Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT-Basic > Chapter7 quiz > Flashcards

Chapter7 quiz Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
0
Q 
Involuntary or smooth muscles are found on which one of the following structures?
A) Heart and blood vessels 
B) Muscles of the arms and legs 
C) Central nervous system 
D) Blood vessels and intestines
A

D) Blood vessels and intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q 
In which of the following respiratory structures would an occlusion cause total cessation of air flow into and out of the lungs?
A) Right bronchi 
B) Trachea 
C) Esophagus 
D) Nasopharynx
A

B) Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs?
A) Retraction 
B) Expansion 
C) Exhalation 
D) Inhalation
A

C) Exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
The bones of the upper extremities include:
A) humerus and radius. 
B) radius, ulna, and tarsals. 
C) phalanges and tibia. 
D) humerus and calcaneus.
A

A) humerus and radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
A patient complains of pain to the upper jaw. This would be documented as pain in the:
A) zygoma. 
B) mandible. 
C) maxilla. 
D) mastoid.
A

C) maxilla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
The segment of the spinal column that forms the posterior pelvis is the:
A) sacral vertebrae. 
B) lumbar segment. 
C) cervical vertebrae. 
D) thoracic spine.
A

A) sacral vertebrae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
A female patient suffers from a muscular disease and cannot walk, thus requiring a wheelchair. Because she cannot ambulate, you would recognize that the muscles affected are:
A) voluntary. 
B) involuntary. 
C) cardiac. 
D) smooth.
A

A) voluntary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient informs you that he injured a tendon in his knee three years ago and has had a difficult time walking since. You recognize that this injury involves a structure that:
A) holds and secures the bones of the knee.
B) connects muscles to the knee.
C) attaches a ligament to the knee.
D) connects the muscles surrounding the knee.

A

B) connects muscles to the knee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
What is the function of the respiratory system?
A) Transport oxygen throughout the body 
B) Provide nutrients to the cells 
C) Provide the body with oxygen 
D) Release oxygen from the body
A

C) Provide the body with oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which one of the following best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs?
A) Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx
B) Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli
C) Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
D) Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

A

C) Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The alveoli of a patient’s lungs are filled with fluid and pus secondary to pneumonia. For which of the following is the patient at risk?
A) Collapse of the trachea and bronchi
B) Decreased movement of the diaphragm
C) Decreased absorption of oxygen into the body
D) Decreased movement of air into the lungs

A

C) Decreased absorption of oxygen into the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Which action produces inhalation?
A) Intercostal muscles relax. 
B) Pressure in the chest increases. 
C) Diaphragm contracts. 
D) Chest cavity decreases in size.
A

C) Diaphragm contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The pediatric airway differs from the adult airway in that:
A) the epiglottis is smaller and located behind the esophagus.
B) all respiratory structures are proportionally smaller and more easily obstructed.
C) the trachea is highly rigid and less flexible to movement.
D) the child’s tongue takes up proportionately more space in the mouth.

A

D) the child’s tongue takes up proportionately more space in the

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
As you arrive on scene, an Emergency Medical Responder informs you that the patient has agonal respirations. By this description, you would expect the patient's breathing to be:
A) deep and fast. 
B) deep and gasping. 
C) irregular and shallow. 
D) rapid and shallow.
A

B) deep and gasping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
A patient has fractured bones in his left leg. Which of the following could be broken?
A) Acetabulum, calcaneus, or carpals 
B) Orbit, lumbar, or shin 
C) Femur, tibia, or fibula 
D) Radius, ulna, humerus, or carpals
A

C) Femur, tibia, or fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the function of the skin, which condition is he more susceptible to?
A) Fluid overload 
B) Heart problems 
C) Infection 
D) Endocrine disorders
A

C) Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

You have been called to transport a patient who is suffering from an illness that has impaired the ability of the involuntary muscles to contract. Which of the following conditions would you expect?
A) Difficulty in maintaining an upright posture
B) Decreased movement of wastes through the large intestine
C) Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure
D) Difficulty in walking and grasping objects with his hands

