Chapter 6 - Personality, Motivation, Attitudes, and Psychological Disorders Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the psychoanalytic theory of personality

A

Personality is shaped by a person’s unconscious thoughts, feelings, and memories.

The existance of unconscious is inferred from behaviors such as dreams, slips of the tongue, posthypnotic suggestions, and free associations.

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2
Q

Which theory on personailty is Sigmund Freud associated with?

A

psychoanalytic theory

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3
Q

Freud believed what two instinctual drives motivate human behavior?

A
  • libido/life instinct
  • death instinct
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4
Q

Libido drives what kind of behaviors?

A

those focused on survival, growth, creativity, pain avoidance, and pleasure

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5
Q

Death instinct drives what kind of behaviors?

A

aggressive behaviors fueled by an unconscious wish to die or hurt oneself or others

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6
Q

Freud said that psychic energy is distributed among what 3 personality components?

A
  • id
  • ego
  • superego
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7
Q

What is the function of the id and what is it ruled by?

A

It is the unconscious source of energy and instincts ruled by the pleasure principle that avoids pain. It is not logical or moral. Young children function almost entirely from the id.

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8
Q

What is the function of the ego and what is it ruled by?

A

It preconsciously uses logical thinking and planning to control consciousness and the id. It tries to find realistic ways to satisfy the id’s desire for pleasure. It is ruled by the reality principle.

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9
Q

What is the function of the superego?

A

It inhibits the id and influences the ego to follow moralistic and ideals goals rather than just realistic goals. It strives for a higher purpose. It strives for self-love and avoidance of guilt.

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10
Q

What purpose do ego defense mechanisms serve?

A

They help cope with anxiety and protect the ego.

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11
Q

We mature through what 5 psychosexual stages according to Freud?

A

1) oral - sensual pleasure through oral activities
2) anal - sensual pleasure through control of elimination
3) phallic - sensual pleasure through genitals (incestuous desire for opposite sex parent)
4) latency - sexual interests subside to pursue other interests
5) genital - sexual energy fuels activities

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12
Q

What did Frued mean by psychological fixation?

A

If a child does not resolve a psychosexual stage’s developmental conflicts, they will grow up continuing to seek pleasure through behaviors related to that stage.

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13
Q

What is the Oedipus complex/Electra complex?

A

a boy sexually attracted to his mom/a girl sexually attracted to her dad

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14
Q

In which stage would girls supposedly exhibit penis envy?

A

phallic stage

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15
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of infants

A

They must resolve the crisis of trust versus mistrust (physical and emotional needs must be met otherwise they will mistrust as an adult).

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16
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of toddlers

A

They must resolve the crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt (must explore and make mistakes otherwise will be dependent as an adult).

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17
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of preschool-age children

A

They must resolve the crisis of initiative versus guilt (must meet need to make decisions otherwise will feel guilty choosing as an adult).

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18
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of school-age children

A

They must resolve the crisis of industry versus inferiority (must meet needs to attain personal goals and understand the world, otherwise will feel inadequate as an adult).

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19
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of adolescents

A

They must resolve the crisis of identity versus role confusion (must test limits and clarify their life meaning or will develop role confusion as an adult).

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20
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of young adults

A

They must resolve the crisis of intimacy versus isolation (must form intimate relationships or will become alienated and isolated).

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21
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of middle age

A

They must resolve the crisis of generativity versus stagnation (must feel productive or will become stuck in psychological stagnation).

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22
Q

Describe Erikson’s developmental stage of later life

A

They must resolve the crisis of inegrity versus despair (must not look back with regret and lack of personal worth or will feel hopeless).

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23
Q

What is the endgoal of psychoanalytic therapy/talk therapy?

A

to help the patient become more able to choose behaviors consciously and strength the ego to make choices based in reality

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24
Q

Describe the humanistic theory of personality

A

The basic motive of all people is the actualizing tendency, which is an innate drive to maintain and enhance the organism.

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25
Q

Who developed the humanistic theory?

A

Carl Rogers

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26
Q

What is incongruence in the humanistic theory?

A

The discrepancy between self-concept and experiences in life that contradict it.

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27
Q

How does humanistic therapy/person-centered therapy work?

A

It provides an environment that will help clients trust and accept themselves and their emotional reations so they can learn and grow from their experiences.

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28
Q

Describe the behaviorist theory of personality

A

Personality is the result of learned behavior patterns based on a person’s environment. It is deterministic, proposing that people begin as blank slates and then learn through classical and operant conditioning.

