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Patho Final > Chapter 26, 28, 29, 40, 41, 43 > Flashcards

Chapter 26, 28, 29, 40, 41, 43 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 60-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. He is diagnosed
    with atherosclerosis. This disease is caused by:

a. Arterial wall thinning and weakening
b. Abnormally dilated arteries and veins
c. Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls
d. Autonomic nervous system imbalances

A

ANS: C

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2
Q
  1. A patient wants to know what causes atherosclerosis. How should the nurse respond? In
    general, atherosclerosis is caused by:

a. High serum cholesterol levels
b. Endothelial injury and inflammation
c. An increase in antithrombotic substances
d. Congenital heart disease

A

ANS: B

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3
Q
  1. A staff member asks a nurse what foam cells are. What is the nurses best response? Foam cells
    in a fatty streak are:

a. Deposited adipose cells
b. Injured neutrophils
c. Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
d. Lipid-laden mast cells

A

ANS: C

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4
Q
  1. A nurse takes an adult patients blood pressure and determines it to be normal. What reading
    did the nurse obtain?

a. Systolic pressure between 140 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg

b. Systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mm Hg

c. Systolic pressure less than 100 mm Hg regardless of diastolic pressure

d. Systolic pressure greater than 140 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 100 mm Hg

A

ANS: B

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5
Q
  1. Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are
    documented on the chart as _____ hypertension.

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Congenital
d. Acquired

A

ANS: A

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6
Q
  1. A 30-year-old Caucasian female was recently diagnosed with primary hypertension. She
    reports that she eats fairly well, usually having red meat and potatoes daily. She also reports that
    her father has hypertension as well. A nurse determines which of the following risk factors is
    most likely associated with this diagnosis?

a. Race
b. Diet
c. Age
d. Genes

A

ANS: D

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7
Q
  1. A 65-year-old male presents for a routine checkup. A blood pressure check reveals a systolic
    pressure of 160 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 70 mm Hg. Which of the following is the
    most likely cause of this type of pressure elevation?

a. Vasospasm
b. Rigidity of the aorta
c. Decreased sodium intake
d. Lung disease

A

ANS: B

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8
Q
  1. A 52-year-old male is diagnosed with primary hypertension. He has no other health problems.
    Present treatment would cause the nurse to anticipate administering which drug to the patient?

a. A beta-adrenergic agonist
b. An alpha-adrenergic agonist
c. A diuretic
d. A calcium channel agonist

A

ANS: C

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9
Q
  1. A 55-year-old female has undiagnosed hypertension. She presents to her primary care provider
    reporting impaired vision and chronic edema. Lab tests reveal that she also has renal
    insufficiency. While planning care, the nurse realizes the most likely cause for these findings is:

a. Clotting and gangrene
b. Free radical injury and cell toxicity
c. End-organ damage
d. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia

A

ANS: C

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10
Q
  1. A nurse monitors the patient for _____ when rapid onset of malignant hypertension results.

a. Atherosclerosis
b. Encephalopathy
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Acute renal failure

A

ANS: B

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11
Q
  1. When a nurse checks the patient for orthostatic hypotension, what did the nurse have the
    patient do?

a. Physical exertion
b. Eat
c. Stand up
d. Lie down

A

ANS: C

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12
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following
    symptoms would he most likely experience?

a. Headache and blurred vision
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Chest pain and palpitations
d. Syncope and fainting

A

ANS: D

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13
Q
  1. A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department reporting difficulty swallowing
    and shortness of breath. A CT scan would most likely reveal an aneurysm in the:

a. Cerebral vessels
b. Renal arteries
c. Inferior vena cava
d. Thoracic aorta

A

ANS: D

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14
Q
  1. A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm. Where does the nurse suspect the
    cerebral aneurysm is located?

a. Vertebral arteries
b. Basilar artery
c. Circle of Willis
d. Carotid arteries

A

ANS: C

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15
Q
  1. What term should the nurse document for a detached blood clot?

a. Thrombus
b. Embolus
c. Thromboembolus
d. Infarction

A

ANS: C

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16
Q
  1. A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with swelling and redness. While
    obtaining the patients history, which finding could have caused her condition?

a. Venous thrombus
b. Heart valve damage
c. Bacterial infection
d. Atherosclerosis

A

ANS: A

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17
Q
  1. A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is
    diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the:

a. Left ventricle
b. Systemic arteries
c. Deep veins of the leg
d. Superficial veins of the arm

A

ANS: C

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18
Q
  1. Individuals with Raynaud disease need to be counseled to avoid which of the following
    conditions to prevent severe symptoms?

a. Allergic reactions
b. Cold exposure
c. Hot water immersion
d. Tissue injury

A

ANS: B

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19
Q
  1. A 75-year-old obese female presents to her primary care provider reporting edema in the
    lower extremities. Physical exam reveals that she has varicose veins. Upon performing the
    history, which of the following is a possible cause for the varicose veins?

a. Extreme exercise
b. Long periods of standing
c. Trauma to the deep veins
d. Ischemia

A

ANS: B

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20
Q
  1. A 52-year-old male presents with pooling of blood in the veins of the lower extremities and
    edema. The diagnosis is chronic venous insufficiency, and an expected assessment finding of this
    disorder is:

a. Deep vein thrombus formation
b. Skin hyperpigmentation
c. Gangrene
d. Edema above the knee

A

ANS: B

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21
Q
  1. While planning care for a patient with superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), which principle
    should the nurse remember? SVCS is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava (SVC) that
    leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.

a. Inflammation
b. Occlusion
c. Distention
d. Sclerosis

A

ANS: B

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22
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with bronchogenic
    cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Which of
    the following diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?

a. Thromboembolism
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
d. Chronic venous insufficiency

A

ANS: C

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23
Q
  1. A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. The nurse assesses for
    myocardial:

a. Hypertrophy
b. Ischemia
c. Necrosis
d. Inflammation

A

ANS: B

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24
Q
  1. A 56-year-old male is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following
    modifiable risk factors would the nurse suggest the patient change?

a. Eating meat
b. Living arrangements
c. Drinking tomato juice
d. Smoking cigarettes

A

ANS: D

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25
Q
  1. A 50-year-old obese male with hypertension and coronary artery disease visits a nutritionist
    for food counseling. He has an elevated level of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and a low level
    of high-density lipoprotein (HDL). Which of the following should the nurse advise him to avoid?

a. Monounsaturated fats
b. Polyunsaturated fats
c. Saturated fats
d. Trans fats

A

ANS: D

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26
Q
  1. When a patient asks the nurse what is the most common cause of myocardial ischemia, which
    statement is the correct response? The most common cause of myocardial ischemia is:

a. Idiopathic vasospasm
b. Arterial emboli from heart valve
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Venous emboli

A

ANS: C

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27
Q
  1. A 51-year-old male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion. He is diagnosed with
    angina pectoris. When he asks what causes the pain, how should the nurse respond? The pain
    occurs when:

a. Cardiac output has fallen below normal levels.
b. The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand.
c. Myocardial stretch has exceeded the upper limits.
d. The vagus nerve is stimulated.