A

B) Decreased movement of wastes through the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
A patient has severe swelling of the leaf-shaped flap that helps to prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system. Knowing that the suffix "itis" refers to inflammation, which one of the following conditions is the patient suffering from?
A) Bronchitis 
B) Pharyngitis 
C) Tracheitis 
D) Epiglottitis
A

D) Epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
The structure containing a person's "voice box" is termed the:
A) larynx. 
B) sternum. 
C) trachea. 
D) pharynx.
A

A) larynx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Which one of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A) Producing blood cells 
B) Securing the abdominal organs 
C) Forming the vital organs of the body 
D) Providing structure to blood vessels
A

A) Producing blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Which of the following is the vessel that carries oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium?
A) Aorta 
B) Posterior tibial 
C) Internal jugular 
D) Vena cava
A

D) Vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
As a patient provides you with her past medical history, which one of the following should you recognize as directly related to the endocrine system?
A) Removal of the thyroid 
B) Failure of the kidneys 
C) Failure of the appendix 
D) Removal of the gallbladder
A

A) Removal of the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
A patient's blood glucose (sugar) level begins to drop. Which one of the following organs would be affected first?
A) Heart 
B) Muscles 
C) Brain 
D) Spleen
A

C) Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
The nervous system is subdivided into the:
A) central and peripheral systems. 
B) skull and vertebral column. 
C) involuntary and voluntary. 
D) brain and vertebral column.
A

A) central and peripheral systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Acrocyanosis is best described as a bluish discoloration of the patient's:
A) extremities. 
B) chest. 
C) abdomen. 
D) head.
A

A) extremities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
A patient has taken a medication that increases the activity of his sympathetic nervous system. Which one of the following signs and symptoms would the EMT expect to find?
A) Dry and flushed skin 
B) Low blood pressure 
C) Decreased heart rate 
D) Dilated pupils
A

D) Dilated pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
What is the major artery of the thigh called?
A) Carotid artery 
B) Brachial artery 
C) Radial artery 
D) Femoral artery
A

D) Femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
The left side of a patient's heart is in severe failure, causing blood to back up behind it. What sign or symptom are you most likely to observe?
A) Bone pain in the legs 
B) Decreased respirations 
C) Swelling in the feet 
D) Crackles in the lungs
A

D) Crackles in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Which portion of the heart is in failure when it can no longer effectively pump blood into the lungs?
A) Right ventricle 
B) Pulmonary vein 
C) Left ventricle 
D) Left atrium
A

A) Right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
In the healthy heart, the electrical impulses that cause contraction of the cardiac muscle are initiated in the:
A) sinoatrial node. 
B) left atrium. 
C) ventricles. 
D) bundle branches.
A

A) sinoatrial node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The spinal column is composed of what sections as described from superior to inferior?
A) Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
B) Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
C) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
D) Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral

A

C) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
What body system protects internal organs and provides for movement?
A) Musculoskeletal 
B) Immune 
C) Nervous 
D) Endocrine
A

A) Musculoskeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
A patient has suffered a stroke and injury to his brainstem. Which one of the following signs and symptoms might the EMT expect to see as a result of this condition?
A) Muscle spasms 
B) Abnormal respirations 
C) Confusion 
D) Blindness
A

B) Abnormal respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
Assessment of an elderly male shows him to be confused. His family states that this is normal for him because he has a disease of his brain that has affected his ability to remember things. Based on this information, in what area of the brain is this disease located?
A) Pons 
B) Brainstem 
C) Cerebellum 
D) Cerebrum
A

D) Cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
The pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries as the left ventricle contracts is called:
A) osmotic. 
B) arterial. 
C) diastolic. 
D) systolic.
A

D) systolic.

