Chapter 7 : Metabolic Regulation Flashcards

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1
Q

What is gene expression?

A

Transcription of a gene followed by the translation of the resulting mRNA into proteins. Once proteins are made additional mechanisms can regulate their activity.

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2
Q

Cells use 2 major approaches to regulate protein function, in which one regulates the activity of a preformed enzyme or other protein , and the second controls the amount of the enzyme or other protein. (T/F)

A

True

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3
Q

After translation what are the other regulatory processes can occur?

A

feedback inhibition, covalent modification, degradation, and interactions with other proteins can further regulate the activity of some proteins.

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4
Q

what is a green florescent protein (GFP)?

A

A type of reporter protein that fluoresces green and is widely used in genetic analysis. By allowing us to determine the the cellular location of each sigma factor.

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5
Q

what occurs for a gene to be transcribed?

A

the RNA polymerase must recognize a specific promoter on the DNA and begin its activity; small molecules often influence the binding sites of regulatory proteins to specific sites on DNA and turning off/on transcription.

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6
Q

Because of its size, the minor groove of DNA is the main site of protein binding and identified atoms of these bases in the minor groove that are known to interact with proteins. (T/F)

A

False- They bind in the major groove

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7
Q

Where do binding proteins acquire their high specificity and binding locations?

A

Specificity is acquired by the interactions between specific amino acid side chains of the proteins and sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA; to achieve high specificity , the binding protein must interact simultaneously with several nucleotides; usually the inverted repeats are where the regulatory proteins bind.

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8
Q

What is a domain on a protein?

A

A region of a protein having a defined structure and function.

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9
Q

What is the helix-turn-helix structure?

A

A structure that consist of 2 segments of polypeptide chain that have an alpha-helix secondary structure connected by by a short sequence forming a turn that is connected by 3 amino acid residues, and is critical to for proper binding to DNA.

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10
Q

What is a zinc finger and a leucine zipper ?

A

they are protein domains; zinc finger, binds a zinc ion, and leucine zipper contain leucine resides that hold DNA in the correct orientation to bind to.

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11
Q

What is negative control?

A

A mechanism for regulating gene expression in which a repressor protein prevents transcription genes.

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12
Q

What is enzyme repression?

A

Prevention of the synthesis of an enzyme in response to a signal. And is widespread in bacteria as a means of controlling the synthesis of enzymes required for the production of amino acids nucleobases.

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13
Q

What is enzyme induction?

A

Production of an enzyme in response to a signal (often the presence of the substrate for the enzyme)

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14
Q

What is the difference between an inducer and a corepressor?

A

Both are called effectors, though an inducer induces enzyme synthesis while a corepressor represses enzyme synthesis during transcription.

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15
Q

What is a repressor protein?

A

A regulatory protein that binds to specific sites on DNA and blocks transcription, involved in negative control.

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16
Q

What does it mean for the repressor protein to be allosteric?

A

An enzyme that contains 2 combining sites, an active site for binding substrate and an allosteric site for binding an effector molecule such as the end product of a biochemical pathway.

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17
Q

What is an operon?

A

One or more genes transcribed into a single RNA and under the control of a single operator (regulatory site). located downstream of the promoter where mRNA is initiated.

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18
Q

How is repressor active in repression?

A

By binding its effector (the inducer) repressor protein is activated and can then bind to a specific area on the DNA near the promoter, physically blocking transcription.

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19
Q

How is a repressor active in induction?

A

The repressor protein is active in the absence of the inducer, completely blocking transcription, when an inducer is added it combines with the repressor protein and transcription can proceed.

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20
Q

What is Positive Control?

A

A mechanism for regulating gene expression in which an activator protein functions to promote transcription of genes.

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21
Q

What is an activator protein?

A

A regulatory protein that binds to specific sites on DNA and stimulates transcription; involved in positive control.

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22
Q

Where do activator proteins bind?

A

The binding site of the activator is called the activator-binding site which acts as the operator in negative control. but both are still called an operon.

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23
Q

Because the promoters of positively controlled operons have nucleotide sequences that bind RNA polymerase weakly and are poor matches for consensus sequence, thus even the correct sigma factor RNA polymerase has difficulty binding to these promoters thus the role of the activator protein is to help RNA polymerase to recognize the the promoter and begin transcription. (T/F)

A

True

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24
Q

What is a Regulon?

A

A regulon is a set of operons that are all controlled by the same regulatory protein (repressor or activator). In regular control a specific DNA-binding protein binds only at the operons it controls regardless of whether it is an activator or repressor, other operons not affected.

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25
Q

What are global control systems?

