Chapter 8: Personal Protective Equipment Flashcards

1
Q

Why is respiratory protection a primary concern for first responders? (381)
A. Respiratory protection has no limitations.
B. Inhalation is the most significant route of entry.
C. The use of respiratory protection is required by NIMS.
D. Respiratory protection protects responders from chemical burns.

A

Inhalation is the most significant route of entry.

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2
Q
The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has adopted respiratory equipment standards developed by: (382)
A. OSHA and NFPA®.
B. NIOSH and NFPA®.
C. OSHA and NIOSH.
D. NIOSH and MSHA.
A

NIOSH and NFPA®.

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3
Q
Which standard specifies requirements for the selection, care, and maintenance of open-circuit SCBA and combination SCBA/SAR used for respiratory protection during hazardous operations? (382)
A. NFPA® 1001
B. NFPA® 1500
C. NFPA® 1852
D. NFPA® 1981
A

NFPA® 1852

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4
Q
Which of the following is a major requirement of OSHA Regulation 29 CFR 1910.134 Respiratory Protection? (383)
A. Approval labels
B. Certificates of approval
C. Selection of respirators
D. Applications for approval
A

Selection of respirators

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5
Q

Which of the following is an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the user carries the breathing-air supply? (383)
A. Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
C. Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

A

Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

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6
Q
Which of the following is a component of SCBA? (383)
A. Emergency escape pack
B. Compressed air cylinder
C. Facepiece-mounted regulator
D. 300 feet (91 m) of air supply hose
A

Compressed air cylinder

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7
Q
Which type of SCBA is allowed in incidents where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials? (384)
A. Positive-pressure open-circuit
B. Negative-pressure open-circuit
C. Pressure-demand low-pressure
D. Negative-pressure closed-circuit
A

Positive-pressure open-circuit

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8
Q
Which of the following is an advantage of SCBA? (384)
A. Independence
B. Light weight of units
C. Extended air-supply duration
D. Expanded communication abilities
A

Independence

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9
Q
Certification programs for SCBA used in emergency response to terrorist attacks must be compliant with: (384-385)
A. MHSA 375.
B. NFPA® 1981.
C. OSHA 1910.
D. NIOSH 1910.120.
A

NFPA® 1981.

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10
Q

Which of the following are atmosphere-supplying respirators where the user does not carry the breathing air source? (385)
A. Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
C. Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

A

Supplied-air respirators (SARs)

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11
Q
Which of the following is a component of SARs? (385)
A. Pressure regulator
B. Harness assembly
C. End-of-service-time indicators
D. A voice communications system
A

A voice communications system

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12
Q
Which of the following is a limitation of SARs? (386)
A. Change in profile
B. Weight of the unit
C. Length of the airline
D. Limited air-supply duration
A

Length of the airline

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13
Q

Which of the following statements regarding air-purifying respirators is MOST accurate? (388)
A. They protect against all types of contaminants.
B. They supply oxygen or air from a separate source.
C. They protect against all concentrations of contaminants.
D. They must not be used in immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) atmospheres.

A

They must not be used in immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) atmospheres.

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14
Q

Which of the following questions should be answered before deciding to use APRs? (387-388)
A. Is the hazard a vapor or gas?
B. Will the use of APRs hinder operations?
C. What is the tolerance to hazards of the user?
D. Do the benefits of wearing APRs outweigh costs involved?

A

Is the hazard a vapor or gas?

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15
Q
Which of the following is a limitation of APRs? (388)
A. Weight of the units
B. Limited air-supply duration
C. Limited life of filters and canisters
D. Restricted vision and communications
A

Limited life of filters and canisters

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16
Q

What precaution should be taken before using an APR? (388)
A. Ensure that the oxygen level is below 19.5 percent
B. Know what chemicals/air contaminants are in the air
C. Know the ambient temperatures of the air in the area
D. Ensure that atmospheric hazards are above IDLH conditions

A

Know what chemicals/air contaminants are in the air

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17
Q

Particulate-removing filters: (388)
A. protect against specific vapors and gases.
B. use sorbent material to remove particulates.
C. may be used to protect against chemical hazards.
D. protect the respiratory system from large-sized particulates.

