Chapter 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Who invented PCR and where did he come up with the idea?

A

Kary Mullis invented PCR on a highway.

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2
Q

What is the forward primer in PCR?

A

The forward primer anneals at the beginning of the targeted region of DNA.

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3
Q

What is the reverse primer in PCR?

A

The reverse primer binds at the end of the targeted region of DNA.

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4
Q

What are the three temperature steps in PCR?

A

Denaturation-94°C, Annealing-50-60°C, Extension-72°C.

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5
Q

Why is the extension step set at 72°C?

A

Because of Taq polymerase, which is most active at 72°C.

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6
Q

What is an amplicon?

A

The PCR product, or amplicon, is the DNA sequence from the 5’ end of one primer to the 5’ end of the other.

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7
Q

:What types of DNA can be used as template DNA in PCR?

A

Genomic DNA (gDNA), plasmid DNA, or complementary DNA (cDNA).

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8
Q

What is cDNA?

A

cDNA is a complementary copy of mRNA.

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9
Q

What equipment is required to set up a PCR reaction?

A

Specialized tubes, plates, and tips.

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10
Q

What are three formats for setting up PCR reactions?

A

Individual PCR tubes, PCR tube strips, or plates.

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11
Q

What precautions prevent contamination in PCR?

A

Aerosol-barrier pipet tips, screw-cap tubes, gloves, and designated workstation cabinets with UV lights.

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12
Q

:What is the purpose of negative controls in PCR?

A

To ensure cross-contamination has not occurred.

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13
Q

Why should PCR reagents be kept on ice before the reaction?

A

To prevent degradation and unwanted reactions before amplification begins.

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14
Q

What components are combined in a PCR master mix?

A

DNA polymerase, dNTPs, primers, and reaction buffer.

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15
Q

How is a PCR reaction set up?

A

A master mix is added directly to template DNA in the PCR tube.

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16
Q

How many target sequences are in genomic DNA versus plasmid DNA?

A

Genomic DNA has one target in almost 3 billion bp, while plasmid DNA has one target in a few thousand bp.

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17
Q

What type of gel is used to analyze PCR products?

A

:2-4% agarose gels for products less than 1,000 bp.

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18
Q

What is a thermal cycler?

A

:A device that rapidly changes temperature to facilitate PCR cycling.

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19
Q

What is ramping speed in a thermal cycler?

A

The speed at which the block changes from one temperature to another.

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20
Q

What are the sizes of PCR tubes that fit in a thermal cycler?

A

0.2 ml or 0.5 ml PCR tubes.

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21
Q

How do thermal cyclers change temperature?

A

By using electricity (Peltier effect) or blowing air over the heating element.

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22
Q

What is a thermal gradient in a PCR machine?

A

A feature that allows different annealing temperatures to be tested in the same run.

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23
Q

What prevents reaction evaporation in a thermal cycler?

A

A heated lid or a layer of mineral oil if no heated lid is present

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24
Q

What are the two main types of thermal cyclers?

A

Conventional PCR instruments and real-time PCR instruments.

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25
Q

What additional feature does a real-time PCR thermal cycler have?

A

An optical module that detects fluorescence in real time.

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26
Q

What is the advantage of real-time PCR?

A

It allows quantification of the original template as PCR products are made.

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27
Q

When can PCR products be analyzed in conventional PCR?

A

Only at the end of the reaction.

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28
Q

How does fluorescence work in real-time PCR?

A

A fluorescent stain binds to double-stranded DNA, and fluorescence is recorded after each extension step.

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29
Q

What is real-time PCR used for in diagnostics?

A

Detecting pathogens in human serum or urine, including the Zika virus.

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30
Q

What is digital PCR (dPCR)?

A

A more sensitive PCR method that allows direct measurement of nucleic acid concentration without standard curves.

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31
Q

What is dPCR used for?

A

Detecting rare or low-abundance gene targets and small changes in gene expression.

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32
Q

How does digital PCR work?

A

It divides a sample into many small partitions containing either zero or one (or a few) template molecules, then amplifies each separately.

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33
Q

How are positive and negative samples identified in dPCR?

A

Positive samples contain amplified product (fluorescent), and negative samples do not (little or no fluorescence).

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34
Q

How is quantitation determined in dPCR?

A

By the ratio of positive to negative samples.

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35
Q

What enzyme does RT-PCR use?

A

Reverse transcriptase.

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36
Q

What does reverse transcriptase do in RT-PCR?

A

It reverse transcribes mRNA into cDNA before PCR begins.

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37
Q

What is cDNA?

A

The DNA template created from mRNA by reverse transcription.

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38
Q

When is mRNA reverse-transcribed in RT-PCR?