A

Regulatory mechanisms that respond to environmental signals by regulating the expression of many different genes.

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26
Q

What is Catabolite repression?

A

The suppression of alternative catabolic pathways by a preferred source of carbon and energy. The key point is that the favored substrate is a better carbon and energy source than other available sources.

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27
Q

What happens during diauxic growth?

A

Occurs when 2 available energy sources are present, the better energy source is used up first followed by a lag period when depleted and again followed by growth using the second energy source.

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28
Q

Catabolite repression relies on (CRP) cyclic AMP receptor protein a repressor protein in negative control. (T/F)

A

False- does rely on CRP but it is an activator protein in positive control.

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29
Q

What is Cyclic AMP?

A

A regulatory nucleotide that participates in catabolite repression.

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30
Q

Fun FACTS#1 Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP from an enzyme called adenylate cyclase, however glucose inhibits the synthesis of cyclic AMP and also stimulates cyclic AMP transport out of the cell.

A

Fun FACTS#2 When glucose enters the cell, the cyclic AMP level is lowered, CRP cannot bind to DNA, and RNA polymerase fails to bind to the promoters of operons subject to catabolite repression.

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31
Q

In order for the Lac genes to be transcribed what are the 2 requirements necessary?

A

1) the level of the cyclic AMP must be high enough for the CRP protein to bind to the CRP-binding site and 2)lactose or another suitable inducer must be present so that the lactose repressor do not block the transcription by binding to the promoter. signals that glucose is absent and lac operon can begin.

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32
Q

What are the 2 alternative approaches to regulating the activity of RNA polymerase?

A

Common in Bacteria- use DNA-binding proteins that either block RNA polymerase activity or stimulate its activity. In Eukaryotes coordinate numerous DNA-binding proteins known as transcription factors to interact with RNA polymerase. Archea have both types of regulatory proteins by blocking the RNA polymerase itself or by blocking the TBP and TFP proteins necessary for the binding of the promoter.

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33
Q

What is a signal transduction?

A

A process in which the external signal is not transmitted directly to the regulatory protein but instead is detected by a sensor that transmits it to the rest of the regulatory machinery.

34
Q

What is a two-component regulatory system?

A

Because most signal transduction systems contain 2 components the two-component regulatory system is a regulatory system that consists of a sensor protein and a response regulator protein.

35
Q

What is a sensor kinase protein?

A

One of the members of the two-component system; kinase is found in the cell membrane that phosphorylates itself in response to an external signal and then passes the phosphoryl group to a response regulator protein.

36
Q

What is a Response regulator protein?

A

One of the members of a two-component system; a regulatory protein that is phosphorylated by a sensor protein.

37
Q

Why are sensor kinase part of enzymes called histidine kinases?

A

sensor kinase detects a signal from the environment and phosphorylates themselves using auto-phosphorylation at a specific histidine residue.

38
Q

What is a feedback loop and how does it work in a balanced regulatory system?

A

A feedback loop is a way to complete the regulatory circuit and terminate the response, thus reseting the system for another cycle. By employing a phosphatase, an enzyme that removes the phosphate from the response regulator at a constant rate until the system is reset.

39
Q

How do prokaryotes regulate chemotaxis part 1 response to a signal in E.Colli ?

A

The mechanism of chemotaxis depends upon a signal cascade of multiple proteins where a signal proteins known as methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs) sense the attractants or repellants. MCPs contact CheA and CheW which leads to the autophzsphylation of CheA - where attractants decrease the rate of phosphorylation and repellents increase the rate, then passing the phosphate to CheY (flagellar rotation) or CheB (adaptation)

40
Q

How do prokaryotes regulate chemotaxis part 2 controlling flagellar rotation?

A

CheY governs the direction of rotation of the flagellum, if CheY interacts with the flagellar motor when it is phosphorylated inducing tumbling (clockwise) if unphosphorylated can be done with CheZ cannot bind to flagellar motor it induces a run (counterclockwise)

41
Q

How do prokaryotes regulate Chemotaxis part 3 - Adaptation

A

This is accomplished by methylation and demethylation of MCPs by CheR and phosphorylated CheB-P in order to move away or towards a repellent or attractant.

42
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

A regulatory system that monitors the population size and controls gene expression based on cell density.

43
Q

What is an autoinducer?

A

A small molecule used in quorum sensing typically preformed by gram negative bacteria and typically bind to specific transcriptional proteins and begin transcription of certain genes.

44
Q

Some Eukaryotes produce molecules that specifically interfere with quorum sensing as they can be used to control several virulence proteins in pathogenic bacteria. (T/F)

A

True

45
Q

What is responsible for the production of biofilms in bacteria?