A

protect the respiratory system from large-sized particulates.

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18
Q

Which of the following uses a blower to remove the contaminants and supply the purified air to the facepiece? (389)
A. Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
C. Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

A

Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)

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19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding PAPRs is MOST accurate? (389)
A. They should be used during initial emergency operations.
B. They offer a greater degree of safety than standards APRs.
C. They are only used where at least 20.5 percent oxygen is present.
D. They are safe to wear in atmospheres where potential
respiratory hazards are unidentified.

A

They offer a greater degree of safety than standards APRs.

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20
Q
PAPRs must not be used in \_\_\_ atmospheres. (389)
A. nuclear
B. explosive
C. hazardous
D. radiological
A

explosive

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21
Q
Which of the following extend work duration in hazardous areas? (390)
A. Escape respirators
B. Supplied-air hoods
C. Combined respirators
D. Air-purifying respirators
A

Combined respirators

22
Q
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of respiratory equipment? (392)
A. Limited visibility
B. Not chemical specific
C. Inadequate oxygen levels
D. Decreased ability to communicate
A

Not chemical specific

23
Q

The use of protective clothing prevents all of the following EXCEPT: (392)
A. chemical burns.
B. allergic reactions.
C. physical exhaustion.
D. absorption of toxic materials into the body.

A

physical exhaustion.

24
Q

Which of the following statements regarding protective clothing is MOST accurate? (392)
A. Most have limitations.
B. They cannot be worn in IDLH atmospheres.
C. They can be worn to protect against ballistic hazards.
D. Several ensembles are able to protect against all hazards.

A

They can be worn to protect against ballistic hazards.

25
Q
NFPA® 1994 classifies ensembles for use at terrorism incidents involving low levels of vapor or liquid chemical or particulate hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH as: (395)
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
A

Class 3.

26
Q
Which standard specifies the minimum selection, care, and maintenance requirements for structural fire fighting protective ensembles? (395)
A. NFPA® 1851
B. NFPA® 1975
C. NFPA® 1992
D. NFPA® 1999
A

NFPA® 1851

27
Q

Which of the following statements regarding structural firefighters’ protective clothing is MOST accurate? (397)
A. It provides no protection against hazardous materials.
B. It is an acceptable substitute for chemical protective clothing.
C. It provides some protection against many hazardous materials.
D. The coat and pants provide long-term exposure protection from liquid chemicals.

A

It provides some protection against many hazardous materials.

28
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of structural firefighters’ protective clothing? (398)
A. It is neither corrosive-resistant nor vapor tight.
B. It does not protect against thermal damage in an explosive attack.
C. It does not provide adequate protection against radiological materials.
D. It cannot be used at haz mat/WMD incidents involving chemical weapons.

A

It is neither corrosive-resistant nor vapor tight.

29
Q

Structural firefighters’ protective clothing may be appropriate for use at haz mat/WMD incidents involving chemical weapons when: (398-399)
A. there is no chance of fire.
B. it is the only PPE available.
C. CBR hazards have not yet been identified.
D. contact with splashes of extremely hazardous material is likely

A

it is the only PPE available.

30
Q

Which of the following statements regarding high-temperature protective clothing is MOST accurate? (400)
A. It has limited use with biological hazards.
B. It has limited use with radiological hazards.
C. It is designed for long-term high-temperature exposures.
D. It is designed for short-term, high-temperature exposures.

A

It is designed for short-term, high-temperature exposures.

31
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of high-temperature protective clothing? (401)
A. It has a short service life.
B. It contributes to heat stress.
C. It must be decontaminated before disposal.
D. It is too lightweight to provide adequate coverage.

A

It contributes to heat stress.

32
Q
Chemical protective clothing (CPC) is designed to shield individuals from all the following EXCEPT: (401)
A. physical hazards.
B. chemical hazards.
C. biological hazards.
D. total flame environments.
A

total flame environments.

