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Medical Assistant Exam > Chapter Five: Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Chapter Five: Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Musculoskeletal

A

Function: supports shape and stature of body, allows and supports for movement

Involved Organs: bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments

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2
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Nervous/Sensory

A

Function: translate input and make decisions

Involved Organs: brain, spinal cord, nerves, eyes, ears, nose, tongue, skin

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3
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Circulatory/Cardiovascular

A

Function: transportation of oxygen, hormones, and nutrients

Involved Organs: blood vessels, capillaries, heart

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4
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Endocrine

A

Function: turn functions and hormones on and off

Involved organs: glands (i.e pituitary, thymus, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas)

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5
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Reproductive

A

Function: Continuation of species, human sexual function

Involved organs:
- female: ovaries, uterus, fallopian tubes, vagina
- male: testes, penis, prostate

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6
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Digestive

A

Function: Intake and absorption of nutrients

Involved organs: mouth, teeth, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, gall bladder, pancreas

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6
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Lymphatic

A

Function: protection and prevention of infection

Involved organs: lymph vessels, spleen, tonsils

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6
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Integumentary

A

Function: protection of internal organs

Involved organs: skin, hair, nails

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7
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Respiratory

A

Functions: Intake of oxygen and output of waste

Involved organs: mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli

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8
Q

What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:

Excretory

A

Functions: output of waste

Involved organs: Kidney, ureter, urethra, bladder

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9
Q

What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:

Epithelial

A

Functions: covers and lines

Description: found as skin, glands, and within the lining of organs

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10
Q

What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:

Connective

A

Functions: joins together alike or different kinds of tissues

Description: Identified by type of matrix
- hard: found in bone
- liquid: found in blood
- fibrous: found in tendon
- soft: found in areolar tissue

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11
Q

What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:

Muscle

A

Functions: contracts tissue

Description:
-cardiac: found in heart
-smooth: found in vessels and organs
-skeletal: found in voluntary muscles

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12
Q

What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:

Nervous

A

Functions: carries electric potential

Description: neurons pick up potential and pass it on to subsequent neurons

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13
Q

What are the seven warning signs of cancer that should alert a person to seek physician’s assessment?

A
  • Lump or mass, especially one that is growing, hard and is not able to be moved
  • Change in mole
  • Chronic cough or hoarseness
  • Persistent indigestion
  • Unexplained bleeding
  • Sore that does not heal
  • Change in bowel or bladder habits
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14
Q

What is the meaning of the term superior?

A

above
examples: the nose is superior to the chin

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15
Q

What is the meaning of the term inferior?

A

below
examples: the lips are inferior to the nose

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16
Q

What is the meaning of the term ventral/anterior?

A

belly side
examples: the breasts and knees are on the ventral/anterior side of the body

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17
Q

What is the meaning of the term dorsal/posterior?

A

back side
examples: the buttocks and knuckles are on the dorsal/posterior side of the body

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18
Q

What is the meaning of the term distal?

A

greatest distance away from a point of insertion
examples: a lesion by the wrist is distal to the shoulder

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19
Q

What is the meaning of the term proximal?

A

closest to a point of insertion
examples: a lesion by the shoulder is proximal to the shoulder

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20
Q

What is the meaning of the term lateral?

A

away from the midline of the body
examples: the ears are lateral to the nose

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21
Q

What is the meaning of the term medial?

A

toward the midline of the body
examples: the nose is medial to the ears

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22
Q

What are the three planes of the body?

A
  • sagittal, splits the body in right and left sections
  • frontal or coronal, splits the body in front and back sections
  • transverse, spilts the body in upper and lower sections
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23
Q

What are the functions of the integumentary system?

A
  • provision of a protective barrier from foreign invaders
  • regulations of body temperature
  • reception of information through pressure receptors
  • linings for body cavities and organs
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24
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

Blue

A

Cyanosis

lack of oxygen or profusion of the cells

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25
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

Red

A

erythema

fever, blush, burn, or infection

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26
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

White

A

pale

anemia

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27
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

Orange

A

cirrhosis

liver or pancreatic cancer

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28
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

Gray

A

Ashen

serious illness, death

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29
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

Brown-orange

A

bronze

adrenal problems

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30
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

purple

A

ecchymosis

bruising or deep tissue injury

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31
Q

What does the following color of skin indicate:

yellow

A

jaundice

bile problems involving liver, gallbladder, or pancreas

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32
Q

What is a papule?