A

The accumulation of cyclic di-GMP (only produced by prokaryotes) in the cell and function by binding to riboswitches that are controlled by environmental and cell cues for synthesis.

46
Q

What is the heat shock response?

A

Response to high temperatures that include the synthesis of heat shock proteins together with other changes in gene expression;largely controlled by sigma bonds.

47
Q

What are heat shock proteins?

A

Proteins induced by high temperature (or certain other stresses) that protect against high temperature, especially by refolding partial denatured protein or degrading them.
Assisting them to recover from stress such as excessive heat, chemicals, or physical agents.

48
Q

What are the 3 major classes of heat shock proteins?

A

Hsp70-prevents aggregation of newly synthesized proteins and stabilizes unfounded proteins, Hsp60 and Hsp10- are molecular chaperones that catalyze the correct refolding of misfolded proteins.

49
Q

What controls the heat shock response?

A

RpoH-controls the expression of heat shock proteins in the cytoplasm, and the RpoE- regulates the expression of a different set of proteins that function in the periplasm and cell envelope.

50
Q

What happens to the cell when it begins to denature?

A

The more denatured the proteins there are, the lower the level of free DnaK and the higher the level of RpoH, resulting in heat shock gene expression.

51
Q

Cold can also be a stressor to the cell. (T/F)

A

True- but instead of heat shock proteins being released cold shock proteins are released in which some prevent the RNA secondary binding formation and others unwind the region of RNA.

52
Q

What are the 3 major phases for the regulation of differentiation?

A

1) triggering the response,
2) development of the differential cell
3) reciprocal communication between the two differentiating and undifferentiated cells.

53
Q

What triggers endospore formation?

A

Unfavorable conditions such as starvation, desiccation, or growth-inhibititory temperature.

54
Q

What are the steps to endospore formation?

A

Spo0A controls the expression of genes, phosphate on inactive SpoIIAA is removed by SpoIIE, active SpoIIAA binds to SpoIIAB, and sigmaF-developing endospore is released, sigma F is inactivated when bound to SpoIIAB, Signal from endospore activates sigmaE- mother cell early endospore genes are transcribed , signal from mother cell triggers synthesis of sigmaG in endospore and pro-sigmaK in mother cell, signal from endospore activates sigma K and creates the many spore coats are formed and mature spore is released.

55
Q

How do cells obtain the nutrience to complete the formation of endospores?

A

When Spo0A is activated it secretes a protein in which lyses the nearby cells whose proteins has not yet been activated in addition to the toxin, cells committed to spoliation also secrete an antitoxin in which protects the cell against their own toxin effects, and the sacrificed sister cells are used as a source of nutrients for developing endospores.

56
Q

What are the 3 major regulatory proteins that control the stalked cell formation?

A

GcrA,CtrA, and DnaA- functions in both the initiation of Dna replication and and also as a transcription regulator.

57
Q

How is the Caulobacter cell cycle controlled?

A

CtrA is activated by the phosphorylation of in response to external signals and once phosphorylated it activates the genes necessary to for the synthesis of the flagella and other functions in swarmer cells, and also represses the the synthesis of GcrA and inhibits the initiation of DNA replication by binding to and blocking the the origin of replication.As it proceeds CtrA is degraded by specific protease and levels of DnaA rise.

58
Q

What happens in the absence of CtrA-P in Caulobacter

A

this allows access to the chromosomal origin and DnaA binds to the origin and triggers the initiation of DNA replication and other genes necessary for chromosomal replication, as this occurs the level of DnaA is degraded and CtrA levels rise.

59
Q

What does the GcrA promoter do?

A

promotes the elongation phase of chromosomal replication,cell division, and growth of stalk on the immobile daughter cell.

60
Q

In eukaryotes what is the G1,G2, M and S phase in order?

A

G1-growth and normal metabolic events occur,G2-the cell prepares for mitotic events, M- mitotic events occur, and S-where DNA replication occurs.

61
Q

What is nitrogen fixation

A

the process of reducing N2 to NH3 for incorporation of into biological molecules.

62
Q

What enzyme catalyzes nitrogen fixation?

A

nitrogenase; which is composed of 2 proteins dinitrogenase and dintrogenase reductase.

63
Q

Nitrogen fixation is enhanced by O2, and fixed forms of nitrogen as NH3 or NO3, and certain amino acids. A major part of the regulation occurs in the expression of nif structural genes, whose transcription is activated by the positive regulator nifA and, and the negative regulator nifL which contains the FAD that functions as an O2 sensor. (T/F)

A

Fasle- O2 nor the other molecules mentioned enhance the nitrogen fixation process but inhibit it.