33
Q
Which type of CPC protects users from chemical liquid splashes but not against chemical vapors or gases? (402)
A. Vapor-protective clothing
B. Liquid-splash protective clothing
C. Gas-permeable protective clothing
D. Chemical-liquid protective clothing
A

Liquid-splash protective clothing

34
Q

Which of the following statements regarding non-encapsulating suits is MOST accurate? (402)
A. They trap body heat.
B. They provide full body coverage.
C. They protect against gases and vapors.
D. They are resistant to heat or flame exposure.

A

They trap body heat.

35
Q
Which type of CPC is primarily used as part of an EPA Level A protective ensemble? (403)
A. Vapor-protective clothing
B. Liquid-splash protective clothing
C. Gas-permeable protective clothing
D. Chemical-liquid protective clothing
A

Vapor-protective clothing

36
Q
Which of the following occurs when a hazardous material enters an opening or a puncture in a protective material?
(406)
A. Permeation
B. Penetration
C. Degradation
D. Neutralization
A

Penetration

37
Q
Which of the following occurs when a chemical passes through a fabric on a molecular level? (405)
A. Permeation
B. Penetration
C. Degradation
D. Neutralization
A

Permeation

38
Q
Which of the following provide full body protection against fragmentation, overpressure, impact, and heat? (407)
A. Body armor
B. Bomb disposal suits
C. Structural firefighting gear
D. Chemical protective clothing (CPC)
A

Bomb disposal suits

39
Q
Which U.S. EPA level of protection is used when chemical hazards are unknown or unidentified? (409-410)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
A

Level A

40
Q
Which U.S. EPA level of protection is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary but a lesser level of skin protection is needed? (410)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
A

Level B

41
Q
Which U.S. EPA level of protection consists of typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls? (412)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
A

Level D

42
Q
Which of the following is a PPE selection factor? (413)
A. Age of PPE
B. Available protective clothing
C. Responders’ level of training
D. Number of responders on the scene
A

Available protective clothing

43
Q

What question should be asked before selecting PPE? (414)
A. Is the material fireproof?
B. What color are the garments?
C. What is the temperature at the incident?
D. Will the material resist tears, punctures, cuts, and abrasions?

A

Will the material resist tears, punctures, cuts, and abrasions?

44
Q
Which response personnel ensembles consist of a high-quality respirator, butyl rubber gloves, and a commercial chemical overgarment? (415-416)
A. EMS ensembles
B. Fire service ensembles
C. Law enforcement ensembles
D. Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
A

Law enforcement ensembles

45
Q
Which response personnel ensembles protect against chemical, biological, and radiological hazards? (418)
A. EMS ensembles
B. Fire service ensembles
C. Law enforcement ensembles
D. Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
A

Mission-Oriented Protective Posture

46
Q

Heat disorders: (420)
A. can result in health effects.
B. are not of concern to first responders.
C. can be prevented by protective clothing.
D. are the leading cause of first responder deaths.

A

can result in health effects.

47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding heat-exposure prevention is MOST accurate? (420-421)
A. Cooling vests can be bulky and cumbersome.
B. After a work period, drinking chilled water is best.
C. Water cooling is most effective when humidity is high.
D. Long cotton undergarments should not be used under PPE.

A

Cooling vests can be bulky and cumbersome.

48
Q

Medical monitoring will: (422)
A. measure height, weight, and blood sugar.
B. measure electrolyte levels for dehydration.
C. be conducted after responders exit the cold zone.
D. be provided for responders who are at risk due to
environmental hazards.

A

be provided for responders who are at risk due to

environmental hazards.

49
Q

Air management must calculate all of the following EXCEPT: (422)
A. rehabilitation time.
B. decontamination time.
C. time taken to walk to the incident.
D. time taken to return from the incident.

A

rehabilitation time.

50
Q
Who must take all necessary steps to ensure that the protective ensemble performs as expected? (423)
A. End user
B. Initial user
C. SCBA officer
D. Safety officer
A

End user