A

ANS: B

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28
Q
  1. A 62-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain at rest and with
    exertion. He does not have a history of coronary artery disease and reports that the pain often
    occurs at night. He is most likely experiencing which type of angina?

a. Unstable
b. Stable
c. Prinzmetal
d. Silent

A

ANS: C

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29
Q
  1. A 51-year-old male is at the health clinic for an annual physical exam. After walking from
    the car to the clinic, he developed substernal pain. He also reported discomfort in his left
    shoulder and his jaw, lasting 2 to 3 minutes and then subsiding with rest. He indicates that this
    has occurred frequently over the past few months with similar exertion. The nurse suspects he is
    most likely experiencing:

a. Stable angina
b. Unstable angina
c. Prinzmetal angina
d. Myocardial infarction (MI)

A

ANS: A

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30
Q
  1. A 49-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. EKG reveals
    ST elevation. He is diagnosed with myocardial ischemia. Which of the following interventions
    would be most beneficial?

a. Administer a diuretic to decrease volume.
b. Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply.
c. Encourage exercise to increase heart rate.
d. Give an antibiotic to decrease infection.

A

ANS: B

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31
Q
  1. A 68-year-old male presents to the ER reporting chest pain. He has a history of stable angina
    that now appears to be unstable. He most likely has:

a. Mild to moderate atherosclerosis
b. Impending myocardial infarction (MI)
c. Electrical conduction problems in the heart
d. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

A

ANS: B

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32
Q
  1. The nasopharynx is lined with a ciliated mucosal membrane with a highly vascular blood
    supply. The nurse is discussing the functions of this membrane. Which information should be
    included? One function of the membrane is to:

a. Absorb air
b. Humidify air
c. Cool air
d. Exchange gases

A

ANS: B

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33
Q
  1. The nurse is describing the slit-shaped space between the true vocal cords. What term should
    the nurse use?

a. Glottis
b. Epiglottis
c. Larynx
d. Carina

A

ANS: A

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34
Q
  1. After entering a room of chemical fog, a 20-year-old male cannot stop sneezing. Which of the
    following structures is primarily responsible for his sneezing?

a. Upper respiratory tract mucosa
b. Irritant receptors in the trachea and large airways
c. Irritant receptors in the nostrils
d. Upper respiratory nasal hairs and turbinates

A

ANS: C

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35
Q
  1. A newborn is in respiratory distress and requires ventilation. Tests reveal that he does not
    produce surfactant due to the absence of:

a. Mucus-producing cells
b. Type II alveolar cells
c. Alveolar macrophages
d. Goblet cells

A

ANS: B

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36
Q
  1. The nurse is describing the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs
    to the body organs and tissues. What term should the nurse use to describe this process?

a. Perfusion
b. Ventilation
c. Diffusion
d. Circulation

A

ANS: A

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37
Q
  1. Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with respiratory
    problems? Diffusion of respiratory gases takes place at the:

a. Alveolocapillary membrane
b. Visceral pleurae
c. Parietal pleurae
d. Respiratory center

A

ANS: B

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38
Q
  1. Students in a histology class are assigned to identify regions of the lung. The slide shows a
    basement membrane, capillary lumen, and macrophages. The students are looking at the:

a. Trachea
b. Bronchioles
c. Alveoli
d. Bronchus

A

ANS: C

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39
Q
  1. A nurse recalls the pleural membranes are examples of _____ membranes.

a. Mucous
b. Serous
c. Synovial
d. Peritoneal

A

ANS: B

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40
Q
  1. A nurse is teaching about the functions of the pulmonary system. Which information should
    the nurse include? One of the functions of the pulmonary system is the:

a. Expelling of bacteria
b. Exchange of gases between the environment and blood
c. Movement of blood into and out of the capillaries
d. Principle mechanism for cooling of the heart

A

ANS: B

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41
Q
  1. A 42-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a
    severe head injury. He died shortly after the accident from loss of respiration. The nurse suspects
    the area of the brain most likely involved is the:

a. Cerebral cortex
b. Thalamus
c. Basal ganglia
d. Brainstem

A

ANS: D

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42
Q
  1. The pulmonologist talks about the receptors that respond to increased pulmonary capillary pressure.
    What term will indicate the nurse understands? They are called:

a. Irritant receptors
b. Chemoreceptors
c. Stretch receptors
d. J receptors

A

ANS: D

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43
Q
  1. While reviewing the results of the pulmonary functions test, the nurse is aware that the
    maximum amount of gas that can be displaced (expired) from the lung is called:

a. Vital capacity (VC)
b. Total lung capacity
c. Functional capacity
d. Residual volume

A

ANS: A

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44
Q
  1. The nurse is describing the receptors in the lung that decrease ventilatory rate and volume
    when stimulated. Which receptors is the nurse discussing?

a. Carbon dioxide receptors
b. Baroreceptors
c. Stretch receptors
d. Chemoreceptors

A

ANS: C

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45
Q
  1. The pulmonologist is presenting a workshop over the lungs. Which information should be
    included? The lung receives parasympathetic innervation by the _____ nerve.

a. Vagus
b. Phrenic
c. Brachial
d. Pectoral

A

ANS: A

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46
Q
  1. While planning care for a patient with respiratory difficulty and retaining too much carbon
    dioxide, which principle should the nurse recall? _______ would be stimulated in an attempt to
    maintain a normal homeostatic state.

a. Irritant receptors
b. Stretch receptors
c. Peripheral chemoreceptors
d. Central chemoreceptors

A

ANS: D

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47
Q
  1. If an individual with respiratory difficulty were retaining too much carbon dioxide, which of
    the following compensatory responses would the nurse expect to be initiated?

