Chapter 7: Medicines and Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Drug admin: do not pass through liver first (no first-pass metabolism)

A

Sublingual and rectal drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drug admin: based on lipid solubility through the epidermis

A

Skin absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drug admin: restricted to nonionized, lipid-soluble drugs

A

CSF absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Largely responsible for binding drugs (PCNs and warfarin 90% bound)

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Will displace unconjugated bilirubin from albumin in newborns (avoid in newborns)

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are tetracycline and heavy metals stored?

A

In bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Constant amount of drug is eliminated regardless of dose

A

Zero order kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drug eliminated proportional to dose

A

First order kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many half-lives for a drug to reach steady state?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Amount of drug in the body divided by the amount of drug in plasma or blood.

A

Volume of distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drugs with a high volume of distribution: extravascular vs intravascular concentratoins

A

High volume of distribution: higher concentrations in extravascular compartment (e.g., fat tissue) compared with intravascular concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation

A

Bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bioavailability intravenous drugs

A

100% bioavailability IV drugs, less other routes (e.g., oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drug level at which desired effect occurs in 50% of patients

A

ED-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drug level at which death occurs in 50% of patients

A

LD-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Effect at an unusually low dose

A

Hyperactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tolerance after only a few doses

A

Tachyphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dose required for effect

A

Potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ability to achieve result without untoward effect

A

Efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Drug metabolism: components of Phase 1

A

Demethylation, oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis reactions (mixed function oxidases, requires NADPH/oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug metabolism: components of Phase 2

A

Glucuronic acid (#1) and sulfates attached (forms water-soluble metabolite); usually inactive and ready for excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Def: biliary excreted drugs may become deconjugated in intestines with reabsorption, some in active form

A

Entero-hepatic recirculation (eg, cyclosporine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Inhibitors of p-450

A

Cimetidine. Isoniazid. Ketoconazole. Erythromycin. Cipro. Flagyl. Allopurinol. Verapamil. Amiodarone. MAOIs. Disfulfiram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Inducers of p-450

A

Cruciform vegetables. ETOH. Insecticides. Cigarette smoke. Phenobarbital (barbiturates). Dilantin. Theophylline. Warfarin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Most important organ for eliminating most drugs (glomerular filtration and tubular secretion)
Kidney
26
- Ionized - Water soluble - More likely to be eliminated in unaltered form
Polar drugs
27
- Non-ionized - Fat soluble - More likely metabolized before excretion
Nonpolar drugs
28
Caused by uric acid build up | - End product of purine metabolism
Gout
29
Anti-inflamamtory | - Binds tubulin and inhibits migration of WBCs
Colchicine
30
- NSAID | - Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis (reversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor)
Indomethacin
31
- Xanthine oxidase inhibitor | - Blocks uric acid formation from xanthine
Allopurinol
32
Increases renal secretion of uric acid
Probenecid
33
Binds bile acids in gut, forcing body to resynthesize bile acids from cholesterol, thereby lowering body cholesterol; can bind vitamin K and cause bleeding tendency
Cholecystramine (lipid-lowering agents)
34
- Statin drugs - Can cause liver dysfunction - Rhabdomyolysis
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
35
- Inhibits cholesterol synthesis - Can cause flushing - Tx: ASA
Niacin
36
- Inhibits dopamine receptors - SE: tardive dyskinesia - Tx: diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Promethazine (Phenergan, antiemetic)
37
- Inhibits dopamine receptors | - Can be used to increase gastric and gut motility
Metoclopramide (Reglan, prokinetic)
38
Central-acting serotonin receptor inhibitor
Ondansetron (Zofran, antiemetic)
39
- Proton pump inhibitor | - Blocks H/K ATPase in stomach parietal cells
Omeprazole
40
Histamine H2 receptor blockers | - Decrease acid in stomach
Cimetidine / ranitidine
41
Long-acting somatostatin analogue | - Decreases gut secretions
Octreotide
42
- Inhibits Na/K ATPase and increases myocardial calcium - Slows atrial-ventricular conduction - Inotrope - Not cleared with dialysis - SE: Visual changes (yellow hue), fatigue, arrhythmias
Digoxin
43
Why has digoxin been implicated in causing mesenteric ischemia?
Decreases blood flow to intestines
44
- Good for acute atrial and ventricular arrhythmias | - SE: pulmonary fibrosis w/ prolonged use; can also cause hypo- and hyperthyroidism
Amiodarone
45
Used to treat tornadoes de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
Magnesium
46
Causes transient interruption of the AV node
Adenosine
47
- Best single agent shown to improve survival in patients with CHF - Can prevent CHF after MI - Can prevent progression of renal dysfxn in pts with HTN and DM. - Can precipitate renal failure in patients with renal artery stenosis
ACE inhibitors | angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
48
What increases the sensitivity of the heart to digitalis?
Hypokalemia | - Can precipitate arrhythmias or AV block
49
- May prolong life in patients with severe LV failure | - Reduce risk of MI and atrial fibrillation post
Beta blockers
50
Best single agent shown to improve survival after myocardial infarction
Beta-blockers
51
- Acetylcholine antagonist | - Increases heart rate
Atropine
52
- Inhibit adrenal steroid synthesis | - Used in patients with adrenocortical CA
Metyrapone and aminoglutethimide
53
- analogue of GnRH and LHRH - Inhibitors release of LH and FSH form pituitary when given continuously (paradoxic effect) - Used in patients with metastatic prostate CA
Leuprolide
54
Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and leads to decreased mucus and HCO3- secretion and increased acid production (mechanism of ulcer formation)
NSAIDs
55
a PGE1 derivative; a protective prostaglandin used to prevent peptic ulcer disease; consider use in patients on chronic NSAIDs
Misoprostol
56
- Antipsychotic - Inhibits dopamine receptors - Can cause extrapyramidal manifestations (Tx: benadryl)
Haldol
57
Tinnitus, headaches, nausea, and vomiting.
ASA poisoning
58
Two manifestations of aspirin poisoning
1st: respiratory alkalosis 2nd: metabolic acidosis
59
MC side effect of gadolinium
Nausea
60
Iodine: - MC side effect? - MC side effect requiring medical treatment?
Iodine: - MC side effect: nausea - MC side effect requiring medical treatment: dyspnea
61
Tx: tylenol overdose
N-acetylcysteine
62
pharmacokinetics principles
``` dissolution absorption distribution metabolism secretion ```
63
mechanism of cholestyramine
bind of bile acids and prevent reabsorption?
64
mechanism of weight loss medication?
sibutramine --> inhibition of neurotransmitter reuptake orlistat --> bind and inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipases --> prevent absorption of free fatty acid and decrease triglycerides production