A

During the first cycle.

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39
Q

What is RT-PCR commonly used with?

A

Real-time PCR to measure gene expression levels.

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40
Q

How was RT-PCR used in 2009?

A

It detected RNA viruses in blood, diagnosing influenza A H1N1 cases.

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41
Q

What does multiplex PCR do?

A

It detects multiple target sequences simultaneously in the same reaction tube.

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42
Q

How does multiplex PCR achieve simultaneous detection?

A

By using multiple sets of primers that target different sequences.

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43
Q

What is degenerate PCR used for?

A

Amplifying DNA with limited target sequence information or working with DNA from different species.

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44
Q

What are degenerate primers?

A

Sets of primers with nearly identical sequences.

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45
Q

How is fast-PCR achieved?

A

By using specially designed primers and a two-step PCR program combining annealing and extension.

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46
Q

How do isothermal DNA amplification techniques differ from traditional PCR?

A

They operate at a single temperature instead of cycling through three temperatures.

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47
Q

What is an advantage of isothermal DNA amplification?

A

It is faster and useful for mobile labs.

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48
Q

What is an example of isothermal amplification?

A

Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP).

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49
Q

What does LAMP require?

A

Multiple sets of carefully designed primers and a strand-displacing polymerase.

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50
Q

What is random amplification of polymorphic DNA (RAPD) used for?

A

A: DNA fingerprinting when the genomic sequence is unknown.

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51
Q

What does RAPD help identify?

A

Differences among similar genomes, such as closely related plant species or bacterial strains.

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52
Q

How does RAPD PCR work?

A

Random primers amplify template DNA, generating PCR products if primers anneal closely in the correct orientation.

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53
Q

How long are RAPD primers?

A

Ten nucleotides.

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54
Q

How many primers are used in a RAPD PCR reaction?

A

Four to eight.

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55
Q

What type of polymerase is best for cloning genes using PCR?

A

A thermally stable DNA polymerase with proofreading ability, such as Pfu.

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56
Q

Where is Pfu polymerase derived from?

A

The bacterium Pyrococcus furiosus.

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57
Q

When is basic Taq polymerase sufficient?

A

When PCR is only used to determine the presence of a DNA sequence.

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58
Q

What is InstaGeneTM used for?

A

Crude genomic DNA extraction.

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59
Q

How does InstaGeneTM prevent DNA degradation?

A

It contains agents that inhibit cellular DNases.

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60
Q

How is DNA purified for higher purity?

A

Cells are lysed with detergents, and DNA is purified using a silica spin column.

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61
Q

Why must primer melting temperatures (Tm) be similar?

A

To ensure efficient and synchronized annealing.

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62
Q

Why should primers avoid intra- or inter-complementary sequences?

A

To prevent primer-dimer formation.

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63
Q

What is Tm in PCR?

A

The temperature at which half of the primers dissociate from the template DNA.

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64
Q

Why is Tm important?

A

It guides the selection of the annealing temperature.

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65
Q

Why should the Tm of two primers be similar?

A

Because only one annealing temperature can be used.

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66
Q

What is the ideal Tm range?

A

50–65°C.

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67
Q

What factors affect Tm?

A

Primer length and base pair composition.

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68
Q

How does GC content affect Tm?

A

A higher GC proportion increases Tm

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69
Q

What is the ideal GC content for primers?

A

40–60%.

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70
Q

How do primer-dimers and hairpin loops affect PCR?

A

They reduce the quantity of primers available for amplification.

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71
Q

Why is magnesium necessary in PCR?

A

It acts as a cofactor for DNA polymerase.

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72
Q

What are the key cycling parameters in PCR?

A

Temperature, time at each step, and number of cycles.

73
Q

What determines the annealing temperature?

A

The Tm of the primers; it must be determined experimentally.

74
Q

What affects the temperature of the extension step?

A

The type of DNA polymerase used.

75
Q

What affects the duration of each PCR step?

A

The target sequence length and the processing speed of the polymerase.

76
Q

What factors influence the number of cycles in PCR?

A

The quality and quantity of the starting template.

77
Q

What can DNA microarrays determine?

A

Which genes in a cell are turned on or off.

78
Q

What is a DNA microarray?

A

A solid surface with an array of single-stranded DNA spots representing different gene sequences.

79
Q

What is the process of making a microarray slide called?

80
Q

How is single-stranded DNA prepared for microarrays?

A

It is amplified using PCR from a plasmid template and then purified.

81
Q

How is mRNA processed for microarray analysis?

A

It is reverse-transcribed into cDNA and tagged with specific colors.

82
Q

How does cDNA interact with a microarray?

A

It hybridizes with complementary DNA spots, causing fluorescence.