a. Increase in respiratory rate
b. Decrease in ventilation rate
c. Increase in tidal volume
d. Vasodilation of the pulmonary arterioles

A

ANS: A

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48
Q
  1. During inspiration, muscular contraction of the diaphragm causes air to move into the lung.
    The mechanisms that drive air movement during inspiration are a(n):

a. Decrease in intra-alveolar pressure and shortening of the rib cage

b. Decrease in the size of the thorax and alveolar expansion

c. Increase in the size of the thorax and a decrease in intrapleural pressure

d. Increase in atmospheric pressure and intrapleural pressure

A

ANS: C

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49
Q
  1. A nurse remembers the majority of total airway resistance occurs in the:

a. Bronchi
b. Nose
c. Oral pharynx
d. Diaphragm

A

ANS: B

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50
Q
  1. The pressure required to inflate an alveolus is inversely related to:

a. Wall thickness
b. Surface tension
c. Minute volume
d. Alveolar radius

A

ANS: D

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51
Q
  1. An aide asks a nurse how surfactant works. How should the nurse respond? Surfactant
    facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by:

a. Decreasing thoracic compliance
b. Attracting water to the alveolar surface
c. Decreasing surface tension in alveoli
d. Increasing diffusion in alveoli

A

ANS: C

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52
Q
  1. Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with a
    respiratory problem? Under most circumstances, increased work of breathing results in:

a. Increased partial pressure of O2 in the lungs
b. Increased oxygen consumption
c. Decreased PaCO2
d. Alterations in alveolar perfusion

A

ANS: B

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following terms should the nurse use when there is a balance between outward
    recoil of the chest wall and inward recoil of lungs at rest?

a. Functional residual capacity (FRC) is reached.
b. Vital capacity (VC) is reached.
c. Total lung capacity (TLC) is reached.
d. Residual volume (RV) is reached.

A

ANS: A

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54
Q
  1. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lung given the following conditions?
    Percentage of oxygen in air: 20
    Barometric pressure: 700 mm Hg

a. 111 mm Hg
b. 124 mm Hg
c. 131 mm Hg
d. 140 mm Hg

A

ANS: D

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55
Q
  1. A pulmonologist is discussing the base of the lungs with staff. Which information should be
    included? At the base of the lungs:

a. Alveolar gas pressure exceeds arterial perfusion pressure.

b. Arterial perfusion pressure and alveolar gas pressure are less than at the apex.

c. Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.

d. Arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure are equal.

A

ANS: C

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56
Q
  1. While auscultating a patients lungs, a nurse recalls the alveoli in the apexes of the lungs are
    _____ than alveoli in the bases.

a. Larger
b. More numerous
c. More compliant
d. Less perfused

A

ANS: A

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57
Q
  1. A patient asks how oxygen is transported in the body. What is the nurses best response? Most
    of the oxygen (O2) is transported:

a. Dissolved in the plasma
b. Bound to hemoglobin
c. In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. As a free-floating molecule

A

ANS: B

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58
Q
  1. If a patients hemoglobin concentration (Hb) is 14 g/100 ml and arterial oxygen saturation
    (SaO2) is 98%, what would be his arterial oxygen content? Remember that 1.34 ml O2 is the
    maximum amount of oxygen that can be transported per gram of hemoglobin.
    Hint: O2 content = (1.34 Hb) SaO2

a. 13.72 ml O2 per 100 ml blood
b. 15.38 ml O2 per 100 ml blood
c. 18.76 ml O2 per 100 ml blood
d. 19.30 ml O2 per 100 ml blood

A

ANS: C

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59
Q
  1. In a patient with acidosis or a fever, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation
    curve to shift:

a. To the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells
b. To the left, allowing less O2 to be released to the cells
c. Downward, allowing less O2 to dissolve in the plasma
d. Upward, allowing more O2 to dissolve in the plasma

A

ANS: A

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60
Q
  1. A patient wants to know how carbon dioxide is transported in the body. How should the
    nurse respond? Carbon dioxide (CO2) is mainly transported in the blood:

a. Attached to oxygen (O2)
b. Dissolved in red blood cells
c. Combined with albumin
d. In the form of bicarbonate

A

ANS: D

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61
Q
  1. A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is:

a. Reactive vasodilation
b. Local bronchoconstriction
c. Decreased respiratory rate
d. Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction

A

ANS: D

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62
Q
  1. An 80-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing.
    Pulmonary function tests reveal that he has increased residual volume. A nurse suspects the most
    likely cause of this disorder is _____ in lung compliance.

a. An increase
b. A decrease
c. No change
d. An absence

A

ANS: A

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63
Q
  1. A nurse is teaching staff about the respiratory bronchi. Which information should the nurse
    include? __________ may be found in the walls of the respiratory bronchi? (Select all that
    apply,)

a. Smooth muscle
b. Surfactant-producing glands
c. Goblet cells
d. Ciliated cells
e. Epithelial lining

A

ANS: A, C, D, E

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64
Q
  1. _____ seconds is required for oxygen (O2) concentration to equilibrate (equalize) across the
    alveolocapillary membrane.
A

ANS: .25

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65
Q
  1. ____% of oxygen (O2) enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin
A

ANS: 97

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66
Q
  1. A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal
    retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What
    term should the nurse use to document this condition?

a. Cyanosis
b. Dyspnea
c. Hyperpnea
d. Orthopnea

A

ANS: B

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67
Q
  1. A 20-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when
    lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition?

a. Dyspnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Apnea
d. Tachypnea

A

ANS: B

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68
Q
  1. A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He
    is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon
    assessment?

a. Audible wheezing or stridor
b. A slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause
c. Rapid respirations with periods of apnea
d. Very slow inhalations and rapid expirations

A

ANS: B

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69
Q
  1. A 30-year-old female received a severe head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She is now
    experiencing respiratory abnormalities characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow
    breathing with periods of apnea. What term should the nurse use when charting this condition?

a. Cheyne-Stokes
b. Frank-Starling
c. Apnea
d. Orthopnea

A

ANS: A

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70
Q
  1. Which patient would the nurse assess for paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? A patient
    with:

a. Pulmonary fibrosis
b. Asthma
c. Left ventricular failure
d. Hypotension

A

ANS: C

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71
Q
  1. A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide
    (CO2) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?

