Chapter 63 Collagens, Elastic Fibers, and Other Extracellular Matrix Proteins of the Dermis Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

most of collagens have a modular structure, and composed of one, a few, or several copies of a limited set of individual structural modules, also called

A

domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ determines the biophysical properties of connective tissues

A

ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

collagens approx ___% of the dry weight of the dermis

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Classical and 1st recognized physiologic role of collagens in the skin _________

A

provide tensile properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

first member of the collagens family, the most abundant collagens in the dermis and most other connective tissues

A

Type I collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

______ the smallest amino acid, accounts for approximately 1/3 the total number of amino acids, evenly distributed along the polypeptide

A

glycine (Gly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

______ in every 3rd position are necessary for the triple-helical conformation of the collagens molecule, and ______ plays a critical role in stabilizing the triple helix at body temperature

A

glycine

hydroxyproline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Triple-helical conformation defines the so-called ______, and it gives type I collagens many of its unique properties

A

collagenous domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____ collagens represents approx 10% of the total collagens in the adult human dermis

A

Type III collagen

relatively high content of hydroxyproline and glycine and the presence of one cysteine residue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

______ and _____form the relatively broad extracellular fibers that are primarily responsible for the tensile strength of the human dermis

A

collagen types I and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_____ represents < 5% of the total collagens

A

Type V collagen

postulated to regulate the fiber diameter during fibrillogenesis

mutations in type V collagens genes in patients with classical autosomal dominant forms (types I and II) of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

absence of _____ autosomal recessive form of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Tenascin X expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ typical component of basement membranes, where it forms a lattice rather than the fibers characteristic of dermal collagens

A

collagen type IV

contain imperfect Gly-X-Y triplets, a feature that confers flexibility to the triple-helical domain of the molecule

A noncollagenous globular domain at the amino-terminal part of the molecule mediates dimer formation, while a short segment at the carboxyl-terminal region of the molecule allows for tetramer assembly, altogether resulting in the so-called “chicken-wire” assembly network for collagens type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mutation in _____ gene has been identified in a family with autosomal dominant porencephaly and infantile hemiparesis

A

mutation in the COL4A1 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mutations in the COL4A5 gene result in _____, an X-linked renal disease

A

Alport syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Autoantibodies recognizing the collagens α3(IV) chain underlie ______

A

Goodpasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

______ collagen forms specific microfibrils in the dermis

A

Type VI collagens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_____ collagens forms the anchoring fibrils of the DEJ

A

type VII collagens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mutations in each of the three type VI collagens genes can lead to different forms of _______

A

congenital muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alterations in the expression, structure, or molecular interactions of ____ with other basement membrane components could result in dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa (DEB)

A

type VII collagen

COL7A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____ collagen, Transmembrane protein anchored in the membrane of basal keratinocytes, with an intracellular domain and a large extracellular domain, or ectodomain, which is a component of the basement membrane at DEJ

A

type XVII collagen

initially identified as the 180-kDa bullous pemphigoid antigen (BPAG2), which was recognized by circulating autoantibodies in the sera of patients with bullous pemphigoid or herpes gestationis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mutations in the corresponding gene _____ that underlie a nonlethal variant of junctional epidermolysis bullosa, generalized atrophic benign epidermolysis bullosa

A

gene COL17A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Collagens genes, like most eukaryotic genes, are large, multiexon genes interrupted at several points by noncoding DNA sequences called _____

A

introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Precursor polypeptides of procollagen, so-called ______, are synthesized on the ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum in fibroblasts and related cells

A

pre-proa chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The hydroxylation reactions are catalyzed by enzymes belonging to the prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase families
These enzymes require _____, _____, _____ and a reducing agent, such as _____ as cosubstrates or cofactors for the reactions

A

molecular oxygen
ferrous iron
α-ketoglutarate
ascorbate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

critical amount of _______ is a prerequisite for the folding of α chains into the triple helix, the conformation required for secretion of procollagens molecules out of the cells