64
Q

What are heterocysts and how are they formed?

A

Heterocysts are nitrogen fixing cells, and is initiated by nitrogen limitation, which is sensed by an elevation in alpha-ketoglutarate which in turn activates transcriptional global regulator NtcA- which activates transcription of HetR-activates genes necessary for the differentiation of heterocyst , such as cytochrome c oxidase to remove O2 as well as the nif operon for the synthesis of nitrogenase.

65
Q

How is PatA and PatS used in heterocyst formation?

A

PatA- promotes the activity of HetR and decreases the activity of PatS. PatS- believed to inhibit differentiation by preventing HetR from activating genes necessary for the formation of heterocyst.

66
Q

What are noncoding RNA (cRNA)?

A

An RNA that is not translated into a protein. includes tRNA,and rRNA

67
Q

What are sRNA

A

40-400 nucleotides that are used to control gene expression by base pairing to other RNA molecules usually mRNA adding segments of double stranded RNA and thus is used to regulate protein synthesis once the corresponding mRNA has been transcribed.

68
Q

What are the mechanisms in which sRNA alter the translation of their mRNA target? the 4 distinct ways

A

Some sRNA can change the mRNA secondary structure to either (1) block or (2) open up a previously available ribosome binding site. Or the sRNA can affect the stability of mRNA and can either increase or decrease the degradation of the transcript by bacterial ribonucleases, thus modulating protein expression.

69
Q

What are the types of sRNA?

A

antisense small RNA-enhanced when genes need to be turned off determining how often replication is initiated, and trans-sRNA-depends on Hfq (RNA chaperones) a protein that binds to both RNA molecules and hexametric rings on both RNA binding sites.

70
Q

What are ribozymes?

A

RNA molecules that are catalytically active

71
Q

What is an riboswitch?

A

An RNA domain, usually in an mRNA molecule that can bind a specific small molecule and alter its secondary structure depending on the presence or absence of this small molecule ;this in turn controls translation of the mRNA because it occurs after mRNA has already been synthesized. Usually controlling the expression on the mRNA molecule.

72
Q

How does a riboswitch control translation?

A

When a metabolite binds to the 5’ end of the mRNA preventing translation from occurring when there is not a sufficient amount of proteins the metabolite will dissolve and the translation of the enzymes for the metabolic pathway will be synthesized.

73
Q

What is attenuation?

A

In a pathogen, a decrease or loss of virulence. Also a mechanism for controlling gene expression; typically, transcription is terminated after initiation but before a full-length mRNA is produced. and absent from Eukaryea.

74
Q

The basic principle of attenuation is that first part of the mRNA to be made, called the leader , can fold into 2 alternative secondary structures. Where one allows the synthesis of the mRNA, and the other causes premature termination. (T/F)

A

True

75
Q

How does attenuation control translation?

A

Because a portion of the newly formed mRNA folds into a unique stem-loop structure by base pairing that inhibits the RNA polymerase activity. If it is plentiful ribosomes translate the leader sequence until it comes to the stop codon. the remainder of the sequence forms a stem-loop which is followed by a uricil rich sequence that causes termination. If it is limited in the cell the ribosomes stalls at the codon and allows a stem loop to form but preventing sites 3&4 from forming and allows the RNA to move past transcription and initiate translation of structural genes.

76
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

A decrease in the activity of the first enzyme of a biochemical pathway caused by a buildup of the final product of the pathway. Temporarily shutting off the entire biosynthetic pathway.

77
Q

How does feedback inhibition work?

A

This occurs because the enzyme has 2 binding sites, the active site-binds substrate and the allosteric site-binds the end product. if the allosteric site is bound it prevents the active site from binding if the allosteric is not bound to the enzyme returns to its catalytic form and becomes active.

78
Q

What are isoenzymes?

A

different proteins that catalyze the same reaction but are subject to different regulatory controls.

79
Q

When does isoenzyme activity drop low?

A

When all 3 end products are present in excess.

80
Q

Biosynthetic enzymes cannot be regulated by the attachment of other small molecules like nucleotides such as adenosine monophosphate (AMP) and adenosine diphosphate, or methylation. (T/F)

A

False- they can be regulated by these molecules.

81
Q

How is Glutamine Synthase a key enzyme in ammonia assimilation.

A

Because each molecule of GS is composed of 12 identical subunits and AMP groups are used to adenylate the molecule (that is,each molecule contains 12 AMP groups0 it is fully deactivated. If it is partially adenylated then the enzyme is partially active.