A

a small elevation of the skin. example: wart

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33
Q

What is a macule?

A

a flat portion of the skin. example: freckle

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34
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

a papule with clear fluid in the skin. example: blister, chicken pox

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35
Q

What is a pustule?

A

a papule with pus. example: pimple, boil

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36
Q

What is a nevus?

A

a brown elevation of the skin. example: mole

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37
Q

What is a nodule?

A

a lump under the skin. example: sebaceous cyst

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38
Q

What is a decubitus?

A

an ulceration of the skin. example: pressure sore

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39
Q

What is an avulsion?

A

tissue torn out of the skin. example: dog bite, trauma to the skin

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40
Q

What is an excoriation?

A

tissue rubbed off of the skin. example: scrape or rubbing of two skin surfaces

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41
Q

What is a laceration?

A

a cut to the skin with clean edges. example: knife cut

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42
Q

What is a fissure?

A

a tear to the skin by use at a site of pressure. example: rectal fissure

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43
Q

What is a tear?

A

ragged edges. example: skin shearing from friction

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44
Q

What is a puncture?

A

small surface area but a deep wound. example: stab wound

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45
Q

What is dermatitis?

A

inflamed, dry, irritated skin

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46
Q

What is eczema?

A

erythema, scaling, and itching due to allergic reaction

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47
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

overgrowth of epidermis resulting in silvery scales

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48
Q

What is a verruca (wart)?

A

a benign, fleshy tumor caused by a virus

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49
Q

What is herpes simplex?

A

a viral lesion with water vesicles; type 1: nose and mouth, type 2: genitalia

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50
Q

What is Tinea Pedis?

A

Athletes foot
fungus that flourishes in warm, moist, dark places; causes scaling, itching, and burning to feet and between toes

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51
Q

What is a Tinea Crurtitis?

A

Jock Itch
fungus that flourishes in groin and other skin folds; causes burning and redness

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52
Q

What is Tinea Corporis?

A

Ring worm
red lesions in a circular pattern blanched in the center caused by fungus, not an actual worm

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53
Q

What is impetigo?

A

golden crusts on oozing lesions, bacterial, spread through direct contact or with personal items like towels or bed clothing

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54
Q

What is a furuncle?

A

boil
A staph infection in hairy area of body such as groin, neck, or armpit; common in diabetics or those w/ impaired immunity; needs systemic antibiotic. A group is called a carbuncle

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55
Q

What is a basal cell carncinoma?

A

Shiny pearl-like lesion due to overexposure to sun

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56
Q

What is a squamous cell carcinoma?

A

reddened patch of skin that will not heal due to overexposure to sun

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57
Q

What is melanoma?

A

a large, asymmetrical, dark, malignant mole that swiftly spreads through body and can be terminal

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58
Q

What characterizes a 1st degree burn?

A

redness

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59
Q

What characterizes a 2nd degree burn?

A

blisters and redness

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60
Q

What characterizes a 3rd degree burn?

A

full thickness damage through skin into nerves and muscles

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61
Q

What characterizes an open/compound break?

A

breaks through the skin, will be high risk for osteomyelitis (a severe bone infection)

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62
Q

What characterizes a closed/simple break?

A

the bone is broken but does not break the skin

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63
Q

What characterizes a greenstick fracture?

A

splinters, bends, or cracks

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63
Q

What characterizes an impacted/compacted fracture?

A

One piece of bone jammed into another

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64
Q

What characterizes a spiral fracture?

A

bone twisted into multiple pieces

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65
Q

What characterizes a comminuted fracture?

A

Bone breaks into multiple pieces

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66
Q

What characterizes a pathological fracture?

A

break caused by disease process

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67
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

osteoporosis

A

Decreased bone mass that often occurs in middle-aged women.

Treated by hormone replacement therapy, increased calcium, weight-bearing exercise, weight loss

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68
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

scoliosis

A

deviation of the spine to the side.

