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Hazardous Material for First Responders Fourth Edition > Chapter 6: Strategic Goals and Tactical Objectives > Flashcards

Chapter 6: Strategic Goals and Tactical Objectives Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is the first step in most problem-solving models? (267)
A. Analysis
B. Processing
C. Implementation
D. Information gathering
A

Information gathering

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2
Q

In hazardous materials incidents, what key piece of information is most critical? (270)
A. Identity of the hazardous materials
B. Quantity of hazardous material spilled
C. Emergency response center contact number
D. Location of the nearest hazardous material response team

A

Identity of the hazardous materials

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3
Q 
Which of the following is the mental process of considering all available factors that will affect an incident during the course of the operation? (271)
A. Size-up
B. Scene analysis
C. Risk assessment
D. Hazard assessment
A

Size-up

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4
Q 
Which of the following is necessary size-up information that can be obtained at the time the incident is reported? (273)
A. Unusual signs
B. Product travel
C. Amount of product involved
D. Number and type of injuries
A

Number and type of injuries

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5
Q

When should the incident level be determined? (275)
A. After initial size-up
B. Before initial size-up
C. After establishing strategic goals
D. After establishing tactical objectives

A

After initial size-up

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6
Q 
Which incident level is within the capabilities of the fire and emergency services organization? (275)
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV
A

Level I

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7
Q

Strategic goals and tactical objectives should be based on all of the following EXCEPT their ability to: (279)
A. be achieved.
B. utilize the least number of resources.
C. prevent further injuries and/or deaths.
D. minimize environmental and property damage.

A

utilize the least number of resources.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a principle of risk-based response? (280)
A. Activities that present a significant safety risk are never acceptable
B. Activities that present a significant safety risk shall be limited to situations involving property protection
C. No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property
D. No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable unless property or the environment is endangered

A

No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property

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9
Q 
The selection of a mode of operation is based on: (280)
A. level of training.
B. risk to the public.
C. risk to the environment.
D. number of potential victims involved.
A

level of training.

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10
Q 
Which factor in determining modes of operation is stated in terms of YES or NO? (281)
A. Size
B. Time
C. Value
D. Life safety
A

Value

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11
Q

Which of the following circumstances calls for defensive operations? (282)
A. Explosions are imminent
B. Serious container damage threatens a massive release
C. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders
D. Responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin

A

Responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin

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12
Q 
In which of the following modes of operation do responders take aggressive, direct action? (283)
A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Intervening
D. Nonintervening
A

Offensive

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13
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an element of an incident action plan (IAP)? (284-285)
A. Accomplishments
B. After-action analysis
C. Resource assignment
D. Safety plan and message
A

After-action analysis

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14
Q 
When should the IAP be implemented? (285)
A. After evaluating the progress
B. After terminating the incident
C. After selecting strategic goals
D. Before selecting tactical objectives
A

After selecting strategic goals

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15
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the isolation perimeter is MOST accurate? (286)
A. The isolation perimeter is static and cannot be changed.
B. The isolation perimeter is comprised of three separate circles.
C. The isolation perimeter is used only to control egress from the incident site.
D. The isolation perimeter is determined by the outcome of an onsite risk assessment.

A

The isolation perimeter is determined by the outcome of an onsite risk assessment.

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16
Q 
Which of the following zones includes the area surrounding an incident that is potentially very dangerous because it presents a threat in the form of a hazardous material or the effects thereof? (288)
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Warm
D. Scene-control
A

Hot

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17
Q 
The work performed within the hot zone is limited to: (288)
A. command staff.
B. first responders.
C. highly trained personnel.
D. emergency medical personnel.
A

highly trained personnel.

18
Q 
Which of the following zones is used to carry out all logistical support functions of the incident? (290)
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Warm
D. Scene-control
A

Cold

19
Q

Where should the staging area be located? (290)
A. Outside of all three hazard zones
B. At an isolated spot in the cold zone
C. At a point of egress in the warm zone
D. At a central location within the hot zone

A

At an isolated spot in the cold zone

20
Q 
Notification involves contacting \_\_\_ whenever a terrorist or criminal incident is suspected. (292)
A. law enforcement
B. federal authorities
C. emergency medical services
D. the authority having jurisdiction
A

law enforcement

21
Q

In the U.S., the notification process is described in: (293)
A. NFPA® 1001.
B. a local emergency response plan (LERP).
C. the National Response Framework (NRF).
D. the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG).