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29
Q

How does behavioral therapy work?

A

It uses conditioning to shape a client’s behaviors in the desired direction using the ABC model (changing the antecedents and consequences of the behavior).

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30
Q

Describe the social cognitive theory of personality

A

Personality is formed by a reciprocal interaction among:

  • Behavioral factors: learned through classical and operant conditioning, and observational learning
  • Cognitive factors: mental processes involved in learning and conscious self-efficacy beliefs
  • Environmental factors: situational influences such as opportunities, rewards, and punishment
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31
Q

How does cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) work?

A

A person’s feelings and behaviors are seen as reactions not to actual events, but to their thoughts about those events, based on unconscious beliefs.

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32
Q

Describe the trait perspective of personality

A

focus on identifying, describing, measuring, and comparing individual differences and similarities with respect to personality traits

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33
Q

What are surface traits?

A

traits evident from a person’s behavior (ex: talkative)

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34
Q

What are source traits?

A

factors underlying human personality and behavior (ex: extroversion)

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35
Q

What was Cattell’s contribution to personality theory?

A

He developed 16 primary personality factors (surface traits) that fit into 5 global factors (source traits): extroversion, anxiety, receptivity, accomodation, and self-control.

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36
Q

What is the Five-Factor model of personality?

A

McCrae and Costa developed of many surface traits that fit into 5 source traits: extroversion, neuroticism, openness to experience, agreeableness, conscientiousness.

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37
Q

Describe the biological perspective of personality

A

Much of our personality is at least partly due to innate biological differences amount people.

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38
Q

What did Hans Eysenck propose about personality?

A
  • A person’s level of extroversion is based on individual differences in the reticular formation: those more easily aroused tolerate less external stimulation and are introverted.
  • A person’s level of neuroticism is based on individual differences in the limbic system.
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39
Q

What did Jeffrey Alan Gray propose about personality?

A

He propose that personality is governed by interactions among 3 brain systems that response to rewarding and punishing stimuli:

  • Fearfulness and avoidance are linked to the SNS.
  • Worry and anxiety are linked to the behavior inhibition system.
  • Optimism and impulsivity are linked to the behavioral approach system.
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40
Q

What did C. Robert Cloninger propose about personality?

A

He linked personality to neurotransmitter levels in 3 interacting brain systems involved with reward, motivation, and punishment:

  • low dopamine = higher impulsivity and novelty seeking
  • low norepinephrine = higher approval seeking and reward dependence
  • low serotonin = risk avoidance
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41
Q

What is the person-situation controversy/trait versus state controversy?

A

It considers the degree to which a person’s reaction in a given situation is due to their personality (trait) or due to the situation itself (state). (ex: extroversion is a trait, stress is a state)

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42
Q

What 4 factors influence motivation?

A
  • instincts
  • drives/negative feedback systems (urges originating from a physiological discomfort)
  • arousal
  • needs
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43
Q

What is the drive reduction theory of motivation?

A

A physiological need drives an organism to reduce that need by engaging in some behavior.

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44
Q

What is the incentive theory of motivation?

A

Positive and negative incentives in the environment either help induce or discourage certain behaviors.

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45
Q

What is the order of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs from base to top?

A
  • physiological
  • safety
  • love and belongingness
  • esteem
  • self-actualization
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46
Q

What did Maslow suggest about motivation?

A

We are only motivated to satisfy higher-level needs once certain lower-level needs have been met.

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47
Q

How does the hypothalamus respond when it determines the body is cold?

A

It causes vasoconstriction and shivering.

48
Q

How does the hypothalamus respond when it determines the body is hot?

A

It causes vasodilation and sweating

49
Q

What is a psychological disorder?

A

a set of behavioral and/or psychological symptoms that are not in keeping with cultural norms, and that are severe enough to cause significant personal stress and/or impair functioning.

50
Q

What is the universal authority on the classification and diagnosis of psychological disorders?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DMS)

51
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

A type of anxiety disorder in which the person suffers panic attacks (intense dread with SNS physiological symptoms).

52
Q

What is generalized anxiety disorder?

A

A type of anxiety disorder in which the person feels tense or anxious much of the time about many issues, but does not experience panic attacks.

53
Q

What are the four types of specific phobias?

A
  • situational
  • natural environment
  • blood-injection-injury
  • animal
54
Q

What is acute stress disorder similar to?

A

A type of anxiety disorder like PTSD, expect its symptoms are only present for a month or less.

55
Q

What is a somatoform disorder?

A

It is characterized by physical symptoms that mimic physical (somatic) disease, but are not explainable medically.