a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypoventilation
c. Apnea
d. Cyanosis

A

ANS: A

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72
Q
  1. A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical
    exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes. How should the nurse chart this condition?
    Patient has:

a. Cyanosis
b. Hemoptysis
c. Hematemesis
d. Ischemia

A

ANS: A

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73
Q
  1. A 28-year-old male reports to his primary care provider that he has had a cold for a week and
    is coughing up bloody secretions. When giving report, what term should the nurse use to
    describe this condition?

a. Hematemesis
b. Cyanosis
c. Rhinitis
d. Hemoptysis

A

ANS: D

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74
Q
  1. A nurse is reviewing the results of an ABG and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood.
    What term should the nurse use to describe this condition?

a. Ischemia
b. Hypoxia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hypocapnia

A

ANS: C

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75
Q
  1. A group of mountain climbers experience confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal
    output after climbing Mount Rainier. A nurse recalls this condition is caused by:

a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Hypoventilation
c. Decreased inspired oxygen
d. Diffusion abnormalities

A

ANS: C

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76
Q
  1. A nurse remembers a low ventilation-perfusion ratio results in:

a. Increased dead space
b. Shunting
c. Alveolar collapse
d. Bronchoconstriction

A

ANS: B

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77
Q
  1. When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower
    lobe receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion, which statement indicates
    the nurse understands this condition? When this occurs in a patient it is called:

a. A right-to-left shunt
b. Alveolar dead space
c. A low ventilation-perfusion ratio
d. Pulmonary hypotension

A

ANS: B

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78
Q
  1. A 30-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains trauma to the lungs
    and chest wall. He experiences respiratory failure. Which of the following lab values would the
    nurse expect?

a. Electrolyte imbalances
b. Elevated PaCO2
c. Low hematocrit
d. Elevated pH

A

ANS: B

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79
Q
  1. A nurse is teaching staff about pulmonary edema. Which information should the nurse
    include? The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:

a. Right heart failure
b. Left heart failure
c. Asthma
d. Lung cancer

A

ANS: B

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80
Q
  1. A 47-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Which assessment findings will the
    nurse observe?

a. Thick mucus secretions
b. Pink, frothy sputum
c. Hypocapnia
d. Wheezing

A

ANS: B

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81
Q
  1. A 65-year-old male recently had a cerebrovascular accident that resulted in dysphagia. He
    now has aspiration of gastric contents. The nurse assesses the patient for which complication?

a. Pneumonia
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Pneumothorax
d. Emphysema

A

ANS: A

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82
Q
  1. A 26-year-old female recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough,
    fever, and leukocytosis. Tests reveal that she has a collapsed lung caused by removal of air from
    obstructed alveoli. What condition will the nurse observe on the chart?

a. Compression atelectasis
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Absorption atelectasis
d. Hypoventilation

A

ANS: C

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83
Q
  1. A 45-year-old male undergoes lung transplantation. He now suffers from airway occlusion
    secondary to fibrosis. Which diagnosis will the nurse see on the chart?

a. Compression atelectasis
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Bronchiolitis
d. Bronchiolitis obliterans

A

ANS: D

84
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left.
    Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the
    atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is
    experiencing?

a. Pleural effusion
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Open pneumothorax
d. Transudative pneumothorax

A

ANS: B

85
Q
  1. A 60-year-old female with a history of cirrhosis presents with dyspnea, impaired ventilation,
    and pleural pain. A diagnosis of pleural effusion is made, and a watery fluid is drained. When
    giving report, the nurse will refer to this fluid as:

a. Exudative
b. Purulent
c. Infected
d. Transudative

A

ANS: D

86
Q
  1. An 80-year-old female develops pneumonia in the hospital. She becomes cyanotic,
    tachycardic, and develops a fever and cough. Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space. Which
    of the following is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart?

a. Empyema
b. Emphysema
c. Pleurisy
d. Chyle

A

ANS: A

87
Q
  1. A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with empyema. Upon receiving and reviewing the culture
    result, which organism does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?

a. Virus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Klebsiella pneumonia
d. Moraxella catarrhalis

A

ANS: B

88
Q
  1. A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. The
    patient had a pulmonary functions test. Which of the following findings is expected?

a. Increased compliance
b. Increased tidal volume
c. Decreased respiratory rate
d. Decreased functional residual capacity

A

ANS: D

89
Q
  1. A 57-year-old male presents with cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung
    volume. He is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. When taking the patients history, which finding
    is the most probable cause of his illness?

a. Inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica
b. Autoimmune disease
c. Allergic reactions
d. Flail chest

A

ANS: A

90
Q
  1. A 42-year-old female presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia.
    Tests reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.
    Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Postoperative respiratory failure
d. Malignant respiratory failure

A

ANS: A

91
Q
  1. Which of the following shows a correct cause and effect sequence in the development of
    acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

a. Impaired alveolar compliance causing decreased surfactant production

b. Alveolocapillary membrane injury causing a massive inflammatory response

c. Hyaline membrane formation and fibrosis causing pulmonary edema

d. Increased alveolocapillary membrane permeability causing metabolic alkalosis

A

ANS: B

92
Q
  1. A 60-year-old female with emphysema is having difficulty expiring a given volume of air.
    When giving report, the nurse will relay that the patient is most likely experiencing _____
    pulmonary disease.

a. Restrictive
b. Obstructive
c. Atelectatic
d. Pleuritic

A

ANS: B

93
Q
  1. When the nurse is asked what causes asthma, how should the nurse respond? Asthma is
    thought to be caused by:

a. An autosomal recessive trait
b. Autoimmunity
c. Excessive use of antibiotics as a young child
d. Interactions between genetic and environmental factors

A

ANS: D

94
Q
  1. A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:

a. Pathophysiologic differences
b. Clinical severity
c. Genetic traits
d. Treatment outcomes

A

ANS: B

95
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse
    include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to:

a. Increased sympathetic nervous system response
b. The release of stress hormones
c. Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation
d. Hereditary decrease in IgE responsiveness

A

ANS: C

96
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse
    include? Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in
    asthma is caused by:

a. Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant
b. Alveolar fibrosis and pulmonary edema
c. Mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema
d. Collapse of the cartilaginous rings in the bronchi