35
Q 
Which one of the following is the fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients?
A) Plasma 
B) Hemoglobin 
C) Total body water 
D) Platelet fluid
A

A) Plasma

36
Q 
You are assessing a patient who informs you that her body abnormally forms blood clots, even when they are not needed to stop bleeding. Which one of the following conditions should you expect the patient to have?
A) Decreased clotting factors 
B) Elevated number of platelets 
C) High white blood cell counts 
D) Low red blood cell numbers
A

B) Elevated number of platelets

37
Q 
Following radiation therapy for breast cancer, a female has a low white blood cell count. What condition does this place her at risk to acquire?
A) Bleeding 
B) Infection 
C) Low blood pressure 
D) Hypoxia
A

B) Infection

38
Q 
A patient is experiencing the backup of blood and fluid in her lung tissue. Failure of which one of the heart's valves is likely responsible for this condition?
A) Mitral 
B) Tricuspid 
C) Pulmonary 
D) Right
A

A) Mitral

39
Q 
A patient is complaining of extreme dizziness and headache. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for this complaint?
A) Rupture of the radial vein 
B) Occlusion of the popliteal vein 
C) Clot in the abdominal aorta 
D) Occlusion of the carotid arteries
A

D) Occlusion of the carotid arteries

40
Q 
When palpating a pulse on top of the foot, the EMT is assessing blood flow in what vessel?
A) Coronary artery 
B) Femoral vein 
C) Dorsalis pedis artery 
D) Posterior tibial vein
A

C) Dorsalis pedis artery

41
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true?
A) The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin.
B) The skin contains four layers: epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layer.
C) The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.
D) The skin protects the body against bacteria and other organisms.

A

D) The skin protects the body against bacteria and other organisms.

42
Q

A patient who has had both her thyroid and parathyroid glands removed would most likely have difficulty with which one of the following?
A) Producing hormones that govern sex characteristics
B) Maintaining an adequate blood pressure
C) Regulating blood sugar
D) Maintaining strong and healthy bones

A

D) Maintaining strong and healthy bones

43
Q

The left atrium:
A) receives blood from the pulmonary veins.
B) pumps blood to the lungs.
C) pumps blood to the body.
D) receives blood from the veins of the body.

A

A) receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

44
Q 
The EMT shows correct understanding of the circulatory system when he identifies the primary function of the heart as:
A) transferring oxygen to the cells. 
B) pumping blood throughout the body. 
C) oxygenating blood in the lungs. 
D) maintaining the volume of blood.
A

B) pumping blood throughout the body.

45
Q 
A tachypneic patient is breathing:
A) rapidly. 
B) normally. 
C) slowly. 
D) irregularly.
A

A) rapidly.

46
Q 
Which one of the following describes the elbow?
A) Tibial 
B) Calcaneal 
C)Acetabular 
D) Cubital
A

D) Cubital

47
Q 
A patient described as dysphagic presents as:
A) having difficulty swallowing. 
B) being unable to speak. 
C) exhibiting a painful cough. 
D) having a hard time breathing.
A

A) having difficulty swallowing.

48
Q 
A patient has a total occlusion of the left femoral artery. Regarding this condition, which of the following might the EMT expect to find?
A) Difficulty moving the left arm 
B) Pale skin to the left foot 
C) Swelling in the legs 
D) Decreased radial pulse
A

B) Pale skin to the left foot

49
Q 
A patient with dentalgia is suffering from a(n):
A) inflammation of the tongue. 
B) throat infection. 
C) painful tooth. 
D) sinus infection.
A

C) painful tooth.

50
Q 
Pain that is documented as caustic is described by the patient as:
A) stabbing. 
B) burning. 
C) achy. 
D) sharp.
A

B) burning.

51
Q 
A patient with kidney failure has lost his ability to:
A) filter and excrete wastes. 
B) digest fatty foods. 
C) produce all hormones. 
D) absorb nutrients.
A

A) filter and excrete wastes.

52
Q 
A patient informs you that he must sprinkle artificial digestive enzymes on all of his foods before eating them. Based on this, which one of the following organs should you assume is dysfunctional?
A) Pancreas 
B) Adrenal glands 
C) Spleen 
D) Small intestine
A

A) Pancreas

53
Q

A patient with bronchitis is suffering from:
A) infection of the alveoli.
B) accumulation of mucus in the trachea.
C) inflammation of the bronchioles.
D) fluid in the trachea and bronchioles.