56
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

A tyep of somatoform disorder in which the person experiences a change in sensory or motor function that has no discernible physical cause and which seems to be affected by psychological factors.

57
Q

What is somatization disorder?

A

A type of somatoform disorder in which the person experiences a variety of physical symptoms over an extended period of time (pain, GI symptoms, sexual symptoms, etc.)

58
Q

What is body dysmorphic disorder?

A

A type of somatoform disorder in which the person is preoccupied with a slight physical anomaly or imagined defect in appearance.

59
Q

What is hypochondriasis?

A

A somatoform disorder in which the person is preoccupied with fears of having a serious illness for at least six months.

60
Q

What is obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A

A type of anxiety disorder in which the person has repeated, uncontrollable thoughts or impulses that cause distress and/or repeated physical or mental behaviors that are done in response to an obsession.

61
Q

What are phobias?

A

A type of anxiety disorder in which the sufferer feels a strong fear (panic attack or general anxiety) that he or she recognizes as unreasonable.

62
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

A type of psychotic disorder in which the person is out of touch with reality and suffers material impairment in all types of functioning.

63
Q

What is pain disorder?

A

A type of somatoform disorder in which the person suffers clinically important pain whose onset or severity seems significantly affected by psychological factors.

64
Q

What are positive symptoms of psychosis?

A

Something has been added: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, etc.

65
Q

What are negative symptoms of psychosis?

A

Something has been taken away: reduced emotional expression, reduced fluency, reduced avolution (initiative or will to do things)

66
Q

What is the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

A

The psychosis is in the form of hallucinations and/or delusions, usually related to a certain theme.

67
Q

What is a hallucination?

A

a false sensory perception that occurs while a person is conscious

68
Q

What is a delusion?

A

a false belief that is not due to culture, and is not relinquished despite evidence that it is false

69
Q

What is the disorganized type of schizophrenia?

A

The psychosis is in the form of flat or inappropriate emotional expression, disorganized speech (loose associations), and disorganized behavior (with no apparent goal).

70
Q

What is the catatonic type of schizophrenia?

A

The psychosis is in the form of catatonic behavior (retarded or excited motor behaviors) and other peculiar behaviors.

71
Q

What is the undifferentiated type of schizophrenia?

A

A person has met the basic criteria for schizophrenia, but the symptoms do not fit into one of the other subtypes.

72
Q

What is the residual type of schizophrenia?

A

The acute phase has resolved and the criteria for schizophrenia are no longer met, but the person still appears odd and some symptoms are mildly present.

73
Q

Define echolalia

A

repetition of others’ words

74
Q

Define echopraxia

A

repetition of others’ actions

75
Q

What is brief psychotic disorder?

A

The person has displayed at least one basic psychotic symptom for less than one month.

76
Q

What is schizophreniform disorder?

A

The person has displayed symptoms of schizophrenia for a period of 1-6 months.

77
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

The person combines mood and psychotic symptoms for at least one month.

78
Q

What is a mood disorder?

A

It is a persistent pattern of abnormal mood serious enough to cause significant personal distress and/or significant impairment to functioning.

79
Q

Define affect

A

a person’s visible emotion in the moment

80
Q

Define mood

A

a person’s sustained internal emotion that colors his or her view of life

81
Q

What is major depressive disorder?

A

A type of mood disorder in which the person has suffered one or more major depressive episodes.

82
Q

What is dysthymic disorder?

A

A type of mood disorder in which the person experiences a less intense, chronic form of depression.

83
Q

What is bipolar disorder?

A

A type of mood disorder in which the prson experiences cyclic mood episodes at both extremes of “poles”: depression and mania.

84
Q

What is bipolar I disorder?

A

The person has experienced at least one manic or mixed episode (major depressive and manic episodes).

85
Q

What is bipolar II disorder?

A

The person’s manic phases are not so extreme. They experience cyclic moods, including at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode, and no manic/mixed episodes.

86
Q

What is cyclothymic disorder?

A

A type of mood disorder similar to bipolar disorder, but less extreme.

87
Q

What are dissociative disorders?

A

A person’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are separated from conscious awareness and control, in a way that is not explainable as mere forgetfulness. This happens frequency and/or extremely and impairs the person’s functioning. It usually begins and ends suddenly in relation to stress.

88
Q

What is dissociate amnesia?

A

A type of dissociated disorder in which the person has had at least one episode of suddenly forgetting some important personal information, usually related to severe stress or trauma.

89
Q

What is dissociate fugue?