A

ANS: C

97
Q
  1. A 10-year-old male is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia. The most likely diagnosis on the chart is:

a. Exercise-induced asthma
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
c. Status asthmaticus
d. Bronchiectasis

A

ANS: C

98
Q
  1. A 22-year-old female presents with chronic bronchitis. Tests reveal closure of the airway
    during expiration. While planning care, a nurse recalls this condition is most likely caused by:

a. Thick mucus from hypertrophied glands
b. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
c. Hyperventilation
d. Thinning smooth muscle in the bronchioles

A

ANS: A

99
Q
  1. A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months duration. When obtaining
    the patients history, which of the following findings is most likely to cause this condition?

a. Chronic asthma
b. Air pollution
c. Cigarette smoke
d. Recurrent pneumonias

A

ANS: C

100
Q
  1. A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months duration. Which of the
    following is the most significant concern for the nurse to monitor in this patient?

a. Left heart failure
b. Pulmonary embolus
c. Immunosuppression
d. Recurrent pulmonary infections

A

ANS: D

101
Q
  1. A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When
    a staff member asks why the patients airways are obstructed, how should the nurse respond? The
    airways are obstructed because of:

a. Excessive mucus production
b. Loss of elastic recoil
c. Infection and inflammation
d. Airway edema

A

ANS: B

102
Q
  1. A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When
    the nurse is asked what causes this, what is the nurses best response? Changes in his lungs are
    caused by:

a. Viral infections
b. Destruction of alveolar macrophages
c. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
d. Fibrotic lung disease

A

ANS: C

103
Q
  1. Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for which most
    common presenting factor?

a. A productive cough
b. Cyanosis
c. Dyspnea
d. Cor pulmonale

A

ANS: C

104
Q
  1. A 60-year-old female with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. She
    has an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to:

a. Air trapping
b. Decreased inspiratory reserve volumes
c. Increased flow rates
d. Alveolar destruction

A

ANS: A

105
Q
  1. A patient asks what causes pneumonia. How should the nurse reply? Pneumonia is caused
    by:

a. Use of anesthetic agents in surgery
b. Atelectasis
c. Chronic lung changes seen with aging
d. Viral or bacterial infections

A

ANS: D

106
Q
  1. When the nurse observes a diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia, the patient generally
    acquires this pneumonia:

a. At day care centers
b. On airplanes
c. During hospitalization
d. In the winter season

A

ANS: C

107
Q
  1. A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. When the
    nurse reviews the lab results, the organism that caused this condition is a:

a. Bacterium
b. Fungus
c. Virus
d. Parasite

A

ANS: A

108
Q
  1. A clinician is preparing to teach about bone matrix. Which information should be included?
    The component of the bone matrix that gives bone tensile strength is:

a. Calcium
b. Phosphate
c. Collagen
d. Magnesium

A

ANS: C

109
Q
  1. Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of osteoblasts? Once their
    initial function is complete, osteoblasts become:

a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteocytes
c. Chondroblasts
d. Osteoids

A

ANS: B

110
Q
  1. Which information indicates the nurse understands osteocalcin? Osteocalcin is a:

a. Glycoprotein
b. Hormone
c. Mineral
d. Vitamin

A

ANS: A

111
Q
  1. A clinician is preparing to discuss hydroxyapatite. Which information should be included?
    Hydroxyapatite in the bone matrix contains which of the following molecules in its crystalline
    structure?

a. Calcium and magnesium
b. Calcium and phosphate
c. Phosphate and magnesium
d. Magnesium and hydrogen

A

ANS: B

112
Q
  1. Which information indicates the nursing student has a good understanding between compact
    bone and spongy bone? The major difference between compact bone and spongy bone is the:

a. Organization of the structural elements
b. Location within the body
c. Activating chemicals in each
d. Types of minerals in the bone matrix

A

ANS: A

113
Q
  1. A staff member asks a nurse how blood gets to the bone. How should the nurse reply? Blood
    vessels penetrate to the inner structures of the bone via:

a. Volkmann canals
b. Canaliculi
c. Sharpey fibers
d. Lamellae

A

ANS: A

114
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about bones. Which information should the nurse
    include? After puberty, the epiphyseal plate calcifies, and the epiphysis and _____ merge.

a. Epiphyseal line
b. Diaphyseal plate
c. Metaphysis
d. Articular cartilage

A

ANS: C

115
Q
  1. When a staff member asks how remodeling of bone occurs, what is the nurses best response?
    Remodeling is done by clusters of bone cells called:

a. Precursor stimulating cells
b. Osteoclastic cutting cones
c. Basic multicellular units
d. Haversian system cells

A

ANS: C

116
Q
  1. A nurse is discussing the different phases of bone remodeling. Which information should be
    included? Phase 2 of the bone remodeling cycle involves bone:

a. Formation
b. Activation
c. Resorption
d. Fracturing

A

ANS: C

117
Q
  1. When the physical therapist is describing a freely movable joint, which term should be used?

a. Synarthrosis
b. Amphiarthrosis
c. Fibrous
d. Diarthrosis

A

ANS: D

118
Q
  1. A nurse recalls fibrous joints generally are:

a. Rotating
b. Slightly movable
c. Freely movable
d. Calcified

A

ANS: B

119
Q
  1. Which of the following should the nurse include when discussing the different types of
    cartilaginous joints?

a. Sutures and gomphosis
b. Syndesmosis and gomphosis
c. Symphysis and synchondrosis
d. Gomphosis and synchondrosis

A

ANS: C

120
Q
  1. Which statement indicates the nurse has a good understanding of joints? The joints between
    the teeth and the maxilla or mandible are examples of a:

a. Symphysis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Gomphosis
d. Syndesmosis

A

ANS: C

121
Q
  1. A nurse recalls the elbow joint is an example of a(n):

a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Synarthrosis
d. Symphysis

A

ANS: B

122
Q
  1. When a staff member asks where costal cartilage is located, how should the nurse respond?
    Between the:

a. Vertebrae
b. Ribs and sternum
c. Sutures of the skull
d. Facial bones

A

ANS: B

123
Q
  1. The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium are made of:

a. Bone
b. Epithelium
c. Fascia
d. Cartilage

A

ANS: C

124
Q
  1. Which layer forms the fascicles in skeletal muscle?

a. Tendon sheath
b. Endomysium
c. Epimysium
d. Perimysium

A

ANS: D

125
Q
  1. When a staff member asks the nurse about the contractile unit of a muscle, how should the
    nurse reply? The contractile unit of a muscle cell is called the:

a. Motor unit
b. Basement membrane
c. Myofibril
d. Ribosome

A

ANS: C

126
Q
  1. An isolated muscle is believed to be a type 1 fiber. Which of the following should be
    observed by the nurse when the muscle is stimulated?

a. The muscle resists fatigue.
b. The muscle tires easily.
c. The muscle will not contract.
d. The muscle has no fascia.