Treated by a brace, physical therapy or surgery in extreme cases

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69
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Lordosis

A

Excessive curvature of the lumbar spine (swayback)

Treated by surgery or physical therapy

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70
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Kyphosis

A

Excessive curvature of the thoracic spine (hunchback)

Treated by bracing and physical therapy

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71
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Osteoarthritis

A

wear and tear on joints causing pain, stiffness, and swelling

Medical treatment includes anti-inflammatory drugs, assistive devices, exercise, and joint replacement

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72
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

stiffness, swelling, and pain in joints due to autoimmune disorder

Treatment includes medication and drug therapy, acupuncture

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73
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Bursitis

A

Swelling of the fluid sac that cushions a joint

Treatment includes avoiding pressure on joint, medication, and possible surgical aspiration

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74
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Gout

A

collect of uric acid crystals in joint causing pain and swelling

treatment includes low purine diet, Allopurinol, black cherry juice can help prevent recurrence and severity

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75
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Muscular dystrophy

A

hereditary; poorly developed muscles

treated with physical therapy and braces

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76
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Torticollis

A

wry neck; spasm of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

treated by heat, antispasmodic drugs, physical therapy

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77
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Atrophy

A

wasting of muscle

treated by exercise and range of motion exercises

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78
Q

Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:

Cleft palate

A

congenital deformity in roof of mouth due to failure of maxillary bones to fuse

treated my surgery

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79
Q

What special functions does the frontal lobe of the brain control?

A

memory, emotions, impulse control, problem solving, social interaction, motor function, and personality

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80
Q

What special functions does the parietal lobe of the brain control?

A

receiving and processing sensory input such as touch, pressure, heat, cold, and pain. Math and logic. Involved in the perception of body awareness and the construction of a spatial coordinate system to represent the world around us.

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81
Q

What special functions does the temporal lobe of the brain control?

A

helps you use your senses to understand and respond to the world around you. Key role in communication, access to memories, processing spoken word, use language and process emotions.

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82
Q

What special functions does the occipital lobe of the brain control?

A

visuospatial processing, distance and depth perception, color determination, object and face recognition, and memory formation.

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83
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A
  • Peripheral nervous system
  • Central nervous system
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84
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system made of?

A

Nerves and neurons

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85
Q

What is the central nervous system made of?

A

Spinal cord and brain

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86
Q

What tissue connects the two hemispheres of the brain?

A

The Corpus Callosum

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87
Q

What are the four main parts of the brain?

A

cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and diencephalon

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88
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meninges, which are the membranes that are covering the brain and spinal cord

Symptoms: nuchal rigidity, fever, headache, vomiting

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89
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Hemiplegia

A

Paralysis of one side of the body that typically as a result of a stroke

Symptoms: paralysis on one side of the body

90
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Paraplegia

A

Paralysis as a result of severing spinal cord in lower back or sacrum

Symptoms: Inability to move legs, may have bowel and bladder dysfunction

91
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Quadriplegia

A

Paralysis as a result of severing of spinal cord in the upper thoracic or cervical area

Symptoms: inability to move arms and legs, may have respiratory dysfunction

92
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Encephalitis

A

Inflammation of the brain caused by virus, bacteria, or toxin

Symptoms: Headache, fever, confusion

93
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

A

Blockage of a vessel or bleeding into brain prevents oxygen from getting to brain tissue

Symptoms: malfunction in the portion of the brain that is deprived of circulation

94
Q

What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:

Herniated disc

A

Protrusion of nucleus pulposis against spinal cord

Symptoms: nerve pain that can radiate down lower extremities

95
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

deterioration of motor neurons

96
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Poliomyelitis

A

viral infection that leads to weakened muscles

97
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Transient ischemic attack

A

brief interludes of confusion that often precede CVA (stroke)

98
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Hydrocephalus

A

enlargement of head due to accumulated fluid in ventricles of brain

99
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

expressive aphasia

A

inability to form words and verbally communicate

100
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

receptive aphasia

A

inability to understand what is being said and process communication

101
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Epilepsy

A

abnormal electrical activity of brain

102
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

cerebral palsy

A

damage to brain that causes motor or balance problems

103
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

intracerebral hematoma

A

accumulation of blood within the brain tissue due to trauma to head or spontaneous rupture of blood vessel

104
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

subdural hematoma

A

accumulation of blood due to tear in meningeal layer

105
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

concussion

A

Headache, vomiting, damage to brain tissue due to closed head trauma

106
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Progressive degeneration thought to be due to plaque and tangles of brain tissue leading to regression of ability to think