A

trans-4-hydroxy-l-proline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

triple-helix formation takes place in the

A

cisternae of the rough endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

prolyl hydroxylase requires a reducing agent, such as ascorbate, for its activity, ascorbic acid deficiency leads to a decreased formation of collagens fibers.
This explains some of the clinical manifestations in ____, such as poor wound healing and decreased tensile strength of the connective tissues

A

scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

decreased healing tendency of wounds and ulcers in peripheral tissues that are _____

A

anoxic due to relatively poor blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

master regulator of hypoxia-inducible genes

A

α subunit of the hypoxia-inducible transcription factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

glycosylation reactions use ______ as a source of the carbohydrate and require ____ as a cofactor

A

uridine diphosphate sugars

Mn2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase has been identified in patients with the

A
scoliotic form (type VI) of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
(hyperextensible skin, loose-jointedness, severe kyphoscoliosis, and ocular fragility)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

association of proα1 and proα2 chains in a proper ___ ratio during the synthesis of type I procollagen

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

conversion of type I procollagens to collagens is catalyzed by two specific enzymes, ____ and _____ that separately remove the amino-terminal and carboxyl-terminal extensions, respectively

A

(1) procollagens N-proteinase and

(2) procollagens C-proteinase,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

____ is required for the removal of the carboxyl-terminal extension from type I, II, III, and V procollagen, which allows the fully processed molecules to form functional fibers

A

C-proteinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

_____ catalyzing the conversion of type III procollagens to collagens

A

N-proteinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

______ caused by deficiency in N-proteinase activity

A

dermatosparaxis type of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome (type VIIc)

the arthrochalasia type of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome (types VIIa and VIIb), can be caused by mutations in the type I collagens genes (COL1A1 and COL1A2, respectively) at the cleavage site for the N-proteinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

these fibers do not attain the necessary tensile strength until the molecules are linked together by specific covalent bonds known as _______

A

cross-links

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

First step in the cross-linking of collagens is the enzymatic conversion of_______ to ______ by removal of the ε-amino groups

A

some of the lysyl and hydroxylysyl residues to the corresponding aldehyde derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

First step in collagens cross-linking, the oxidative deamination of certain lysyl and hydroxylysyl residues, is catalyzed by ____

A

lysyl oxidase

requires copper as a cofactor, and its activity is readily inhibited by nitriles, such as β-aminopropionitrile, which produce lathyrism in animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

occipital horn syndrome (previously known as Ehlers–Danlos syndrome type IX), which results _______

A

from reduced lysyl oxidase activity

primary defect resides in perturbed copper metabolism caused by mutations in a copper transport enzyme protein, an adenosine triphosphatase encoded by the gene MNK-1 that is also involved in Menkes syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

_______ modulate type I collagens gene expression both in vitro and in vivo

A

Retinoids, such as all-trans- retinoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

_____ can induce the expression of other growth factors, in particular the expression of connective tissue growth factor in fibroblasts

A

TGF-β

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_____ was the first enzyme of the MMP family to be discovered and was defined by its ability to break down triple-helical collagens that is resistant to most proteases

A

Interstitial collagenase (MMP-1)

MMP-1 contains intrinsic zinc in the active site and requires calcium for its activity and thermostabilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

____ attacks collagens at the same site, as does human MMP-1, to produce the characteristic three-quarter/one-quarter collagens fragments.

A

Human neutrophil interstitial collagenase (MMP-8)

higher degree of glycosylation than MMP-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Although both fibroblast (MMP-1) and neutrophil (MMP-8) collagenases have similar affinities for type I and III collagens, _____ degrades soluble type III collagens with a higher turnover rate, whereas _____ degrades soluble type I collagens more rapidly.

A

fibroblast collagenase

neutrophil collagenase

47
Q

______ anchored at the cell surface has profound implications concerning the generation of the forces required for cell locomotion, not only in the normal physiologic processes of tissue remodeling but also in pathologic processes, such as tumor invasion

A

MT1–MMP complex

48
Q

unlike interstitial and neutrophil collagenases, _____ acts 5-10 times more rapidly on soluble type II collagens, a cartilage-specific collagens, than on types I and III

A

collagenase-3

49
Q

elastin content is __% of the total dry weight of dermis

A

1-2%

50
Q

In the papillary dermis, elastic fibers are present either as bundles of microfibrils ___ fibers or with small amounts of cross-linked elastin ____ fibers

In the reticular dermis, the elastic fibers consist primarily of ____, and they are oriented horizontally in a network with vertical extensions to the papillary dermis in the form of oxytalan fibers

A

oxytalan fibers
elaunin fibers

elastin

51
Q

Elastic fibers that form during the ___ trimester of fetal development consist of bundles of microfibrils, which are thought to form a scaffold into which the elastin molecules will align while fetal age is increasing.