A

ANS: A

127
Q
  1. An isolated muscle is believed to be a type II fiber. Which of the following should be
    observed by the nurse when the muscle is stimulated?

a. The muscle has slow contraction speed.
b. The muscle is fatigued easily.
c. The muscle has a profuse capillary supply.
d. The muscle has no fascia.

A

ANS: B

128
Q
  1. When the nurse is using the term sarcopenia, what is the nurse describing? It is the:
    a. Absence of muscle cells
    b. Fatigue of muscle cells
    c. Age-related loss in skeletal muscle
    d. Muscles that are unable to contract
A

ANS: C

129
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to teach about myofibrils. Which information should the nurse include?
    The structure of the contractile subunit of the myofibril is called the:

a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Actin
c. Motor endplate
d. Sarcomere

A

ANS: D

130
Q
  1. While planning care for a patient with muscle problems, which information should the nurse
    remember? _____ ions directly control the contraction of muscles.

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

A

ANS: C

131
Q
  1. A patient has researched muscles on the internet. Which information indicates the patient has
    a good understanding? The molecule that prevents a muscle contraction from occurring when the
    muscle is at rest is:

a. Calcium
b. Troponin-tropomyosin
c. Actin
d. Myosin

A

ANS: B

132
Q
  1. A nursing student wants to know during which stage actin binds to myosin. What is the
    nurses best response? During:

a. Coupling
b. Relaxation
c. Discharging
d. Excitation

A

ANS: A

133
Q
  1. When a patient asks what the fuel for skeletal muscle contraction is, how should the nurse
    respond? The main energy source or fuel for skeletal muscle contraction is:

a. Calcium
b. Lactic acid
c. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
d. Actin

A

ANS: C

134
Q
  1. The nurse observed the patients muscle contracted, but the limb did not move. How should
    the nurse chart this muscle contraction?

a. Isotonic contraction
b. Isometric contraction
c. Eccentric contraction
d. Concentric contraction

A

ANS: B

135
Q
  1. A nurse recalls that when a muscle acts as the prime mover, it is called the:

a. Flexor
b. Recruiter
c. Antagonist
d. Agonist

A

ANS: D

136
Q
  1. The nurse has a good understanding of bone matrix when he comments that the following
    molecules are part of the bone matrix? (Select all that apply.)

a. Collagen fibers
b. Elastin fibers
c. Proteoglycans
d. Glycoproteins
e. Epithelial cells

A

ANS: A, B, D

137
Q
  1. The nursing student has a good understanding of glycoproteins when he states that the
    following glycoproteins are present in the bone? (Select all that apply.)

a. Osteocalcin
b. Sialoprotein
c. Bone albumin
d. Alpha-glycoprotein
e. Collagen

A

ANS: A, B, C, D

138
Q
  1. A patient has researched compact bones on the Internet. Which information indicates the
    patient has a good understanding of compact bone? The structures present in compact bone
    include the (select all that apply):

a. Haversian canals
b. Trabeculae
c. Canaliculi
d. Lamellae
e. Lacunae

A

ANS: A, C, D, E

139
Q
  1. Which information indicates the staff member has a good understanding of bone
    classifications? The shapes that represent bone classifications include (select all that apply):

a. Long
b. Flat
c. Short
d. Irregular
e. Round

A

ANS: A, B, C, D

140
Q
  1. The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in:

a. Preadolescent boys
b. Adolescent boys
c. Adolescent girls
d. Older adults

A

ANS: D

141
Q
  1. A 65-year-old Hispanic female is admitted to the hospital with a pathologic, compound,transverse fracture of the femur.
    Which of the following statements best describes this type of fracture?

a. The fracture line is parallel to the bone.
b. The fracture line is straight across the bone.
c. The fracture line is perpendicular to the bone.
d. The fracture line is vertical to the shaft of the bone.

A

ANS: B

142
Q
  1. A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting
    abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the
    following best describes the fracture?

a. Fatigue fracture
b. Stress fracture
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Greenstick fracture

A

ANS: C

143
Q
  1. A 32-year-old obese male begins a jogging routine. A week after beginning, he fractures his
    leg. This is referred to as a what type of fracture?
    a. Comminuted
    b. Greenstick
    c. Fatigue
    d. Compound
A

ANS: C

144
Q
  1. Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in:
    a. Adolescents
    b. Older adults
    c. Infants
    d. Premenopausal females
A

ANS: A

145
Q
  1. A 35-year-old female suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident. X-ray
    reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other. This condition is
    called:
    a. Dislocation
    b. Subluxation
    c. Distortion
    d. Nonunion
A

ANS: B

146
Q
  1. A 12-year-old female hurts her ankle while playing basketball. Tests reveal that she tore a
    ligament. This condition is known as a:
    a. Sprain
    b. Strain
    c. Disunion
    d. Subluxation
A

ANS: A

147
Q
  1. A 36-year-old male complains of pain and weakness in the elbow. He reports that he is a
    warehouse worker and lifts boxes daily. MRI reveals inflammation of the tendon where it
    attaches to bone. This condition is called:
    a. Periostitis
    b. Muscle strain
    c. Bursitis
    d. Epicondylopathy
A

ANS: D

148
Q
  1. An important and useful clinical measure in the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is measurement
    of which laboratory value?
    a. White blood cell count
    b. Antinuclear antibodies
    c. Aspartate aminotransferase
    d. Creatine kinase (CK)
A

ANS: D

149
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical findings would be expected in the patient with
    rhabdomyolysis?

a. Sweating
b. Dark urine
c. Yellow color to the skin
d. Lower extremity swelling

A

ANS: B

150
Q
  1. A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition
    is caused by an increase in bone:

a. Density
b. Formation
c. Resorption
d. Mineralization

A

ANS: C

151
Q
  1. A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture. She is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One
    factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:

a. Increased androgen levels
b. Decreased estrogen levels
c. Strenuous exercise
d. Excessive dietary calcium