107
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Parkinson’s Disease

A

progressive neurological disease with resulting tremors, shuffling gait, and rigidity

108
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Multi-infarct dementia

A

brain damage from chronic ischemia

109
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Bell’s Palsy

A

temporary facial paralysis caused by virus damaging the VII cranial nerve (facial)

110
Q

What is a description of the following nervous system disease:

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Severe spasm of V cranial nerve (trigeminal)

111
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

I

A

olfactory; carries impulses for smell

112
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

II

A

optic; carries impulses for sight

113
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

III

A

oculomotor; controls eye movement

114
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

IV

A

trochlear; controls eye movement

115
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

V

A

trigeminal; carries sensation from eye, upper and lower law, movement of jaw

116
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

VI

A

Abducens; controls facial expression, controls salivary and tear glands, carries taste

117
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

VII

A

facial; carries taste, controls facial expression

118
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

VIII

A

vestibulocochlear; carries hearing and controls equilibrium

119
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

IX

A

glossopharyngeal; carries taste, controls swallowing and gag

120
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

X

A

Vagus; controls voice box, throat, and digestive juices, longest nerve which expands all the way through the abdominal cavity

121
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

XI

A

spinal accessory; controls muscles in neck and larnyx

122
Q

What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:

XII

A

hypoglossal; controls muscles of tongue

123
Q

What does PERRLA test for?

A

pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation

eyes are examined as a manner of assessing the nervous system. PERRLA is a notation made to signify that pupils are equal in size, round, and either eye responds to a light being shined in it by contracting and the other pupil responds likewise.

124
Q

What is Myopia?

A

nearsightedness; cannot see objects in the distance

125
Q

What is Hyperopia?

A

farsightedness; cannot see up close

126
Q

What is Presbysopia?

A

“old eye”; lens loses elasticity

126
Q

What is an Astigmatism?

A

irregular curvature of lens which causes effect on vision, especially lights at night

126
Q

What are cataracts?

A

cloudy lenses

127
Q

What is Conjunctivitis?

A

“pink eye”; redness and itching of conjunctiva

128
Q

What is Glaucoma?

A

accumulation of fluid pressure and poor drainage of aqueous humor

129
Q

What is macular degeneration?

A

Abnormal blood vessel growth causing loss of central vision

130
Q

What is Strabismus?

A

“crossed eyes”; unable to focus independently of one another

131
Q

What is Nystagmus?

A

Repetitive and involuntary movement of eye

132
Q

What is Blepharitis?

A

infection of the eyelid and eyelash

133
Q

What is Diplopia?

A

double vision

134
Q

What is Ambylopia?

A

Lazy eye causing other eye to lose some portions of vision

135
Q

What is Chalazion?

A

small, painless, localized swelling of eyelid

136
Q

What is Hordeolum?

A

purulent staph infection of hair follicle of eyelid

138
Q

What is Keratitis?

A

inflammation of the cornea

138
Q

What is enucleation?

A

surgical removal of the eye

139
Q

What is Nyctalopia?

A

inability to see at night

140
Q

What is Pterygium?

A

Triangular thickening of conjunctiva

141
Q

What is Otitis Media?

A

middle ear infection, usually caused by URI

142
Q

What is Otitis Externa?

A

outer ear infection, “swimmer’s ear” caused by exposure to pathogens

143
Q

What is impacted cerumen?

A

buildup of earwax until auditory canal is occluded

144
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

buildup of spongy bone and stiffening of stapes within the ear

145
Q

What is Presbycusis?

A

Decrease in hearing receptors due to aging or abuse

146
Q

What is Meniere’s?

A

vertigo, dizziness and hearing loss related to inner ear

147
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

buzzing or ringing in ear/ears

148
Q

What is olfactory stimulation?

