bleeding -> degeneration gastric mucosa in body + fundus of stomach -> most likely

A

= Pernicious anemia

157
Q

peptic ulcer disease - most likely caused

A

= Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions

158
Q

GI bleeding/ abdominal pain -> NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack -> peptic ulcer -> cause?

A

= Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis

159
Q

chronic intermittent pain (epigastric) after eating -> duodenal ulcer -> development of the ulcer?

A

= Cigarette smoking

160
Q

brain surgery -> tumor -> after -> peptic ulcer referred

A

= Cushing

161
Q

head injury + fractured femur -> stress ulcer
-> clinical manifestation?

A

= Bleeding

162
Q

3 months old: colicky pain, abdominal distention, diarrhea after cow milk

A

= Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

163
Q

Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies -> poor absorption of

A

= Fats and fat-soluble vitamins

164
Q

gastric resection -> lose weight -> complications after surgery?

A

= Anemia

165
Q

recurring abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools -> possible diagnosis

A

= Ulcerative colitis

166
Q

symptoms distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease?

A

= Malabsorption

167
Q

abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant -> rebound tenderness + low-grade fever

A

= Appendicitis

168
Q

common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among elderly

A

= Atherosclerosis

169
Q

characteristics associated -> acute occlusion mesenteric blood flow -> small intestine?

A

= Often precipitated by an embolism

170
Q

risk hypovolemic shock high -> acute mesenteric arterial insufficiency because

A

= Ischemia alters mucosal membrane permeability, and fluid is shifted to the bowel wall and peritoneum.

171
Q

conditions -> contribute to development of obesity?

A

= Leptin resistance

172
Q

13-year-old binge eats + induces vomiting -> prevent weight gain

A

= Bulimia nervosa

173
Q

vomiting blood -> portal hypertension -> cause?

A

= Cirrhosis of the liver

174
Q

common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension, bleeding?

A

= Esophageal

175
Q

alcoholism -> weight gain + right flank pain -> severe ascites, cause by decrease?

A

= Albumin and lack of cellular integrity

176
Q

Manifestations -> hepatic encephalopathy -> chronic liver disease, result of

A

= Impaired ammonia metabolism

177
Q

increase RBC breakdown -> which form of jaundice?

A

= Hemolytic

178
Q

Complete obstruction bile flow to liver

A

= Clay-colored stools

179
Q

icteric phase -> hepatitis, characterized by

A

= Jaundice, dark urine, enlarged liver

180
Q

Autopsy -> enlarged liver -> fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis -> condition?

A

= Alcoholism

181
Q

alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage caused by

A

= Acetaldehyde accumulation

Patho Final (4 decks)

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