A

C) inflammation of the bronchioles.

54
Q 
You are using cryotherapy to treat a deformed and painful ankle. This involves the use of:
A) heat. 
B) compression. 
C) massage. 
D) ice.
A

D) ice.

55
Q

A patient informs you that he has had his gallbladder surgically removed. Based on the physiology of the gallbladder, which one of the following is true?
A) He must avoid meals high in complex carbohydrates.
B) He will be more prone to gastric ulcers.
C) He may have difficulty digesting large amounts of fats.
D) He cannot store glycogen produced by the liver.

A

C) He may have difficulty digesting large amounts of fats.

56
Q 
Which one of the following should the EMT expect when administering epinephrine to a patient?
A) Labored breathing 
B) Generalized weakness 
C) Increased blood pressure 
D) Slowing of the heart rate
A

C) Increased blood pressure

57
Q 
Which one of the following is a beta1 sympathetic (adrenergic) effect?
A) Vasodilation 
B) Vasoconstriction 
C) Bronchodilation 
D) Increased heart rate
A

D) Increased heart rate

58
Q 
An abrasion affects which part of the skin?
A) Epidermal and dermal layers 
B) Dermal and subcutaneous layers 
C) Epidermis 
D) Dermal layer
A

A) Epidermal and dermal layers

59
Q 
An asthmatic is short of breath because her small airways are constricted. For this patient, the best medication is one that contains what sympathetic (adrenergic) properties?
A) alpha-2 
B) alpha-1 
C) beta-2 
D) beta-1
A

C) beta-2

60
Q

Which one of the following best describes the difference between cardiac and smooth muscle?
A) Cardiac muscle does not need a blood supply; smooth muscle does.
B) Cardiac muscle relies on an electrical impulse to be stimulated; smooth muscle does not.
C) Cardiac muscle can generate an electrical impulse; smooth muscle cannot.
D) Cardiac muscle is able to extend; smooth muscle can only contract.

A

C) Cardiac muscle can generate an electrical impulse; smooth muscle cannot.

61
Q 
Knowing that muscular dystrophy affects the voluntary muscles, which one of the following patient problems should you expect to be a direct effect of the disease?
A) Vasodilation 
B) Slow heart rate 
C) Inability to walk 
D) Constipation
A

C) Inability to walk

62
Q 
A patellar fracture affects which part of the body?
A) Hip 
B) Elbow 
C) Knee 
D) Tibia
A

C) Knee

63
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the endocrine system is true?
A) It is a system of glands that regulates consciousness.
B) It is a system of glands that releases hormones via ducts into the bloodstream.
C) It includes the thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, and salivary glands.
D) It is made up of several glands whose secretions cause specific actions in specific organs.

A

D) It is made up of several glands whose secretions cause specific actions in specific organs.

64
Q 
Assessment of a patient involved in a motor vehicle collision reveals tenderness over ribs 9–12 on the lateral right side. Based on this injury, which one of the following is your immediate concern?
A) Damage to the heart 
B) Damage to the false ribs 
C) Pain from possible rib fractures 
D) Injury to the liver
A

D) Injury to the liver

65
Q 
Which plane would show the liver, stomach, and spleen?
A) Abdominal plane 
B) Transverse plane 
C) Midline plane 
D) Sagittal plane
A

B) Transverse plane

66
Q

Degenerative disk disease is characterized by which one of the following?
A) Arthritis of the spinal joints
B) Breakdown of the pads between the vertebrae
C) Degeneration of the vertebral bone structure
D) Narrowing of the spinal canal

A

B) Breakdown of the pads between the vertebrae

67
Q 
A patient experiencing thoracic spine pain has pain in his:
A) tailbone. 
B) upper back. 
C) lower back. 
D) neck.
A

B) upper back.

68
Q 
Nephritis indicates what kind of infection?
A) Bladder 
B) Kidney 
C) Digestive 
D) Urinary tract
A

B) Kidney

69
Q 
A patient suffering an orbital fracture is most likely to complain of:
A) pain when moving his lower jaw. 
B) difficulty swallowing. 
C) pain around the eye. 
D) pain around the ear.
A

C) pain around the eye.