A

the National Response Framework (NRF).

22
Q

Which of the following should be the first response a U.S. responder should turn to if they need to request outside assistance? (293)
A. The local emergency response plan (LERP)
B. The National Response Framework (NRF)
C. The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
D. The Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

A

The local emergency response plan (LERP)

23
Q

Protection goals are accomplished by: (293-294)
A. providing decontamination.
B. making arrests when necessary.
C. collecting evidence at the scene.
D. keeping all personnel within the hot zone.

A

providing decontamination.

24
Q 
Which of the following is the FIRST priority at any incident? (295)
A. Protection of property
B. Protection of the public
C. Protection of responders
D. Protection of the environment
A

Protection of responders

25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a measure to protect responders? (295)
A. Assigning safety officers
B. Wearing appropriate PPE
C. Evacuating all personnel from the hazard zone
D. Staying uphill, upwind, and upstream of hazardous materials

A

Evacuating all personnel from the hazard zone

26
Q 
Who is primarily responsible for an accountability system? (295)
A. First responders
B. The Safety Officer
C. The officer in charge
D. The Incident Commander
A

The Incident Commander

27
Q 
Which of the following measures to protect responders provides rapid help in the event of an emergency? (296)
A. Buddy systems
B. Backup personnel
C. Accountability systems
D. Time, distance, and shielding
A

Buddy systems

28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding backup personnel is MOST accurate? (296)
A. Backup personnel should include at least five members.
B. Backup personnel should include advanced life support personnel.
C. Backup personnel should be dressed in PPE at least one level above entry personnel.
D. Backup personnel shall be standing by with equipment ready to provide assistance if needed.

A

Backup personnel shall be standing by with equipment ready to provide assistance if needed.

29
Q 
Which protection strategy places a physical barrier between a responder and the hazard? (297)
A. Time
B. Distance
C. Shielding
D. Hazard-control zone
A

Shielding

30
Q 
What is the FEMA US&R signal for evacuation? (297-298)
A. One long blast
B. Two long blasts
C. Three short blasts
D. One long and one short blast
A

Three short blasts

31
Q 
Protection of the public is based on which of the following factors? (298)
A. Time of day
B. Location of victims
C. Probability of rescue
D. Material considerations
A

Material considerations

32
Q 
Which of the following should be used to determine who is most threatened by the incident? (299)
A. Age of victims
B. Status of victims
C. Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
D. Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
A

Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

33
Q 
Which means of protecting the public means to direct people to go quickly inside a building and remain inside until danger passes? (301)
A. Rescue
B. Evacuation
C. Sheltering in place
D. Defending in place
A

Sheltering in place

34
Q 
Protection of property and the environment is what type of control tactic? (303)
A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Intervention
D. Non-intervention
A

Defensive

35
Q

In order to protect the environment, all released materials and runoff need to be confined until: (304)
A. the incident is over.
B. their effect can be determined.
C. wildlife in the area can be removed.
D. at least one week after the initial incident.

A

their effect can be determined.

36
Q 
Which of the following deals with returning the incident scene and responders to a pre-incident level of readiness? (304)
A. Analysis
B. Recovery
C. Debriefing
D. Termination
A

Recovery

37
Q 
What information should be included in an on-scene debriefing? (305)
A. Important observations
B. Proper documentation of costs
C. Signs and symptoms of an exposure
D. Exposure documentation procedures
A

Important observations

38
Q 
Which of the following is mandated by OSHA? (305)
A. On-scene recovery
B. On-scene debriefing
C. After-action analysis
D. Hazardous communication briefing
A

Hazardous communication briefing

39
Q 
Which of the following involves documenting the incident and using this information to evaluate the response? (306)
A. Analysis
B. Recovery
C. Evaluation
D. Termination
A

Recovery

40
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of a critique? (306)
A. To place blame
B. To identify operational deficiencies
C. To determine operational strengths
D. To compile information obtained from reports and debriefings

A

To identify operational deficiencies

41
Q 
Which of the following forms the basis for improved response? (306)
A. On-scene critique
B. On-scene debriefing
C. After-action analysis
D. Hazardous communication briefing
A

After-action analysis

Hazardous Material for First Responders Fourth Edition (17 decks)

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