Chapter Three-Diseases and Disorders Flashcards

0
Q

Pathologic

A

Abnormal or diseased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Disease

A

Abnormal function of a body part or system due to hereditary, infectious, dietary, environmental, or other causes and characterized by a certain set of signs and symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Etiology

A

Literally, the study of the causes of a disease; informally, the causes themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cells

A

The primary building blocks of biologic tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Microorganism

A

An extremely small life form invisible to the unaided eye. Also called microbe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Virus

A

A microorganism smaller than the smallest bacterium that has no cellular structure and can cays infectious disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Infection

A

The invasion and multiplication of harmful microorganisms in the body tissues; a local bacterial or fungal infection begins in the tissues immediately surrounding the microorganism’s point of entry; if unchecked, the infection may spread to surrounding tissues, thereby becoming diffuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inflammation

A

A local protective tissue response to infection, injury or irritation in which specialized cells move to the affected area; characterized by redness, swelling, warmth, and pain in the inflamed area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute

A

Refers to a condition that flares up suddenly and persists for only a short time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chronic

A

Refers to a condition that has persisted for some time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Immune Reaction

A

The body’s response to infection, in which antibodies are manufactured to neutralize the infecting microorganism and perhaps prevent recurrence of the infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antibody

A

A chemical substance that the body manufactures to neutralize an infecting microorganism, toxin, or foreign agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Allergic Reaction

A

A condition in which the body produces antibodies to foreign materials such as food, plant pollens, or medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ischemia

A

A condition in which the supply of blood to a part of the body is severely reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Occluded

A

Totally obstructed or blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hypoxia

A

A loss of oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Metabolism

A

The physical and chemical processes by which the body converts food into energy and new body tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enzymes

A

Substance produced by cells to accelerate or promote a biochemical reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hormones

A

Regulating substances produced by various endocrine glands (such as the thyroid, pituitary, and adrenal), and transported by the blood to targeted organs to initiate a specific reaction or effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

The disease complex caused by excessive secretion of thyroid hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cushing Disease

A

The disease complex caused by excessive secretion of the adrenal hormone cortisol. Predominately found in women. Also known as hypercortisolism or Cushing syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Diabetes Mellitus

A

A disorder of metabolism resulting from insufficient or absent insulin production from the pancreas; may also be due to insulin resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Insulin

A

A hormone of the body that regulates sugar metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Congenital

A

Refers to any disease process or effect that is present from birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Genetic

A

Refers to a trait that is inherited from either or both parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Degenerative

A

Refers to any process in which the structure or function of body tissues gradually deteriorates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Neoplasm

A

A new growth of different or abnormal tissue, such as a tumor or wart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Benign

A

Refers to any tumor that is not dangerous to the well-being of the individual. Also known as nonmalignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Malignant

A

Term used to describe a condition that tends to become worse and to cause severe problems or death; malignant myopia refers to am unusually severe myopia that causes other progressive problems; a malignant skin lesion is one that is cancerous with the potential to spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Metastasize

A

The transfer of disease from one organ or part to another not directly connected, forming a new distant location of that disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Trauma

A

Physical injury to body tissue from various causes, including force, toxins, or temperature extremes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Toxin

A

A poison.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Thermal Trauma

A

Refers to injury that results in the burning or freezing of tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chemical Trauma

A

Refers to injury caused by a chemical, such as an acid or an alkali.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Symptom

A

A subjective abnormality that cannot be directly observed by another person but only perceived by the patient; examples include pain, blurred vision, or itching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sign

A

An abnormal change observed objectively by the physician on examination of the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Syndrome

A

A set of signs or symptoms that is characteristic of a specific condition or disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Proptosis/Exopthalmos

A

A condition characterized by a protruding eyeball; caused by an increase in volume of the orbital contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Graves Disease

A

A condition of unknown origin that involves the thyroid gland and causes soft tissues surrounding the globe to swell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Unilateral Proptosis

A

The forward protrusion of one eyeball from the eye socket.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hemorrhage