A

the sense of smell

149
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Myocardial Infraction

A

Heart Attack
Ischemia (lack of blood) to area of heart that causes tissue death
Treatment varies per patient but includes bypass graft around blockage or angioplasty with stent to keep coronary arteries open

151
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Coronary Artery Disease

A

Multiple areas with start of vessel disease (narrowing and strictures)
Chest pain, palpitations, indigestion, irregular heart rhythms, edema to hands and feet, shortness of breath
Treatment includes stopping smoking, increasing exercise, low-fat and high-fiber diet

152
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Angina

A

Ischemia during stress or exercise, unstable angina during rest
Chest pain that can radiate to back and shoulders, shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue
Treatment includes nitroglycerin, stop activity that induces angina, stop smoking

153
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Arrhythmia

A

irregular heartbeat
Treatment includes medication, surgery, pacemaker, cardioversion

154
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Total cholesterol greater than 200 mg
Treatment includes change in diet and lifestyle and possible medication

155
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Hypertension

A

Blood pressure elevated greater than 140/90
Treatment includes DASH diet, exercise, medication, weight loss, stress reduction and management

156
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Peripheral vascular disease

A

Narrowing or occlusion of vessels in legs and feet
Treatment includes bypass graft or medication

157
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Thrombus

A

Blood clot
Treatment includes preventing clot from moving until dissolved, medication

158
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Thrombophlebitis

A

Blood clot and inflammation of veins
Treatment includes heparin, antibiotics, blood thinners, exercise, avoid immobility or constriction of veins

159
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Arteriosclerosis

A

Calcium and fibrous deposits inside vessels
Treatment includes Aspirin or blood thinners, possible surgery

160
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Atherosclerosis

A

fatty deposits inside vessels
Treatment includes change to low-fat, high-fiber diet, and an increase in exercise

161
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Murmurs

A

valvular disorder
Extra or unusual sounds made by circulating through the heart’s chambers or valves
Treated by medication, or valve replacement surgery in severe cases

162
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Congestive heart failure

A

Weak ventricle (either side); allows blood to back up; left side=SOB, frothy sputum, coughing; Right side= edema and cyanosis
Treated with medication (Lasix and Lanoxin)

163
Q

What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:

Aneurysm

A

bulging weak spot in vessel
Treatment includes a surgical graft inserted into area and sutured above and below weak point

164
Q

What are the percentages of the blood and components?

A

Blood= 55% plasma, 45% formed elements
Plasma= 90% water, proteins, and nutrients

165
Q

What characteristics does Type A blood have?

A

A antigens on the RBC and anti-B antibodies in plasma

166
Q

What characteristics does Type B blood have?

A

B antigens on the RBC and anti-A antibodies in plasma

167
Q

What characteristics does Type AB blood have?

A

A and B antigens one the RBC and no antibodies in plasma

168
Q

What characteristics does Type O blood have?

A

no antigens on the RBC and both A and B antibodies in plasma

169
Q

What is the universal recipent?

A

Type AB blood

170
Q

What is the universal donor?

A

Type O blood

171
Q

What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

A

to protect the body from foreign invaders.

172
Q

What are the four accessory organs of the lymphatic system?

A
  • lymph nodes
  • tonsils
  • thymus
  • spleen
173
Q

Where are the two main lymph nodes located?

A
  • Under the armpits
  • Inguinal area
174
Q

What are the three sets of tonsils?

A
  • palatine tonsils
  • nasopharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)
  • lingual tonsils
175
Q

True or False: the thymus is the source of immunity the first two years of life and shrinks as we get older

176
Q

Where is the thymus located?

A

Underneath the sternum

177
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

filter out bacteria from blood, destroy old RBC’s, stores iron, provides a reservoir of blood for an emergency, and produces phagocytes to fight foreign invaders.

178
Q

In what diseases does splenomegaly (enlargement of the spleen) occur?

A
  • syphilis
  • scarlet fever
  • typhoid fever
  • typhus fever
179
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

Infection of the epithelial tissue of sinus acitivities

180
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Nose bleed

181
Q

What is Coryza?

A

nasal discharge, rhinorrhea

182
Q

What is Influenza?

A

Inflammation of trachea, aches, pains, coughing, fever

183
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

air spaces filled with fluid due to viral, bacterial, chemical, or aspiration irritation

184
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

caused by mycobacterium bacilli, night sweats, cough with bloody sputum

185
Q

What is Atelectasis?

A

Incomplete expansion of lung due to injury, mucous plug, cancer, or foreign body

186
Q

What is Asthma?

A

Spasm of bronchus and bronchioles due to allergy

187
Q

What is hayfever?