A

A type of dissociated disorder in which the person suddenly goes on a journey, during which he/she cannot recall personal history prior to the journey.

90
Q

What is dissociated identity disorder?

A

A type of dissociate disorder in which the person alternates among two or more distinct personality states (identities), only one of which interacts with other people at any one time (previously known as multiple personality disorder).

91
Q

What is depersonalization disorder?

A

A type of dissociated disorder in which the person has a recurring or persistent feeling of being cut off or detached from his or her body or mental processes, as if observing from the outside.

92
Q

What are personality disorder?

A

an enduring set of personality traits that deviates from cultural norms, impairs functioning, and causes distress to the disordered person or to those in his/her life.

93
Q

What are Cluster A personality disorders?

A

Those associated with irrational, withdrawn, cold, or suspicious behaviors

94
Q

What are Cluster B personality disorders?

A

Those associated with antisocial borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders associated with emotion, dramatic, and attention-seeking behaviors, and intense conflict.

95
Q

What are Cluster C personality disorders?

A

Those associated with avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders, associated with tense, anxious, and over-controlled behaviors.

96
Q

What is paranoid personality disorder?

A

Cluster A: The person mistrusts and misinterprets others’ motives and actions without sufficient cause.

97
Q

What is schizoid personality disorder?

A

Cluster A: The person is a loner with little interest or involvement in close relationships, even with family members.

98
Q

What is schizotypal personality disorder?

A

Cluster A: The person has several traits that cause problems interpersonally, including constricted/inappropriate emotional response, paranoid thinking, odd beliefs, speech, etc.

99
Q

What is antisocial personality disorder?

A

Cluster B: The person has serious behavior problems, including aggression against people/animals, property destruction, lying or theft, and seriously rule violation.

100
Q

What is borderline personality disorder?

A

Cluster B: The person suffers from enduring instability in his or her impulse control, mood, and image of self and others.

101
Q

What is histrionic personality disorder?

A

Cluster B: The person strongly desires to be the center of attention and often seeks to attract attention through personal appearance and seductive behavior.

102
Q

What is narcissistic personality disorder?

A

Cluster B: The person feels grandiosely self-important, with fantasies of beauty, brilliance, and power.

103
Q

What is avoidant personality disorder?

A

Cluster C: The person feels inadequate and undesirable and is preoccupied with fears of criticism.

104
Q

What is dependent personality disorder?

A

Cluster C: The person feels a need to be taken care of by others and an unrealistic fear of being unable to take care of him/herself.

105
Q

What is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?

A

Cluster C: The person is perfectionistic, rigid, and stubborn, with a need for control interpersonally and mentally.

106
Q

What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

A

It suggest that the pathway for the neurotransmitter dopamine is hyperactive in people with schizophrenia (both an overabundance of dopamine and hypersensitivity to dopamine receptors).

107
Q

What is dementia?

A

a severe loss of cognitive ability beyond what would be expected from normal aging

108
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

the most prevalent form of dementia, characterized by the inability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia)

109
Q

What physically causes Alzheimer’s disease?

A

In the brain’s cortex, there is a formation of neuritic plaques (B-amyloid protein) and neurofibrillary tangles (tau protein).

110
Q

What physically causes Parkinson’s disease?

A

the death of cells that generate dopamine in the basal ganglia and substantia nigra, two subcortical structures in the brain

111
Q

Define attitude

A

a person’s feelings and beliefs about other people or events around them, and their tendency to react behaviorally based on those underlying evaluations.

112
Q

What are the 3 main components of attitude?

A
  • affect (emotion)
  • behavior tendencies
  • cognition (thought)
113
Q

What is the principle of aggregation?

A

An attitude affects a person’s aggregate or average behavior, but not necessarily each isolated act.

114
Q

In what 4 ways can attitudes predict behavior?

A
  • when social influences are reduced
  • when general patterns of behavior, rather than specific behaviors, are observed
  • when specific, rather than general, attitudes are considered
  • when attitudes are made more powerful through self-reflection
115
Q

In what 3 situations can behaviors affect attitudes?

A
  • role playing
  • public declarations
  • justification of efforts
116
Q

Describe cognitive dissonance theory

A

We feel tension (dissonance) whenever we hold two thoughts or beliefs (cognitions) that are incompatible, or when attitudes and behaviors don’t match. In order to reduce this unpleasant feeling, we make our views of the world match how we feel or what we’ve done.

117
Q

What is a canonic perspective?

A

a prototype image that represents particular concepts or objects for an individual