A

ANS: B

152
Q
  1. A 76-year-old female was diagnosed with osteoporosis by radiologic exam. She is at high
    risk for:

a. Bone infections
b. Joint injuries
c. Pathologic bone fractures
d. Osteomalacia

A

ANS: C

153
Q
  1. An 80-year-old male presents with skeletal pain and tenderness, especially in the hips. He is
    diagnosed with osteomalacia caused by:

a. Collagen breakdown in the bone matrix
b. Excessive bone resorption
c. Crowding of bone marrow by excessive bone growth
d. Inadequate bone mineralization

A

ANS: D

154
Q
  1. A 56-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. History
    reveals that he takes anticonvulsants, underwent small bowel resection 3 years earlier, and
    suffers from chronic pancreatitis. What is the common link between these three factors and the
    development of osteomalacia?

a. Impaired phosphate absorption
b. Increased calcium excretion
c. Vitamin D deficiency
d. Impaired vitamin C metabolism

A

ANS: C

155
Q
  1. A disorder similar to osteomalacia that occurs in growing bones of children is termed:

a. Paget disease
b. Rickets
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Osteosarcoma

A

ANS: B

156
Q
  1. The cause of Paget disease is:

a. Fluoride deficiency
b. Unknown at present
c. Excess vitamin A
d. Osteogenic sarcoma

A

ANS: B

157
Q
  1. A 70-year-old male presents with back pain, fever, and weight loss. He reports that he had a
    recent respiratory infection from which he thought he recovered. Tests revealed increased white
    blood cell count, and a diagnosis of endogenous osteomyelitis was made. The primary organism
    causing this condition is:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Salmonella
c. Mycobacterium
d. Haemophilus influenza

A

ANS: A

158
Q
  1. A 54-year-old female was recently diagnosed with degenerative joint disease. This condition
    is characterized by loss of:

a. The epiphyses
b. Articular cartilage
c. Synovial fluid
d. The joint capsule

A

ANS: B

159
Q
  1. A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the
    following is the expected treatment of choice?

a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
b. Gold salts
c. Methotrexate
d. Hydroxychloroquine

A

ANS: C

160
Q
  1. Researchers now believe that RA is:

a. Curable with antiviral agents
b. An autoimmune disease
c. A complication of rheumatic fever
d. Related superficial joint injury

A

ANS: B

161
Q
  1. A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with RA. Physical examination revealed that
    inflammation started in the:

a. Synovial membrane
b. Articular cartilage
c. Subchondral bone
d. Surrounding ligaments

A

ANS: A

162
Q
  1. A 21-year-old female presents with low back pain and stiffness that is alleviated by physical
    activity. She was diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). The first joint to be affected
    would be the:

a. Sacroiliac
b. Carpal
c. Shoulder
d. Knee

A

ANS: A

163
Q
  1. Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout?

a. Men aged 40 to 50 years
b. Premenopausal women
c. Male adolescents
d. Female children

A

ANS: A

164
Q
  1. A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He
    was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. The symptoms he experienced are caused by the
    crystallization of _____ within the synovial fluid.

a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines
c. Uric acid
d. Acetic acid

A

ANS: C

165
Q
  1. A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He
    was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. He is at risk for developing:

a. Cholelithiasis
b. Myocarditis
c. Renal stones
d. Liver failure

A

ANS: C

166
Q
  1. A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis. Which of the following is the
    most common trigger for the symptoms?

a. Trauma
b. Anemia
c. High-fat foods
d. Lack of exercise

A

ANS: A

167
Q
  1. The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial
    membranes, and soft tissue, is called:

a. Monarticular arthritis
b. Tophaceous gout
c. Asymptomatic hyperuricemia
d. Complicated gout

A

ANS: B

168
Q
  1. A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks.
    During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as:

a. Myodysplasia
b. Ischemic atrophy
c. Disuse atrophy
d. Deconditioning hypoplasia

A

ANS: C

169
Q
  1. Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by:

a. Pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation
b. Muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms
c. Neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles
d. Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points

A

ANS: D

170
Q
  1. Myotonia is characterized by:

a. Prolonged depolarization of muscle cell membranes
b. Absence of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for muscle contraction
c. Delayed muscle contraction
d. Hyperactive reflexes

A

ANS: A

171
Q
  1. A 13-year-old female is admitted to the hospital for evaluation and treatment of an
    osteosarcoma in her left distal femur. Which statement best describes osteosarcoma?

a. Myelogenic, develops in red bone marrow only
b. Benign, develops in spongy bone tissue
c. Collagenic, originates in the periosteum
d. Osteogenic, most often develops in the bone marrow

A

ANS: D

172
Q
  1. A 60-year-old male presents with swelling and pain in the knee. CT reveals a tumor of
    spongy bone. His diagnosis would be:

a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Rhabdomyoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Fibrosarcoma

A

ANS: A

173
Q
  1. The most common cause of toxic myopathy is:

a. Infection
b. A tumor
c. Alcoholism
d. Osteoporosis

A

ANS: C

174
Q
  1. A malignant tumor of striated muscle tissue origin is called:

a. Myelogenic tumor
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Rhabdomyoma

A

ANS: C

175
Q
  1. A 35-year-old female presents with impaired motor function and visual disturbances. The
    diagnosis is Paget disease. What additional symptoms would be expected? (Select all that apply.)

a. Skull thickness
b. Dementia
c. Deafness
d. Headache
e. Hypertension

A

ANS: A, B, C, D

176
Q
  1. Signs and symptoms of subluxation include (select all that apply):

a. Pain
b. Swelling
c. Hemorrhage
d. Limitation of movement
e. Joint deformity

A

ANS: A, B, D, E

177
Q
  1. A 29-year-old male was recently diagnosed with AS. He is interested in obtaining more
    information about his disease. Patient teaching would include which of the following? (Select all
    that apply.)

a. A diagnosis is made from history, physical examination, x-rays, and genetic
analysis.

b. Inflammation of the fibrocartilage in cartilaginous joints results in the erosion of bone structure, scar tissue formation, and joint fusion.

c. The more common signs and symptoms of early disease include restricted joint movement and increased pain after physical activity.

d. The usual treatment includes anti-inflammatory and analgesic medications, exercises, and physical therapy.

e. The spine becomes bent forward as the normal convex curve of the lower spine
diminishes.

