Chapter 6: Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Iodophors (Betadine)

A

Antiseptic: good for GPCs and GNRs; poor for fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibiclens)

A

Antiseptic: good for GPCs, GNRs, and fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inhibitors of the 30S ribosome and protein synthesis

A

Tetracycline, aminoglycosides (tobramycin, gentamicin), linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inhibitors of the 50s ribosome and protein synthesis

A

Erythromycin, clindamycin, Synercid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inhibitor of DNA helicase (DNA gyros)

A

Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inhibitor of RNA polymerase

A

Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Produces oxygen radicals that breakup DNA

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PABA analogue - Inhibits purine synthesis

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase which inhibits purine synthesis

A

Trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

Tetracycline, clindamycin, erythromycin (all have reversible ribosomal binding), Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Have irreversible binding to ribosome and are considered bactericidal

A

Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mechanism: penicillin resistance

A

Due to plasmids for beta-lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Resistance caused by a mutation of cell wall-binding protein

A

Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)

Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Resistance due to modifying enzymes leading to a decrease in active transport of this antibiotic into the bacteria

A

Gentamicin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vancomycin

  • Peak
  • Trough
A

Vancomycin

  • Peak: 20-40 ug/mL
  • Trough: 5-10 ug/mL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gentamicin

  • Peak
  • Trough
A

Gentamicin

  • Peak: 6-10 ug/mL
  • Trough:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What if the peak is too high?

A

Decrease amount of each dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What if the trough is too high?

A

Decrease frequency of doses (increase time interval between doses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Penicillin

A

GPCs: streptococci, syphilis, Neisseria meningitides (GPR), Clostridium perfringens (GPR), beta-hemolytic Streptococcus, anthrax
- Not effective against Staphylococcus or Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Antibiotics: anti-staph penicillins (staph only)

A

Oxacillin and nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antibiotics: same as penicillin but also picks up enterococci

A

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Unasyn (ampicillin/sulbactam)

Augmentin (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid): bugs

A
  • Broad spectrum: pick up GPCs (staph/strep), GNRs +/- anaerobic coverage.
  • Effective for enterococci; not effective for Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, or Serratia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Timentin (ticarcillin/clavulanic acid)

Zosyn (piperacillin/sulbactam): bugs, side effects

A

(antipseudomonal penicillins)

  • Broad spectrum: pick up GPCs (staph/strep), GNRs, anaerobes
  • Effective for enterococci; effective for pseudomonas, acinetobacter, serratia
  • SE: inhibits platelets, high salt load
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1st - generation cephalosporins (cefazolin, cephalexin): bugs

A
  • GPCs: staph and strep

- Not effective for Enterococcus; does not penetrate CNS

26
Q

Why is ancef (cefazolin) good for prophylaxis?

A

It has a long half life.

27
Q

2nd - generation cephalosporin (cefoxitin, cefotetan, cefuroxime): bugs

A
  • GPCs, GNRs, +/- anaerobic coverage; lose some staph activity.
  • Not effective for enterococcus, pseudomonas, acinetobacter, serratia
  • Effective only for community-acquired GNRs
28
Q

Why is cefotetan good for prophylaxis?

A

It has a long half life.

29
Q

3rd - generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefepime, cefotaxime): bugs, side effects

A
  • GNRs mostly, +/- anaerobic coverage.
  • Not effective for enterococcus; effective for pseudomonas, acinetobacter, and serratia
  • Side effects: cholestatic jaundice, sludging in gallbladder (ceftriaxone)
30
Q

Monobactam (aztreonam): bugs

A

GNRs, picks up pseudomonas, acinetobacter, serratia

31
Q

Carbapenems (meropenem): bugs, side effects

A
  • Given with cilastin
  • Broad spectrum: GPCs, GNRs, and anaerobes
  • Not effective for MEP: MRSA, Enterococcus, Proteus
  • Side effects: seizures.
32
Q

Why are carbapenems given with cilastin?

A

Prevents renal hydrolysis of the drug and increase half-life

33
Q

What are carbapenems not effective for?