A

Rapid loss of a large amount of blood from a damaged blood vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Edema

A

Swelling caused by the abnormal presence of fluid in tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Orbital Cellulitis

A

A diffuse infection of tissues in the orbit, causing grossly swollen eyelids and red eye, sometimes without proptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sinus

A

A bony cavern of the skull that contains air and connects with the nasal passages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Blowout Fracture

A

An injury caused blunt force applied to the eye, creating pressure that fractures the orbital bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Strabismus

A

A misalignment of the eyes that may cause vision to be disturbed; occurs when the extraocular muscles do not work in a coordinated manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Diplopia

A

Double vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Exo Deviation

A

The outward deviation of the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Eso Deviation

A

The inward deviation of the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tropia

A

An obvious (manifest) misalignment of the eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phoria

A

A tendency toward ocular misalignment that is held in check by the fusional effort of the extraocular muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Stereopsis

A

Three-dimensional visual perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Suppression

A

The brain’s mechanism to avoid double vision by ignoring the image from one eye. This can lead to amblyopia if not treated. The brain loses this ability after childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Amblyopia

A

Decreased vision perception without apparent abnormalities in the ocular anatomy and uncorrectable by spectacle or contact lenses; results from visual deprivation in early childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nystagmus

A

A condition in which the eyes continually shift in a rhythmic, side-to-side, up-and-down, or rotary motion and then snap back to the normal position.

55
Q

Abscess

A

A localized collection of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue.

56
Q

Stye/External Hordeolum

A

An infection or inflammation of a Zeis gland located on the eyelid margin in a lash follicle.

57
Q

Incise

A

To make a deliberate and controlled cut into body tissue.

58
Q

Internal Hordeolum

A

An acute infection of a meibomian gland in the eyelid; when chronic, the condition is called a chalazion.

59
Q

Granulomatous

A

A term used to describe a mass lesion resembling a granuloma.

60
Q

Chalazion

A

A chronic inflammation resulting from an obstructed meibomian gland, in the eyelid; associated with infection.

61
Q

Blepharitis

A

A common inflammation of the eyelid margin.

62
Q

Ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid most commonly caused by the levator muscle’s inability to lift the eyelid to its full extent. May be congenital or acquired.

63
Q

Oculomotor Nerve

A

The third cranial nerve, which supplies the impulses that activate the superior, medial, and inferior rectus muscles, the inferior oblique muscle and the levator palpebrae.

64
Q

Ectropion

A

A condition in which the eyelid margin is everted (turned) outward from the globe; may be degeneration of or damage to the eyelid tissues.

65
Q

Entropion

A

A condition in which the upper or lower lid margin is turned inward.

66
Q

Trichiasis

A

An abnormality of the eyelid margin of the eyelid that causes eyelashes to turn in the wrong direction and rub against the surface of the eye.

67
Q

Lagophthalmos

A

A condition in which the globe is not completely covered when the eyelids are closed; may be caused by facial-nerve paralysis or by an enlarged or protruding eye.

68
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

The most common malignant lid tumor; has a characteristic appearance of a pit surrounded by raised “pearly edges.”

69
Q

Dacryocystitis

A

Inflammation of the lacrimal sac; usually caused by blockage or obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct.

70
Q

Keratoconjunctuvitis Sicca

A

Inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva caused by dry eye.

71
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

An inflammation of the conjunctiva that causes swelling of the small conjunctival vessels, making the eye appear red; it may be caused by bacterial or viral infection, allergy, or exposure to environmental agents such as. Hole instead swimming pool water. Also known as pink eye.

72
Q

Mucopurulent Discharge

A

A thick fluid containing mucus and pus; symptomatic of bacterial infection.

73
Q

Topical Application

A

A route of drug administration in which the medication is applied to the surface of the eye or another body part; topically applied medications may be in form of liquids, gels, or ointments.

74
Q

Ophthalmia Neonaturum

A

Conjunctivitis in the newborn.

75
Q

Subconjunctival Hemmorhages

A

A rupture of a conjunctival blood vessel that allows blood to flow under the tissue and produces a bright-red flat area on the conjunctiva.

76
Q

Pinguecula

A

A thickened, benign, yellowish area of the bulbar conjunctiva on the temporal or nasal side of the cornea in the exposed portion of the eyeball. May precede pterygium.

77
Q

Pterygium

A

A lesion of hypertrophied tissue that extends from the medial canthus onto the cornea.

78
Q

Nevi

A

Literally, freckles; common tumors involving the retina, bulbar conjunctiva, and skin, and appearing as yellowish pink or brown area.

79
Q

Keratitis

A

Inflammation of the cornea.

80
Q

Abrasion

A

A scratch.

81
Q

Laceration

A

A traumatic cut.

82
Q

Lesions

A

An abnormal tissue or break in a normal tissue.

83
Q

Corneal Ulcer

A

Pathological condition involving a defect in the corneal surface and associated with inflammation; infectious ulcers are caused by a pathogenic microorganism.

84
Q

Hypopyon

A

The accumulation of pus (white blood cells) in the anterior chamber.

85
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1

A

A herpesvirus that causes recurrent fever blisters on the lips and mouth and, if introduced to the eye, causes keratitis.

86
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2

A

Similar to type 1, except that it more commonly infects the genital region and is spread by sexual contact.

87
Q

Dendritic

A

Branch-shaped, such as the corneal ulcers seen after an infection with the herpes simplex virus.

88
Q

Arcus Senilis

A

A common degenerative change in which the outer edge of the cornea gradually becomes opaque, generally in both eyes; usually affects people over the age of 50.

89
Q

Keratoconus

A

A rare degenerative corneal disease in which the center of the cornea thins and assumes the shape of a cone, seriously affecting vision.

90
Q

Scleritis

A

Inflammation of the sclera.

91
Q

Episcleritis

A

Inflammation of the surface layer of the sclera.

92
Q

Hyphema

A

The pooling of blood in the anterior chamber as a result of trauma or certain diseases.

93
Q

Glaucoma

A

An eye disease in which the intraocular pressure is high enough to cause damage to the optic nerve, resulting in visual loss; caused by impaired drainage of the aqueous fluid out of the eye.

94
Q

Intraocular Pressure

A

Fluid pressure within the eye.

95
Q

Visual Field

A

The full view seen by an eye that is fixating straight ahead.

96
Q

Pachymeter

A

An instrument that measures the distance between the corneal epithelium and the corneal endothelium (corneal thickness).

97
Q

Primary open-angle glaucoma

A

A form of glaucoma in which the pressure inside the eye is elevated because of increased resistance to aqueous drainage in the outflow channels; accounts for 60% to 90% of all adult glaucoma.

98
Q

Primary angle-closure glaucoma

A

A form of glaucoma associated with a structural abnormality of the eye resulting in a shallow anterior chamber angle; also as the lens increases in size with aging, it blocks the flow of aqueous through the pupil, gradually causing the iris to bow forward until its outer edge blocks the aqueous outflow channels (pupillary block).

99
Q

Secondary glaucoma

A

Glaucoma that occurs secondary to another, primary disease.

100
Q

Congenital glaucoma

A

A rare disease that occurs in infants; due to a malformation of the anterior chamber angle.

101
Q

Iritis

A

Inflammation of the iris.

102
Q

Neovascularization

A

The abnormal growth of new blood vessels.

103
Q

Rubeosis iridis

A

A condition in which the iris develops a reddish color due to neovascularization.

104
Q

Aniscoria

A

A condition in which the pupils are of unequal size.

105
Q

Presbyopia

A

The progressive loss of the accommodative ability of the lens, due to natural process of aging.

106
Q

Cataract

A

An opacified or clouded lens.

107
Q

Aphakia

A

The absence of the crystalline lens, usually because of cataract extraction.

108
Q

Aphakic correction

A

The absence of the crystalline lens, eyeglasses, or an intraocular lens to improve visual acuity in aphakic patients.

109
Q

Pseudophakia

A

The use of an intraocular lens to correct the vision of an aphakic patient.