A

first trimester

52
Q

insolubility of elastin is attributable to the presence of complex covalent cross-links, known as ____, whose formation can be prevented by maintaining the animals on a ____-deficient diet or by feeding them ____, such as _____, which inhibit elastin and collagens cross-linking

A

desmosines
copper deficient diet
lathyrogens
β-aminopropionitrile

53
Q

Basic molecular unit of elastin is a linear polypeptide, known as ______, that consists of approximately 800 amino acids with a molecular mass of around 70 kDa

A

tropoelastin

54
Q

____ accounts for about one-third of the amino acid residues in elastin

A

glycine

55
Q

Elastin also contains some _____, but the relative content of this amino acid is considerably lower than that in collagens, and the values for hydroxyproline are variable

A

hydroxyproline

56
Q

The two major cross-link compounds,____ and its isomer, _____, are structures that appear to be unique to elastin

A

desmosine

isodesmosine

57
Q

Several lines of evidence suggest that the rate of elastin biosynthesis is largely regulated by the abundance of the ______, and consequently, assay of elastin mRNA levels allows measurements of the rate of elastin biosynthesis in tissues and cells

A

functional mRNA

58
Q

____ decreases elastin mRNA abundance primarily by suppressing promoter activity

A

TNF-α

59
Q

____ has been shown to upregulate the abundance of human elastin mRNA by up to approx 30-fold

A

TGF-β

60
Q

incubation of fibroblasts with ______ results in an 80%–90% decrease in total accumulation of tropoelastin, accompanied by a parallel decrease in steady-state levels of the corresponding mRNA

A

vitamin D3

61
Q

______ enhances elastin gene expression at the transcriptional level

A

insulin-like growth factor-1

62
Q

______ in culture synthesize relatively large quantities of elastin, which suggests that they may be the major source of elastin in tissues rich in elastic fibers, such as vascular connective tissue

A

smooth muscle cells

63
Q

____ may be the primary source of elastin in the dermis

A

fibroblasts

64
Q

The formation of desmosines occurs in the extracellular space, and the first step is the oxidative deamination of lysyl residues to corresponding aldehydes, known as ____

A

allysines

catalyzed by copper-requiring enzymes, lysyl oxidases
require copper and molecular oxygen as cofactors.

65
Q

_____, a specific elastolytic enzyme, was first obtained from study of the pancreas, and since then elastolytic enzymes have been detected in several other tissues, as well as in a variety of cell types, including PMN leukocytes, monocytes/macrophages, and platelets

A

elastase

classic elastases are serine proteases that degrade insoluble elastic fibers at neutral or slightly alkaline pH

inhibited by serum factors, such as α1-antitrypsin and α2-macroglobulin

66
Q

largest, and perhaps the most important microfibrillar proteins for biology and pathology of the dermis, are the ____, 350-kDa glycoproteins that form an integral part of the microfibril structure

A

fibrillins

67
Q

TGF-β is always secreted as a latent complex with _____ and this complex is bound to an LTBP

A

Latency-Associated Peptide (LAP)

68
Q

levels of LTBP1 are altered in a number of pathologic conditions, including ____

A

solar elastosis

69
Q

_____ are a family of ECM glycoproteins that contain tandem EGF-like repeats similar to fibrillins and LTBPs, and a common carboxyl-terminal globular domain

A

fibulins

70
Q

mutations in the ____ and ____ genes have been documented in some cases of cutis laxa

A

FBLN4 and FBLN5

71
Q

______ is remarkable in that it is extremely acidic, with glutamic acid comprising 23% and aspartic acid 6% of the residues

extremely acidic nature of the protein suggests that it may have an important function in the assembly of the very basic tropoelastin molecules