A

MEP

- MRSA, Enterococcus, and Proteus

34
Q

Bactrim (TMP/SMX): bugs, side effects

A

GNRs, +/-GPCs

  • Not effective for enterococcus, pseudomonas, acinetobacter, serratia
  • Side effects: teratogenic, allergic reactions, renal damage, SJS, hemolyis in G6PD
35
Q

Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, norfloxacin): bugs

A
  • Some GPCs, mostly GNRs
  • Not effective for enterococcus, picks up Pseudomonas, acinetobacter, serratia
  • 40% of MRSA sensitive; some efficacy PO and IV.
36
Q

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin): bugs, side effects

A

GNRs

  • Good for pseudomonas, acinetobacter, and serratia; not effective for anaerobes (need O2)
  • Synergistic with ampicillin for Enterococcus
  • Beta-lactams (ampicilin, amoxicililn) facilitate penetration
  • Side effects: reversible nephrotoxicity, irreversible ototoxicity
37
Q

What is aminoglycoside resistance secondary to?

A

Resistance due to modifying enzymes leading to decreased active transport

38
Q

Erythromycin (macrolides): bugs, side effects

A
  • GPCs, best for community-acquired pneumonia and atypical pneumonias
  • Side effects: nausea (PO), cholestasis (IV)
  • Also binds motilin receptor and is pro kinetic for bowel
39
Q

Vancomycin (glycopeptides): bugs, side effects

A
  • GPCs, Enterococcus, Clostridium difficile (with PO intake), MRSA)
  • Binds cell wall proteins
  • Side effects: HTN, Redman syndrome (histamine release), nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
40
Q

What is resistance to vancomycin (glycopeptides) due to?

A

Resistance develops from a change in cell wall-binding protein

41
Q

Synercid (streptogramin - quinupristin-dalfopristin)

Linezolid (oxazolidinones): bugs

A

GPCs, includes MRSA, VRE

42
Q

Tetracycline: bugs, side effects

A
  • GPCs, GNRs, syphilis

- Side effects: tooth discoloration in children

43
Q

Clindamycin: bugs, side effects

A
  • Anaerobes, some GPCs
  • Good for aspiration pneumonia
  • Can be used to treat C. perfringens
  • Side effects: pseudomembraneous colitis
44
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl): bugs, side effects

A
  • Anaerobes

- Side effects: disulfiram-like reaction, peripheral neuropathy (long-term use)

45
Q

Amphotericin

A

Antifungal: binds sterols in wall and alters membrane permeability

  • Side effects: nephrotoxic, fever, hypokalemia, hypotension, anemia
  • Liposomal type has fewer side effects
46
Q

Voriconazole

Itraconazole

A

Antifungal: inhibit ergosterol synthesis (needed for cell membrane)

47
Q

Anidulafungin (Eraxis)

A

Antifungal: inhibits synthesis of cell wall glucan

48
Q

Prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotics +/- fever

A

Itraconazole

49
Q

Tx: invasive aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole

50
Q

Tx: candidemia

A

Anidulafungin

51
Q

Tx: fungal sepsis other than cadida and aspergillus

A

Liposomal amphotericin

52
Q

Tuberculosis drugs

A

RIPE: rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

53
Q

Isoniazid

A

TB: inhibits mycolic acids (give with pyridoxine

-Side effects: hepatotoxicity, B6 deficiency

54
Q

Rifampin

A

TB: inhibits RNA polymerase

-Side effects: hepatotoxicity, GI symptoms, high rate of resistance

55
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

TB:

-Side effect: hepatotoxcity

56
Q

Ethambutol

A

TB:

- Side effect: retrobulbar neuritis

57
Q

Acyclovir

A

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

Used for HSV infections, EBV

58
Q

Ganciclovir

A

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
Used for CMV infections
- Side effects: decreased bone marrow, CNS toxicity

59
Q

Antibiotics effective for enterococcus

A

Vancomycin
Timentin / Zosyn
Ampicillin / amoxicillin
Gentamicin w/ ampicillin

60
Q

Effective for Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Serratia

A
Ticarcillin / piperacillin
Timentin / Zosyn
Third generation cephalosporins
Aminoglycosides (gentamicin and tobramycin)
Meropenem / imipenem
Fluoroquinolones