A

Watery eyes, sneezing, runny nose

188
Q

What is an URI?

A

Upper Respiratory Infection
Viral or bacterial infection of eyes, ears, nose, and throat; coughing, sneezing, or sore throat

189
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

collapse of either lung due to nonpatent lung (bleb) or trauma

190
Q

What is hemothorax?

A

collapse of lung due to pressure from bleeding or trauma

192
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Anterior Pituitary Gland

A

Base of the brain
- Growth Hormone (GH): stimulates growth of long bones
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): stimulates growth of egg in ovary or sperm in testes
- Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH): Regulates skin pigment
- Leutinizing Hormone (LH): stimulates ovulation
- Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH): stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine
- Prolactin: stimulates production of breastmilk

193
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Posterior Pituitary Gland

A

Base of brain
- Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH): facilitates reabsorption of water in nephron of kidney
-Oxytocin: stimulates milk ejection and uterine contraction

194
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Pineal Gland

A

Center of brain
- Melatonin: controls sleep/wake cycles

195
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Thymus Gland

A

Behind Sternum
- Thymosine: Facilitates immunity by stimulating the growth of T-cells

196
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Thyroid Gland

A

Neck
- Thyroxine: stimulates metabolism

197
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Pancreas

A

Abdomen
- Insulin: Assists sugar to go from bloodstream into tissue

198
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Adrenal Glands

A

Top of Kidney
- Aldosterone: regulates sodium and potassium
- Cortisol: regulates fat metabolism and blood pressure

199
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Ovaries/Testes

A

Lower abdomen/scrotum
- Estrogen/ Testosterone: Facilitates secondary sex characteristics

200
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Kidney

A

Lower Back
- Erythropoietin: Monitors blood for oxygen level

201
Q

Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:

Parathyroid Glands

A

Imbedded in Thyroid
- Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Facilitates calcium into bloodstream

202
Q

What enzyme breaks down food in the mouth and starts chemical digestion?

203
Q

How many permanent teeth are in full grown, healthy adults?

204
Q

By what action does food move through the digestive system?

A

Peristalsis

205
Q

What enzyme breaks down connective tissue in food in the stomach?

206
Q

What do gastric glands in the stomach secrete?

A

hydrochloric acid

207
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A
  • production of bile
  • storage of glycogen
  • formation of blood plasma proteins
  • formation of urea from the metabolism of proteins
  • modification of fats to promote their usefulness on the body
  • detoxification of harmful substances such as alcohol and certain drugs
  • storage of some vitamins and iron
208
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

reabsorbs water and nutrients and stores and compacts waste

209
Q

What is Cirrhosis of the liver?

A

chronic scarring of the liver

210
Q

What are hemorrhoids?

A

engorged and enlarged rectal veins due to increased intra abdominal pressure

211
Q

What is constipation?

A

Hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass

212
Q

What is a peptic ulcer?

A

erosion of the mucous membrane of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum due to smoking, NSAIDs, alcohol, aspirin, or helicobacter pylori

213
Q

What is Irritable Bowel Syndrome?

A

bowel is overly sensitive to stress, pain, diarrhea, weight loss and rectal bleeding

214
Q

What is Leukoplakia?

A

thickened white patches of the mouth

215
Q

What is cholelithiasis?

A

stones formed from the substances in bile that have potential to block common bile duct and cause pain (

216
Q

What is Hepatitis A, B, C?

A

inflammation of the liver that may be life threatening
Hepatitis A is caused by fecal-food contamination
Hepatitis B and C are caused by blood and body secretions

217
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

hardened, narrow lumen of the pyloric sphincter prohibits food from entering small intestine; symptoms included projectile vomiting, poor feedings, and weight loss

218
Q

What is gingivitis?

A

inflamed, bleeding pink tissue around teeth

219
Q

What are the functions of the Urinary System?

A
  • eliminates metabolic waste from the body
  • maintains appropriate levels of water
  • regulates the acid-base balance (pH)
  • regulates blood pressure
  • regulates red blood cell production
220
Q

What are the four main organs of the Urinary system?

A

kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and the urethra

221
Q

What is the term for the beginning of menstruation? What is the average age?

A

menarche; 12

222
Q

What is the term for the cessation of menstruation?

Medical Assistant Exam (14 decks)

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