83
Q

What has PCR enabled in genome sequencing?

A

Sequencing entire genomes, including the human genome

84
Q

How is genome sequencing improving healthcare?

A

By enabling personalized therapies based on genetic makeup.

85
Q

How has PCR changed sequencing methods?

A

It has made sequencing more sensitive and removed the need for radioactivity.

86
Q

How is cycle sequencing different from PCR?

A

It uses a single primer and dideoxynucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs).

87
Q

What is special about ddNTPs?

A

Each is linked to a differently colored fluorescent molecule.

88
Q

Where is cycle sequencing performed?

A

In a thermal cycler.

89
Q

How are DNA fragments analyzed after cycle sequencing?

A

By capillary electrophoresis.

90
Q

How does capillary electrophoresis detect DNA sequences?

A

DNA fragments pass a laser, which records them as colored peaks on a chromatogram.

91
Q

What does each peak in a chromatogram represent?

A

A single DNA fragment and its fluorescent tag.

92
Q

What does the order of peaks in a chromatogram indicate?

A

The DNA sequence from smallest to largest fragment.

93
Q

What is next-generation sequencing (NGS)?

A

A method to sequence entire genomes faster, more accurately, and at lower cost.

94
Q

What is library preparation in NGS?

A

Breaking genomic DNA into smaller pieces and attaching them to a solid surface.

95
Q

Why is a DNA fragment library important?

A

It enables simultaneous analysis of millions of smaller DNA stretches.

96
Q

What is library amplification in NGS?

A

PCR amplification of bound genomic DNA fragments.

97
Q

Why is library amplification necessary?

A

To ensure the signal generated during sequencing is strong enough for accurate detection.

98
Q

Amplified DNA fragments are sequenced by what?

A

one of several different NGS technologies

99
Q

Sequencing by Synthesis is similar to what?

A

cycle sequencing

100
Q

What does Sequencing by Synthesis use to incorporate fluorescent dNTPs one at a time?

A

DNA polymerase

101
Q

How are dNTPs in Sequencing by Synthesis labeled?

A

with a different color

102
Q

How is the sequence determined in Sequencing by Synthesis?

A

as the strand is assembled

103
Q

What is Pyrosequencing based on?

A

the release of pyrophosphate (PPi) by DNA polymerase during DNA extension

104
Q

What happens to each dNTP in Pyrosequencing?

A

it is added one at a time

105
Q

How is the PPi produced in Pyrosequencing detected?

A

through chemical reactions that generate light

106
Q

What is the approach in Pyrosequencing based on?

A

the release of protons (H+) during the DNA polymerase reaction

107
Q

What do sequencing microchips do in Pyrosequencing?

A

position the amplified DNA fragments directly above a semiconductor transistor

108
Q

What does the semiconductor transistor detect in Pyrosequencing?

A

changes in the pH of the solution whenever a dNTP is incorporated

109
Q

What does Sequencing by ligation use instead of DNA polymerase?

A

DNA ligase

110
Q

What is added with the ligase in Sequencing by ligation?

A

various fluorescently labeled sequences

111
Q

Why can the DNA sequence be determined in Sequencing by ligation?

A

because ligases are highly specific

112
Q

What do bioinformaticians apply to data?

A

the power of computer processing

113
Q

What types of data do bioinformaticians work with?

A

DNA sequences, protein sequences, and protein structures

114
Q

What do bioinformaticians generate?

A

new information

115
Q

What is bioinformatics essential for?

A

to help sort and evaluate data

116
Q

What is one of the largest databases for DNA and protein sequences?

117
Q

Who operates GenBank?

A

the National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI)

118
Q

Who funds GenBank?

A

the U.S. government

119
Q

What are bioinformatic methods also used for?

A

to map genomes

120
Q

What does mapping genomes mean?

A

to identify important elements such as genes within DNA sequences

121
Q

What has greatly improved the accuracy and speed of disease diagnosis?

A

real-time PCR (qPCR)

122
Q

When is a real-time PCR reaction used?

A

if a specific disease is suspected

123
Q

What outbreaks were confirmed by real-time RT-PCR reactions?

A

the influenza A H1N1 outbreak in 2009 and the Zika virus outbreak in 2015

124
Q

What is used in genetic modification of plants?

A

components derived from the common soil bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens

125
Q

What does A. tumefaciens naturally contain?

A

Ti (tumor inducing) plasmids

126
Q

What can Ti plasmids do?

A

insert their DNA into the chromosomal DNA of a plant to cause tumors

127
Q

What do Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) bacteria produce?

A

a delta endotoxin (Cry1)

128
Q

What is Cry1 lethal to?

A

specific species of moth larvae

129
Q

What did scientists use PCR to do with the Cry1 gene?