A

ANS: A, B, D, E

178
Q
  1. The pattern of bone destruction indicative of an aggressive malignant tumor is known as
    _____ pattern. (Select all that apply.)

a. Moth-eaten
b. Permeative
c. Geographic
d. Radial
e. Selective

A

ANS: A, B, C

179
Q
  1. To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points
    necessary for diagnosis.
A

ANS:
11

180
Q
  1. A 12-year-old female notices her hair and skin feel more oily than normal. Her primary care
    provider explains that during puberty her sebaceous glands enlarge and are stimulated by:

a. Androgens
b. Estrogen
c. Vitamin D
d. Progesterone

A

ANS: A

181
Q
  1. Of the sweat glands, the _____ glands are most abundant in the axillae and genital areas.

a. Eccrine
b. Apocrine
c. Sebaceous
d. Subcutaneous

A

ANS: B

182
Q
  1. If a patient has carbuncles, the infection will be located in the:

a. Hair follicles
b. Papillary layer of the dermis
c. Reticular layer of the dermis
d. Subcutaneous tissue

A

ANS: A

183
Q
  1. Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin?

a. Langerhans cells
b. Merkel cells
c. Keratinocytes
d. Melanocytes

A

ANS: A

184
Q
  1. Fat cells are located in the:

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Fascia beneath the skin

A

ANS: C

185
Q
  1. A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer. When assessing the patients
    skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer?

a. Redness
b. Whiteness
c. Indurations
d. Ulceration

A

ANS: A

186
Q
  1. To promote efficient wound healing, which dressing should be applied to a superficial ulcer?

a. Thick and dry
b. Flat and moist
c. Bulky and dry
d. None

A

ANS: B

187
Q
  1. Individuals of _____ descent are more prone to developing keloids?

a. African-American
b. Northern European
c. Asian
d. Native American

A

ANS: A

188
Q
  1. A 23-year-old male received a knife wound in a fight. His scar was sharply elevated,
    irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging. This condition is caused by excessive amounts
    of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

a. Elastin
b. Collagen
c. Keratin
d. Calcification

A

ANS: B

189
Q
  1. A 23-year-old male reports a rash and pruritus. An increase in _____ is associated with
    pruritus?

a. Substance P
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine

A

ANS: D

190
Q
  1. A 19-year-old female developed a circular, demarcated, and salmon-pink lesion. Two weeks
    later she developed more lesions over the trunk and upper part of the extremities. The diagnosis
    is pityriasis rosea, and the nurse knows the disorder is caused by a:

a. Parasite
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus

A

ANS: B

191
Q
  1. A 12-year-old female visits her primary care provider to obtain acne medication for recurrent
    acne vulgaris. This condition is an inflammatory disorder of the:

a. Apocrine glands
b. Pilosebaceous follicle
c. Dermal layer
d. Eccrine gland

A

ANS: B

192
Q
  1. A 42-year-old female presents with raised red lesions with a brownish scale. She was
    diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus. A clinician recalls this disorder is related to:

a. Infection
b. Trauma
c. Autoimmunity
d. Cancer

A

ANS: C

193
Q
  1. In discoid lupus erythematosus, skin lesions may be accompanied by Raynaud phenomenon,
    which is manifested by:

a. Bone deformities
b. Vasospasm in the extremities
c. Arterial aneurysms
d. Venous thrombus

A

ANS: B

194
Q
  1. A 45-year-old male presents with a chronic blister-forming disease of the skin and oral
    mucous membranes. The nurse would recognize this condition as:

a. Lupus erythematosus
b. Pemphigus
c. Psoriasis
d. Eczema

A

ANS: B

195
Q
  1. A 9-year-old male presents with severe erythematous bullous lesions that are believed to be
    an adverse response to a medication. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Pemphigus
b. Acne vulgaris
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

ANS: D

196
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive
    drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had
    chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken
    pox history?

a. Erysipelas
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Warts
d. Herpes zoster

A

ANS: D

197
Q
  1. Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a _____ infection of the skin.

a. Nematode
b. Fungal
c. Viral
d. Bacterial

A

ANS: B

198
Q
  1. A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal itch and thin-walled pustular lesions. She is
    diagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by a:

a. Yeast
b. Virus
c. Bacterium
d. Fungus

A

ANS: A

199
Q
  1. For a patient with candidiasis, which factor will exacerbate the condition?

a. Poor hygiene
b. Older age
c. Systemic antibiotics
d. Anemia

A

ANS: C

200
Q
  1. A 10-year-old male is given penicillin for an infection. He has an allergic reaction, during
    which he develops urticarial lesions. These lesions are mediated by the release of:

a. Beta-adrenergic agonists
b. Histamine
c. Calcium
d. Cortisol

A

ANS: B

201
Q
  1. When assessing a patient with scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed?

a. Thinning
b. Hyperpigmented
c. Necrosis
d. Hardening

A

ANS: D

202
Q
  1. A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with scleroderma. Which complication leads to ulcer
    formation?

a. Cutaneous vasculitis
b. Raynaud phenomenon
c. Cellulitis
d. Infection

A

ANS: B

203
Q
  1. What of the following behavior in the patient with scleroderma would cause the nurse
    concern?

a. Wears mittens on cold days
b. Smokes a few cigarettes a day
c. Applies lotion daily
d. Seeks warmer environments

A

ANS: B

204
Q
  1. A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her
    primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to
    transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as:

a. Macules
b. Nevi
c. Plaques
d. Keloids

A

ANS: B

205
Q
  1. A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct
    response is:

a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Kaposi sarcoma (KS)
d. Malignant melanoma

A

ANS: D

206
Q
  1. A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with skin cancer. Her primary care provider explains that
    the most important risk factor for skin cancer is:

a. Amount of direct sun exposure at a young age
b. Amount of sun exposure over age 50
c. Lifetime amount of sun exposure
d. Living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense

A

ANS: A

207
Q
  1. A 27-year-old male lung transplant patient developed KS. He tells the nurse he thought only
    people with AIDS developed this type of cancer. The nurse knows that the cause of this patients
    KS is most likely related to the fact that the patient:

a. Is malnourished
b. Was exposed to hepatitis B
c. Is immunosuppressed
d. Is diabetic

A

ANS: C

Patho Final (4 decks)

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