A

microfibril-associated protein 1

72
Q

_____ are critical for the cross-linking and stabilization of the elastic fiber structures

A

lysyl oxidases

73
Q

Most distinguishing structural characteristic of proteoglycans is that they comprise both a ____ and covalently linked linear carbohydrate chains known as ____

A

core protein
GAGs

GAGs are highly polyanionic and bear a high charge density

74
Q

Prototypical proteoglycan consists of a _____ linked to one or more ____

A

single core protein

GAGs

75
Q

GAG chains = assembly of sugars
These sugars are organized as disaccharide pairs that usually consist of an acidic sugar that is either an ______ or ______ alternating with a hexosamine that is either _____ or ______

A

iduronic acid or glucuronic acid

glucosamine or galactosamine

76
Q

This form of GAG contains a high proportion of iduronic acids in place of glucuronic acid and has more variable sulfation

A

dermatan sulfate (also known as chondroitin sulfate B)

77
Q

the simplest GAG, ____, is never sulfated

A

hyaluronic acid

78
Q

Synthesis of GAGs (with the exception of hyaluronan) occurs in the ____, and the sequence information is determined by the activity and location of multiple specific enzymes along this pathway

A

Golgi apparatus

79
Q

final product, core protein with attached GAG, defines the _______

A

proteoglycan

80
Q

_____ is the best-known intracellular proteoglycan and is found within the secretory granules of hematopoietic cells, including mast cells, leukocytes, and eosinophils

A

Serglycin

heparan sulfate form is found in serosal mast cells and is a major source from which heparin is pharmacologically derived

serglycin peptide core is composed primarily of tandem serine– glycine repeats

81
Q

On release, serglycin becomes a major source for the delivery of highly sulfated _____

A

heparan sulfate GAG

82
Q

_____ share the glycophosphatidyl inositol anchorage mechanism and a unique cysteine motif that is likely to impart a compact tertiary structure to the proteoglycans

A

glypicans

Six isoforms (glypican-1 to 6) have been described, and expression of some glypicans may be altered in inflamed skin and chronic wounds

83
Q

_______ consist of a short C-terminal cytoplasmic region, a transmembrane domain, and an extracellular region containing attachment sites for GAG chains.

A

syndecan core proteins

Unlike glypicans, syndecans span the plasma membrane and extend beyond the surface of the cell.

84
Q

During wound repair, ____ and ____ are highly induced in the dermis and granulation tissue

A

syndecan-1 and syndecan-4

85
Q

_____, a large proteoglycan found in cartilage, has a core protein containing a region with over 100 serine–glycine dipeptides that serve as attachment sites for up to 130 GAG chains

A

Aggrecan

86
Q

In the skin, fibroblasts produce large aggregating proteoglycans, the best known being _____

A

versican

Versican, like aggrecan, binds hyaluronic acid, which enables it to form large aggregates.

87
Q

In skin, versican has been identified in the dermis (fibroblasts) and epidermis (keratinocytes) and demonstrates selective upregulation in response to _____

A

TGF-β

88
Q

___ is a ubiquitous component of connective tissues and it is found in abundance in skin

A

Decorin

  • One family is characterized by a leucine-rich repeat motif.
  • The prototype of this family is decorin, an approx. 36-kDa secreted proteoglycan
89
Q

Decorin core protein has a single _______ covalently bound to a serine residue at amino acid position 4 and, like many other proteoglycans, also has N-linked oligosaccharides.

A

dermatan sulfate chain

90
Q

closely associates w/ collagen fibrils.

This interaction is attributed to the ability of the decorin core protein to directly bind to ________

A

collagens type I

91
Q

______ is the predominant GAG in wound fluid and because it can bind a variety of growth factors, cytokines, and ECM proteins

A

dermatan sulfate

92
Q

_________, such as members of the fibroblast growth factor family, are induced in healing wounds and influence the wound repair process through the stimulation of keratinocyte proliferation, fibroblast growth, and angiogenesis

A

Heparan sulfate-dependent growth factors

93
Q

Chondroitin sulfate and dermatan sulfate bind ____ and _____.