A

genetically engineer it into a Ti plasmid

130
Q

What was the engineered plasmid used for?

A

to genetically modify crop plants such as corn and soy

131
Q

What do the GM plants produce?

132
Q

What does producing Cry1 do for GM plants?

A

makes them resistant to moth larvae such as corn borers

133
Q

What can be used to identify GM foods?

A

conventional PCR

134
Q

What is typically used to quantitate the percentage of GM material in foods?

A

real-time PCR

135
Q

What is PCR also used in?

A

a new type of farming—biopharming

136
Q

What happens in biopharming?

A

transgenic animals are created to produce pharmaceutical products such as therapeutic drugs expressed in milk

137
Q

What is the oldest technique for blood typing?

A

ABO blood typing

138
Q

What is a disadvantage of ABO blood typing?

A

it has a very low power of discrimination

139
Q

What is an advantage of ABO blood typing?

A

it is very fast

140
Q

What has a very high power of discrimination but is time-consuming?

A

restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis

141
Q

What is the current method of choice for forensics investigators?

A

short tandem repeat (STR) analysis

142
Q

Why is STR analysis preferred?

A

it is fast and highly discriminatory

143
Q

What are STR and variable number tandem repeats (VNTR)?

A

specific regions (loci) of chromosomal DNA that have repeating sequences

144
Q

What is the size of STR repeating units?

145
Q

What is the size of VNTR repeating units?

A

up to 80 bp

146
Q

What varies among individuals in STR and VNTR?

A

the number of repeating units

147
Q

What is usually different on each chromosome of an individual?

A

the number of repeats

148
Q

Why is the number of repeats usually different on each chromosome?

A

because each member of a chromosome pair is inherited from a different parent

149
Q

What increases the power of discrimination in STR analysis?

A

the more loci analyzed

150
Q

What is the frequency of eight repeats at the TPOX locus in Caucasians?

151
Q

That is the chance that a Caucasian has 12 repeats at the TPOX locus?

152
Q

What is the frequency of 12 repeats at the TPOX locus referred to as?

153
Q

What is the probability that a person received the 8 allele from his/her mother and the 12 allele from his/her father represented as?

154
Q

What have mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) sequences of modern humans been used for?

A

to trace the history of mtDNA mutations back to a maternal ancestor—Mitochondrial Eve

155
Q

Who invented DNA profiling?

A

Alec Jeffreys

156
Q

When was DNA profiling invented?

157
Q

What is DNA profiling based on?

A

variances in the DNA sequences among individuals

158
Q

What do genetic variations among individuals sometimes include?

A

mutations in restriction sites

159
Q

What happens to restriction sites that have mutations?

A

they are no longer recognized by the restriction enzyme

160
Q

When were restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) discovered?

161
Q

What does RFLP analysis generate?

A

a banding pattern unique for each individual

162
Q

What can the DNA fingerprint generated by RFLP analysis be used for?

A

to include or exclude a suspect in a criminal investigation

163
Q

What happens to genomic DNA when performing RFLP analysis?

A

it is digested with a restriction enzyme

164
Q

What is used to analyze the fragments generated by restriction enzyme digestion in RFLP analysis?

A

agarose gel electrophoresis

165
Q

Why do the fragments appear as a smear rather than as distinct bands on the agarose gel in RFLP analysis?

A

because there are thousands of restriction enzyme sites within a genome

166
Q

How are only a select number of DNA fragments visualized in RFLP analysis?

A

using a technique called Southern blotting

167
Q

Who invented Southern blotting?

A

Edwin Southern

168
Q

When was Southern blotting invented?

169
Q

What was widely used through the 1980s and 1990s to exclude suspects in criminal investigations?

A

RFLP analysis and Southern blotting

170
Q

What is now more commonly used for forensic investigations than RFLP analysis and Southern blotting?

A

PCR testing

171
Q

What are disadvantages of Southern blotting?

A

it requires a large amount of DNA sample and is time-consuming

172
Q

What are advantages of Southern blotting?

A

there is no risk of contamination and a positive result is virtually indisputable

173
Q

What are the basis of the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)’s Combined DNA Index System (CODIS)?

A

STR alleles

174
Q

How many different loci does CODIS use to create a profile of an individual?

175
Q

What must match in parentage testing using STRs?

A

The number of STR repeats in the child must match the number of repeats on at least one of the father’s chromosomes.

176
Q

What is the limiting factor in using PCR in conservation efforts?

A

obtaining funding to support the research

177
Q

What is unique to every animal or plant species?

A

their genome

178
Q

Can human STR sequences be used for other organisms?

179
Q

What have been used to trace human migration and disprove paternity?

A

Alu elements