70
Q 
An enlarged liver is best documented as:
A) hepatomegaly. 
B) hepatitis. 
C) gastric distention. 
D) ascites.
A

A) hepatomegaly.

71
Q

An 89-year-old female patient has fallen in her living room and has pain in her left hip. As you approach, you note that she is on her back with her left leg turned inward. When relaying this information to the receiving hospital, which of the following statements would you make regarding her position?
A) Supine with left rotation of the right leg
B) Supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity
C) Lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg
D) Supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity

A

B) Supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity

72
Q 
A patient with a calcaneal fracture has a broken:
A) foot. 
B) thigh. 
C) knee. 
D) heel.
A

D) heel.

73
Q 
Which line divides the body into right and left halves?
A) Midclavicular line 
B) Midaxillary line 
C) Midline 
D) Anterior axillary line
A

C) Midline

74
Q

Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?
A) Prone position with arms upward and palms facing upward
B) Upright and facing backward with the arms raised and legs straight
C) Supine position with arms at the side and palms facing downward
D) Standing with the arms down at the side and palms facing forward

A

D) Standing with the arms down at the side and palms facing forward

75
Q 
Another EMT informs you that a patient has been stabbed once with a knife in the left midaxillary region. Where is this injury located?
A) Left lateral chest 
B) Left side of the abdomen 
C) Left shoulder 
D) Left chest
A

A) Left lateral chest

76
Q 
A patient suffering a carpal fracture would most likely complain of pain in her:
A) wrist. 
B) elbow. 
C) ankle. 
D) knee.
A

A) wrist.

77
Q 
In which one of the following body systems are the thyroid glands, adrenal glands, pituitary glands, and gonads located?
A) Nervous 
B) Endocrine 
C) Hormonal 
D) Respiratory
A

B) Endocrine

78
Q 
The terms occipital, parietal, and frontal refer to which part of the body?
A) Cranium 
B) Spine 
C) Pelvis 
D) Chest
A

A) Cranium

79
Q 
Which of the following anatomical statements is true?
A) The hip is distal to the knee. 
B) The shoulder is distal to the hand. 
C) The knee is proximal to the ankle. 
D) The hand is proximal to the elbow.
A

C) The knee is proximal to the ankle.

80
Q 
After you apply and use the automated external defibrillator, a patient regains his pulse and has adequate respirations. The paramedic asks you to place the patient in a lateral recumbent position. How should you position this patient?
A) On his left side 
B) On his back 
C) On his stomach 
D) Supine with head turned left
A

A) On his left side

81
Q 
A paramedic tells you that a patient with a probable spinal injury still retains his plantar reflexes. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should understand that the patient has reflex activity in what part of the body?
A) Fingers 
B) Feet 
C) Arms 
D) Hands
A

B) Feet

82
Q 
You are assessing a patient with an obvious left midshaft femur fracture. The most immediate threat to this patient's well-being is:
A) pain. 
B) blood loss. 
C) nerve damage. 
D) infection.
A

B) blood loss.

83
Q

A female patient has suffered a stroke to the right side of her brain and has paralysis to the contralateral portion of the body. Which one of the following is true?
A) Her left and right legs are paralyzed.
B) She cannot move her arms or legs.
C) She cannot move her left arm and leg.
D) She is paralyzed on the right side of her body.

A

C) She cannot move her left arm and leg.

84
Q 
A 23-year-old male has been shot with a rifle. The bullet entered his chest just above the left nipple and exited his body just left of his lumbar spine. Proper documentation of this injury would include which of the following?
A) Exit wound to the posterior torso 
B) Entry wound to the abdomen 
C) Exit wound to the posterior thorax 
D) Entry wound to anterior thorax
A

D) Entry wound to anterior thorax

85
Q 
Emergency Medical Responders inform you that a 73-year-old female has fallen and has a hematoma to the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find the injury in which area of the head?
A) Front 
B) Side
C) Back 
D) Top
A

C) Back

EMT-Basic (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions