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FORENSIC 5 - Lie Detection Techniques > Chapter IV, V > Flashcards

Chapter IV, V Flashcards

1
Q

It is an instrument that measures and records several physiological responses. This instrument does not detect lies. It can only detect whether deceptive behavior is being displayed.

A

polygraph

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2
Q

This instrument is carefully and accurately engineered for recording changes in the blood pressure, pulse, respiration and skin conductivity while the subject is asked and answers a series of questions, on the basis that false answers will produce distinctive measurements.

A

polygraph

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3
Q

The _________________ will reveal attempted deception as shown by physiological changes that are recorded reliably.

A

polygraph chart tracing

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4
Q

The polygraph measures _____________ caused by the sympathetic nervous system during questioning.

A

physiological changes

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5
Q

Today, polygraph examiners use two types of instrumentation: __________ and ______________.

A

analog; computerized

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6
Q

In the United States, most examiners now use ______________ instrumentation.

A

computerized

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7
Q

It records the changes of blood pressure and pulse rate. It is consisting of arm cuff.

A

Cardio-Sphygmograph (Red)

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8
Q

The ________ is place around the subject’s arm with the covered rubber bladder part centered at the brachial artery about an inch above the elbow and must be inflated by a pump bulb to put air into the system, which recorded in a sphygmomanometer in ______________________ (generally _________).

A

arm cuff; millimeters of mercury; 60-80 mm

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9
Q

It records the subject’s respiratory rate. One tube is placed around the subject’s chest and a second is placed around his or her abdomen.

A

Pneumograph (Blue)

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10
Q

These tubes are filled with air or contains certain of ____________. When the subject breaths, changes in the air pressure in the tubes are recorded on the polygraph.

A

volume of air

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11
Q

It records the amount of perspiration produced. It consists of electrical sensors called galvanometers that are attached to the subject’s fingertips.

A

Galvanograph (Green)

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12
Q

These are electrical sensors that are attached to the subject’s fingertips.

A

galvanometers

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13
Q

The skin of the __________ contains a high density of sweat glands, making them a good location to measure perspiration.

A

fingertips

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14
Q

It comprises of finger or palm electrodes that is attached on the subject’s finger primarily the index and ring finger or palm to check and detect skin resistance towards a small amount of electricity, to operate the galvanometer supply a current and the mechanical movement of a seven (7) inches recording pen will take place.

A

GSR (Galvanic Skin Reflex)

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15
Q

The GSR (Galvanic Skin Reflex) comprise of finger or palm electrodes that is attached on the subject’s finger primarily the index and ring finger or palm to check and detect skin resistance towards a small amount of electricity, to operate the galvanometer supply a current and the mechanical movement of a ___________ recording pen will take place.

A

seven (7) inches

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16
Q

It is sometimes referred as a chart drive module. This is motor that pulls or drive the chart paper under the recording pen at the same time at the rate of six (6) to twelve (12) inches per minute.

A

Kymograph

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17
Q

It raises or lowers pens to 3 positions.

A

Pen Lifter

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18
Q

It is a programmable cueing device for question and answer spacing.

A

Program Pacer

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19
Q

It provides cutting edge for convenient removal of charts.

A

Paper Tear Bar

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20
Q

It keeps pens in place when instrument is being transported.

A

Foam Pen Hold-Down

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21
Q

It is a storage for all forms and supplies. It is slightly smaller in executive Ultra Scribe.

A

Attache Compartment

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22
Q

It is slightly smaller in executive ultra-facilitates set-up and storage.

A

Accessory Storage & Optional Calibration Checking Fixture

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23
Q

It is a stylish grouping that provides neat, professional appearance. It facilitates set-up and storage.

A

Subject Connection

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24
Q

It is the recording part of Mechanical Pneumo Channel.

A

Mechanical Pneumo Module

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25
Q

It is the recording part of GSR channel.

A

Galvanic Skin Response Module

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26
Q

It is a Selectable recording module. It can be used as:
a. Electronic Pneumo Channel;
b. Electronic Cardio Channel;
c. Cardio Activity Monitor (CAM); or
d. Cardio Tech, or other Accessories.

A

Multi-Function Module

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27
Q

It is the recording part of mechanical Cardio Module.

A

Mechanical Cardio Module

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28
Q

It holds two spare rolls of chart paper or other supplies.

A

Paper Storage Compartment

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29
Q

Power cords connect here. It has an international standard design for easy cord replacement.

A

Ac Power Receptacle

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30
Q

It applies power to instrument. Built-in resettable circuit breaker protects instrument and eliminates need for fuses. To re-set, simply press “off” and then “on” again.

A

Power Switch and Circuit Breaker

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31
Q

It lifts chart drive roller for paper changes and chart removal.

A

Chart Drive Roller Lever

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32
Q

It automatically indicates whether wall outlets are properly wired and grounded for proper instrument operation and subject safety.

A

Power Analyzer

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33
Q

It marks significant events on the charts.

A

Stimulus Marker

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34
Q

It reads operating pressure of cardio channels.

A

Sphygmomanometer Dial

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35
Q

It is the pneumatic connection for upper (thoracic) pneumograph. It is not connected in instrument with only one pneumo Channel.

A

Pneumo 2 (Blue)

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36
Q

It is the pneumatic connection for lower (abdominal) pneumograph.

A

Pneumo 1 (Silver)

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37
Q

It is the pneumatic connection for Cardio Channel subject cuff tubing.

A

Cuff

38
Q

It is the pneumatic connection for hand pump used to inflate subject cuff.

A

Pump

39
Q

It disengages mechanical cardio module from pneumatic system for low pressure electronic cardio operation.

A

Mechanical Cardio Switch

40
Q

Within the U.S. federal government, a polygraph examination is also referred to as a _________________________________________.

A

Psychophysiological Detection of Deception (PDD) examination

41
Q

It is the one who skilled and capable to detect deception or verify truth of statement through instrumentation or the use of mechanical devise.

A

Polygraph Examiner

42
Q

Examples of this are mental derangement, addiction to narcotic drugs, a person who is being forced to do so, a person who suffers from a serious heart condition, a person who suffers from a severe nervous condition, a person who suffers from a severe respiratory illness and a quadriplegic (paralysis on both arms and legs).

A

Permanent physical illness

43
Q

Examples of this are sickness, injury, pain, physical discomfort, external physical or mental fatigue, colds, coughs, fever, allergies, and influences of sedatives and liquor are causes for deferment of the test until such time that the subjects regain his ordinary physical condition, a pregnant woman, unless he has obtained prior written permission from a physician to do so.

A

Temporary illness

44
Q

Prolonged interrogation with constant accusation directed against the subjects may condition him to react falsely to the test, or may result to a __________________.

A

flat emotionless chart

45
Q

In this phase, test questions are formulated by the polygraph examiner based from information obtained from the investigator. General facts, theories and suspicions are not enough basis for a polygraph test. Question formulation depends greatly upon detailed and accurate information regarding all the available facts.

A

Phase I - Initial Interview with the Investigator Handling the Case

46
Q

In this phase, before the actual testing is done, the examiner must first make an informal interview of the subject which may last from 20 to 30 minutes to condition the subject psychologically for the test, to apprise the subject of his constitutional rights, a written consent which must be freely and voluntary given is taken.

A

Phase II - Pre-Test Interview

47
Q

In this phase, questions are formulated from the information given by the investigators, from declaration of witnesses or the subject himself, from records, interviews and from other factual in nature. Questions in the same exam must be related to one another. If distinctly separate issues must be covered, they must be asked in a separate examination. Personal and disturbing questions have no place in a properly conducted polygraph examination. There are general and specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the test questions.

A

Phase III – The Conduct of Instrumentation or Actual Test

48
Q

These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation. The question may refer to the subject’s age, educational attainment, marital status, citizenship, occupation, etc. The examiner asks these types of questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response by eliminating the feeling of apprehension.

A

Irrelevant Question

49
Q

These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation. They must be unambiguous, unequivocal and understandable to the subject. They must be related to one issue or one criminal act. It is equally important to limit the number of relevant questions to avoid discomfort to the subject.

A

Relevant Question

50
Q

These questions are intended and created to test for direct participation only and specifically designed to produce and emotional response in guilty subject.

A

Strong Relevant or Primary or Crucial Question

51
Q

These are questions concern in several secondary aspects of the crime or problem and often deal with guilty knowledge and partial involvement.

A

Weak Relevant or Secondary Question

52
Q

These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.

A

Control Question

53
Q

It is based on known lie. It must concern about actions that transpired within three (3) to five (5) years’ time prior to case under investigation occurred. Example: Before turning the age of 15, have you ever raped a goat?

A

Primary Control Question

54
Q

It is more precise in nature and is based on another experience of unlawful activity, which will improve the chance for responsiveness. It ranges covers up to the current period. The question for responsiveness must not be connected to the case under investigation.

A

Secondary Control Question

55
Q

This is intended to arouse the guilty subject and focus his attention on the probability of incriminating proof that would tend to establish his guilt. In formulating the question, the examiner must know from the investigator whether or not pieces of evidences were collected from the scene of the crime. Example: Was the evidence found at the scene of the crime yours?

A

Evidence Connection Question

56
Q

This question is intended to discover whether the subject possesses information regarding the identity of the offender, or as to the location of the evidence or other secondary elements of the facts of the case under investigation. Example: Did you know who committed the crime?

A

Knowledge Question

57
Q

This is intended to obtain responses usually produced by the introduction of the first relevant question in the sequence. These divulge the subject’s norm plus stimulus and excitement stage. Example: Regarding the stealing incident, do you intend to answer all of these questions truthfully?

A

Sacrifice or DYAT Question

58
Q

These questions are intended to identify and assess the occurrence of the outside issues that might restrain subject’s responses to the relevant question. An outside factor in a case, which he is concerned, but not the issue under investigation. Example: Do you understand that i will only ask you questions we discussed?

A

Symptomatic or Introductory Question

59
Q

These are three groups question place as one by Backster and they are intended to verify the previous charts and detect indirect participation or guilty knowledge. Example: Do you know who stole the money of Pedro?

A

SKY Question

60
Q

SKY means?

A

“suspect,” “know,” “you”

61
Q

It consists of a series of relevant and irrelevant questioned asked in a planned order.

A

General Peak Tension Test

62
Q

This valid test is only made when there is no widespread publicity about the crime.

A

Peak of Tension Test

63
Q

This test compares the physiological response to relevant questions about the crime with the response to questions relating to possible prior misdeeds. “This test is often used to determine whether certain criminal suspects should be prosecuted or classified as uninvolved in the crime” (American Psychological Association).

A

The Control Question Test (CQT)

64
Q

This test tries to detect lying by comparing physiological responses when the subject is told to deliberately lie to responses when they tell the truth.

A

The Directed Lie Test (DLT)

65
Q

This test compares physiological responses to multiple-choice type questions about the crime, one choice of which contains information only the crime investigators and the criminal would know about.

A

The Guilty Knowledge Test (GKT)

66
Q

It has the best theoretical foundation and validation research. It serves as an important tool in the post test interrogation. Useful in circumstances where the CQT may produce less than optimal results.

A

Concealed Information Test

67
Q

The foundation of CIT is the ______________________.

A

orienting response/reflex theory

68
Q

In this test, examinee is instructed to answer each question by repeating the alternative ending.

A

Acquaintance Test

69
Q

This is Introduced by David Raskin (1970). It is a simplified version of the numerical scoring system techniques introduced by Backster in 1963 and modified by the US Army in 1970. It uses a 7-position scale numerical scoring relevant question. It is normally compared to the preceding comparison question. If the preceding CQ is distorted by an artefact, use the closest artefact free CQ for evaluation. Scores are assigned in each channel without reference to scores in the other channels.

A

Utah Scoring System (USS)

70
Q

It was Introduced in 2008 by R. Nelson, M. Handler and D. Krapohl, It is derived from experiment and observation rather than theory. It is simple, least complicated. It uses five diagnostic features.

A

Empirical Scoring System (ESS)

71
Q

It was introduced by David Lykken (1959-1960) and was used for CIT/GKT. It entails the ranking of the electro dermal response amplitude from 2 to 0. If the largest EDR takes place on the key item, the score for the test is 2. If the largest EDR takes place on the key item, the score is 1. All others are scored 0. Reactions to the first buffer are ignored. The cut off for the result of RI (reaction indicated) is equal to the number of CIT subtest.

A

Lykken Scoring System (LSS)

72
Q

It is complex, with high rate of false-positive errors.

A

Backster Scoring System

73
Q

It simplified the criteria and rules of Backster method and uses up to 27 physiological features.

A

U.S. Army Military Police School Polygraph Branch

74
Q

It reduced the number of physiological features from twenty-seven (27) to ten (10) and assessment of reaction is based on principles of psychophysiology.

A

University of Utah Scoring System

75
Q

It is based on bigger is better scoring principle.

A

Emperical Scoring System

76
Q

It is the systematic process by which a particular set of decision is applied to the evaluation of diagnostic features and other physiological data resulting in one of the three outcome decisions.

A

Test Data Analysis

77
Q

It is a system of rendering an opinion by viewing the polygraph chart as a whole as opposed to making a systematic comparison among questions.

A

Global Test Data Analysis

78
Q

It is a systematic assignment of numerical values to physiological responses, and decision rules that are based on the sum of those numerical values. It is used in ZCT, MGQT.

A

Numerical Test Data Analysis

79
Q

It is scored first, to note any artefacts that may affect other channel (DB’s, MVT’s and SNF).

A

Respiration

80
Q

It is a modification of the Backster Scoring System. It was originally based on 22 diagnostic features (USAMPS).

A

US Federal Government Scoring System

81
Q

It refers to the linear measurement of a waveform over a specified period of time.

A

Respiration Line Length

82
Q

It is the first polygraph technique developed by psychologists who explicitly incorporated basic knowledge and principles from psychological science and psychophysiology into the pre-test interview, questions structure, recording methods and evaluation methods (Handler and Nelson, 2009), with high reliability and validity. (Ad Hoc Committee on Polygraph Techniques, 2011; Kraphol, 2006)

A

UTAH Probable Lie Test (UPLT)

83
Q

It is designed to be a probable lie for the examinee, similar in nature but unrelated by time, place or category of the specific issue. It is broad in scope and time so that it captures as many of the examinee’s past life as possible.

A

Probable Lie Comparison Question

84
Q

It is a comparison question that addresses a minor transgression to which most people will readily admit. Upon acknowledging having committed such a transgression, the examinee is directed to lie when asked that questions on the test.

A

Directed Lie Comparison Question

85
Q

This phase includes all consideration that bears on the examination just after the instrument are turned off. If there are significant fluctuations that show up on the polygraph test result this may signal that the subject has been deceptive, especially if the person displayed similar responses to the question that was repeatedly asked, the examiner will then proceed to conduct short interrogation.

A

Phase IV - Post-Test Interview or Interrogation

86
Q

The interrogator must create a mood that is conducive to confession. He may be sympathetic and friendly to the subject. The subject may be willing to disclose more information if he is treated in a kind of approach.

A

Emotional Appeal

87
Q

In this technique there must be at least two investigators with opposite character; one (Mutt) who is arrogant and relentless who knows the subject to be guilty and will not waste time in the interrogation, and the other (Jeff) who is friendly, sympathetic and kind. When Mutt is not present Jeff will advise the subject to make a quick decision and plea for coordination.

A

Mutt and Jeff Technique

88
Q

This is applicable where there are two or more persons who allegedly participated in the commission of a crime. All of them are interrogated separately and the results of their individual statements are not known to one another. While one of them is under interrogation, the interrogator claim that the subject was implicated by the author and that there is no use for him to deny participation.

A

Bluff and Split-Fair Technique

89
Q

The questions must be answered clearly, and the interrogator utilizes harsh language. Immediate response from the subject is demanded.

A

Stern Approach

90
Q

It is the question formulation. If a relevant question is phrased and delivered properly, to determine its particular purpose, it will influence subject’s fight mechanism in a manner, in which will make chart interpretation easy.

A

Keynotes to Accurate Chart Interpretation

91
Q

It consists of inhalation and exhalation strikes with a normal amplitude from ½ to ¾ inches. The normal cyclic rate is from 13 to 18 breaths per minute and may vary in reasons of exceptional physical build condition or respiratory defects.

A

pneumograph pattern

92
Q

Cardinal Rule in Chart Interpretation

A

“Any change from normal requires an explanation.”

FORENSIC 5 - Lie Detection Techniques (4 decks)

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