A

fibronectin and laminin

94
Q

In fetal skin, the high relative content of _______ has been associated with the ability of fetal skin to heal without scar

A

hyaluronan

95
Q

______ have a short cytoplasmic domain, a single stretch transmembrane domain, and a large extracellular domain interacting with specific proteins of the ECM or with counter-receptor present on the surface of circulating cells, including microbial proteins.

A

Integrins

96
Q

mutations in the fibrillin genes.

Heterozygous mutations that affect the structure or lead to a reduced synthesis are the cause of the ______

A

Marfan syndrome

analysis of mouse models with similar molecular defects revealed that the mutations in the fibrillin gene are associated with increased TGF-β signaling.

97
Q

deficiency of decorin core protein has been described as the cause of a variant form of ______

A

Ehlers–Danlos syndrome

98
Q

decrease in _______ explains diminished skin turgor

A

hyaluronic acid

99
Q

Deposition of calcium apatite crystals, excessive accumulation of glycosaminoglycans on elastic fibers; d-penicillamine treatment; mutations in the ABCC6 gene

A

Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

Yellowish papules coalescing into plaques
Inelastic skin
Cardiovascular and ocular abnormalities

Accumulation of pleomorphic and calcified elastic fibers in the middermis

100
Q

Increased desmosine content in the skin; mutations in the LEMD3

A

Buschke–Ollendorf syndrome

Dermatofibrosis lenticularis disseminata
osteopoikilosis

accumulation of interlacing elastic fibers int the dermis

101
Q

Decreased desmosine content and reduced elastin mRNA levels; increased elastase activity in some cases;
d-penicillamine treatment, inflammatory and urticarial skin lesions (e.g., drug reaction);

mutations in the ELN, EBLN4FBLN4, or FBLN5, LTBP4, or PYCR15 gene in limited cases

A

cutis laxa

Loose, sagging, inelastic skin
Pulmonary emphysema
Tortuosity of aorta
Urinary and gastrointestinal tract diverticuli

Fragmentation and loss of elastic bers

102
Q

Reduced elastin mRNA levels

A

De-Barsy syndrome

Cutis laxa-like skin changes
Mental retardation
Dwarfism

rudimentary fragmented elastic fibers

103
Q

Decreased number and length of elastic fibers

A

Wrinkly skin syndrome

Decreased elastic recoil of the skin
Increased number of palmar and plantar creases

104
Q

Fragmentation and loss of elastin in the middermis

A

middermal elastolysis

Inlammatory; sun exposure

Fine wrinkling of the skin, primarily in exposed areas

105
Q

Reduced desmosine content in the lesions; often secondary to inflammatory lesions

A

anetoderma

Localized areas of atrophic, sac like lesions

loss and fragmentation of elastic fibers in the dermis

106
Q

d-penicillamine-induced abnormalities in elastin cross-linking

A

elastosis perforans serpiginosa

Hyperkeratotic papules, commonly on the face and neck

Accumulation and transepidermal elimination of elastic fibers

107
Q

Accumulation of pleomorphic elastotic material without

calcification in the mid and lower dermis and the subcutaneous tissue

A

elastoderma

Loose and sagging skin with loss of recoil

108
Q

Accumulation of thick elastic fibers in the dermis

A

isolated elastomas

dermal papules or nodules

109
Q

Accumulation of globular elastic structures encased in collagenous meshwork

A

Elastofibroma dorsi

Deep subcutaneous tumor, usually on subscapular area

Trauma on the lesional area

110
Q

Accumulation of irregularly thickened elastic fibers in upper dermis

A

actinic elastosis

Thickening and furrowing of the skin
Long-term sun exposure

111
Q

Mutations in the FBN1 gene

A

marfan syndrome

Skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular abnormalities
Hyperextensible skin Striae distensae

Fragmentation of the elastic structures in the aorta

112
Q

Mutations in the FBN2 gene

A

congenital contractural arachnodactyly

camptodactyly and joint contractures

113
Q

Allelic deletion of the ELN gene; contiguous gene deletion syndrome

A

williams syndrome

Supravalvular aortic stenosis Velvety skin
Dysmorphic facies

Disruption of smooth muscle and matrix relationship a ecting blood vessels