110
Q

Floaters

A

Small particles of dead cells or other debris that become suspended in the vitreous, or particles of the vitreous itself that degenerate in the normal aging process; they cast shadows on the retina and appear as spots or cobwebs.

111
Q

Endophthalmitis

A

A serious inflammation of the intraocular tissues including the vitreous; may be due to bacterial or fungal infection, allergy, or chemical toxicity.

112
Q

Posterior vitrectomy

A

The surgical removal of some or most of the vitreous.

113
Q

Retinal Detachment

A

The separation of the sensory layer from the pigment layer of the retina; may be abbreviated RD. There are 3 causes: rhegmatogenous (tear or hole), traction (pulling off by scar tissue), and exudative (fluid accumulation).

114
Q

Cryopexy

A

Freezing by surgical means.

115
Q

Photocoagulation

A

Use of xenon or laser light beam to destroy tissues; among other uses, it is often used to treat abnormal leaking blood vessels (neovascularization) or to “weld” a retinal tear.

116
Q

Pneumatoretinopexy

A

A surgical procedure for correcting retinal detachment by injecting gas into the eye.

117
Q

Scleral Buckle

A

A surgical procedure for correcting retinal detachment that involves placing a block of silicone or other material on the sclera to indent the wall of the eye.

118
Q

Diabetic Retinopathy

A

Pathologic changes in the retina; usually occurs in patients with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes.

119
Q

Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy

A

Abnormal changes in the retina due to poorly controlled diabetes Mellitus, manifested by the presence of hemorrhages, exudates, microaneurysms, and neovascularization. This is a more advanced stage of diabetic retinopathy.

120
Q

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

A

An infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes a compromised immune system.

121
Q

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A

A retrovirus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a disorder of the immune system that increases the patient’s susceptibility to infections such as cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis.

122
Q

Age-Related Macular Degeneration

A

A disease in which sensory cells of the macula degenerate, resulting in a loss of central vision; usually affects older people.

123
Q

Drusen

A

Light-yellow deposits beneath the retinal pigment epithelium, visible on examination of the ocular fundus.

124
Q

Atrophic

A

Loss of tissue or cellular density.

125
Q

Neovascular Net/Choroidal Neovascularization

A

An abnormal collection of fragile new blood vessels growing in the choroid under the retina, responsible for hemorrhages and fluid leakage, which can lead to loss of central vision when present in or near the macula.

126
Q

Laser Photocoagulation

A

Use of a xenon or laser light beam to destroy tissue; among other uses, it is often used to treat abnormal leaking blood vessels (neovascularization) or to “weld” a retinal tear.

127
Q

Photodynamic Therapy (PDT)

A

A treatment intended to reduce further vision loss from the “wet” form of age-related macular degeneration (AMD); the patient receives an intravenous injection of a light-sensitive substance, verteporfin (Visudyne), followed by “cold” laser stimulation of the verteporfin in the areas of choroidal neovascularization, causing selective damage to the abnormal tissue.

128
Q

Anti-Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (Anti-VEGF)

A

A therapeutic drug used in intravitreal injections that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). It acts by diminishing the stimulus for abnormal new vessel growth (angiogenesis), a known cause of wet age-related macular degeneration.

129
Q

Retinitis Pigmentosa

A

A hereditary, progressive retinal degeneration that may lead to blindness.

130
Q

Vascular Occlusions

A

The obstruction of blood flow in a bleed vessel.

131
Q

Hypoxia

A

A loss of oxygen.

132
Q

Intracranial

A

The cavity in the skull that houses the brain.

133
Q

Papilledema

A

A swelling of the optic disc with engorged blood vessels; caused by increased fluid pressure within the skull.

134
Q

Optic Neuritis

A

Inflammation of the optic nerve; can produce a sudden, but reversible, loss of sight.

135
Q

Anterior Ischemic Optic Neuropathy

A

Insufficient blood flow to the optic nerve head resulting in a lack of oxygen and subsequent infarction of (loss of) the nerve fibers and loss of vision.