Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Microalgae secretes a compound that allows it to

A

survive and reproduce in harsh environments, which is being used for anti-aging skincare products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the problem with using Aspergillus?

A

but these cells may not make the necessary posttranslational modifications, such as glycosylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Malaria caused by?

A

a single-celled eukaryotic protozoan from the genus Plasmodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anthrax is caused by the

A

Bacillus anthracis bacterium, whose spores are common in soil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Plague, caused by

A

the bacterium Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Plague is believed to be

A

the source of the Black Death that killed millions of people during the Middle Ages and resulted in the loss of 30-60% of Europe’s population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Casimir Davaine and dermatologist Pierre Rayer discovered

A

B. anthracis and were the first to show it caused anthrax. Davaine demonstrated that anthrax could be directly transmitted from one cow to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When did Koch investigate anthrax

A

1870s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What did Koch discover?

A

He further investigated anthrax and established that the true cause of the disease was anthrax endospores that persisted in the soil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Koch used the knowledge he gained from his research into anthrax (and also tuberculosis, or TB) to develop

A

a series of postulates to establish whether a microorganism is the causative agent in a disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why did Koch recieve a nobel prize

A

for the identification of the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis as the cause of TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The first antibiotic was discovered in and by who

A

1928; Alexander Flemming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

He observed a mold growing on one of his plates containing

A

staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Large-scale production and use of antibiotics began in the _______ to _________

A

1940s; to treat soliders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A pathogenic bacterium that has recently evolved is

A

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or MRSA. MRSA is a strain of S. aureus that has developed resistance to most antibiotics and is extremely difficult to treat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Penicillin-based antibiotics prevent bacterial growth by

A

disrupting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by inhibiting peptide crosslinking, which makes the cell wall weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bacteria classified as Mycoplasma

A

do not take up Gram stain because they lack a cell wall and have only a thick cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is S. aureus a facultive or obligative aerobe/anarobe?

A

is a facultative anaerobe that grows much faster in an anaerobic environment such as puncture wounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Psychrophilic bacteria grow best in cold conditions

A

between -15 and 10°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mesophilic bacteria grow best between

A

15 and 40°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

thermophilic bacteria grow best between

A

45 and 80°C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Strains of nonpathogenic E. coli are commonly used in _____ and are grown in incubators at _____ to mimic the temperature inside the ______.

A

laboratory research; 37 C; human colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lactobacillus delbrueckii subspecies bulgaricus, or L. bulgaricus is one of the species of bacteria used to make

A

yogurt, cheese, sauerkraut, pickles, kimchi, and animal feed such as silage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The recombinant proteins are then

A

urified from the bacteria using chromatography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When and who cloned the human insulin gene and genetically engineered E. coli bacteria to produce human insulin protein that could easily be purified and used as a treatment for diabetes?

A

1978; Genetech (one of the first biotechnology companies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bacteria, yeast, and some plant cultures are grown on ______ in _______.

A

solid media; petri plates, slants, and deep tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Slants are used to

A

culture bacteria for a short time but not to isolate colonies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bacteria grown on petri plates or slants can be stored for _____ at _____

A

1-2 weeks; 4 degrees celcius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stab cultures are similar to ______, but are formed by _________

A

agar plates; solid agar in a test tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Deep tubes are used

A

to store or study bacteria in stab cultures, where bacteria on an inoculation loop or needle are stabbed two or three times into the deep tube of solidified agar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Stab cultures can also be used to look at

A

motility and gas requirements of bacteria by observing where the bacteria grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Solid media come in many formulations, the most generic being nutrient agar that is made from

A

peptone and beef extract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar makes E. coli colonies turn ______, lactose-fermenting bacteria turn _________, and non-lactose fermenters, such as Salmonella enterica, remain ______

A

shiny green; dark blue/black; colorless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Kirby-Bauer, or disk diffusion test, is used to determine

A

the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics. In this test, paper disks impregnated with various antibiotics are placed on an agar plate covered with the bacteria of interest. The area surrounding the disks where the bacteria are inhibited from growing is measured and used to quantify the effectiveness of the various antibiotics against the bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Broth are used to

A

produce large quantities of bacteria suspended in liquid, usually for protein production or for isolating plasmid DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Liquid media are often formulated with the same ingredients as solid media but without the

A

agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Another common broth used to culture E. coli

A

TB (Terrific Broth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

TB for E. coli is used to

A

culture E. coli for plasmid purification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

bacteria are grown on a large scale in specialized vats, called ________, under under controlled conditions.

A

specialized vats, called fermenters and bioreactors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A biological safety cabinet (BSC) must be used

A

to limit the chance of an aerosol contaminating a worker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tissue culture hoods, which are Class II BSCs, are used

A

to maintain sterility within the hood and reduce the chance of contamination of the culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A colony is

A

a single bacterium that has multiplied on a solid medium into millions of clones of itself and looks like a round visible dot on the solid medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Inoculating an agar plate with a portion of the culture and counting the colonies is one way

A

to quantify the bacteria in the culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The culture must be diluted at least____________, to obtain an agar plate with single colonies.

A

million times, or 1 ml into 1,000 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A spectrophotometer can also be used

A

to determine the concentration of bacteria in a culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The Gram stain was invented by Hans Christian Gram in ______ to differentiate between two types of ___________________

A

1882; pneumonia bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

To assay the metabolic properties of bacteria, they are inoculated on media containing additives that result in______

A

a visible difference when metabolized by bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the starch hydrolysis test determines

A

if bacteria produce amylase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens to Bacillus subtilis and Bacillus megaterium during the starch hydolysis test?

A

When amylase-producing bacteria, such as Bacillus subtilis and Bacillus megaterium, are grown on medium containing starch, they digest the starch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If the medium is stained with an iodine reagent containing potassium iodide (KI)

A

the agar turns blue if starch is still present in the medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Identifying factors to determine the type of bacteria include

A

color, size, and growth pattern of the colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A diffuse or spreading margin around the colony indicates that the bacteria are

A

motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The phospholipids create a hydrophobic zone that

A

prevents water loss and ensures that charged particles enter and leave through transmembrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fungi have a cell wall that is composed of

A

chitin, a polymer of beta glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In modern times, yeasts are also used in protein production since

A

they are inexpensive and easy to culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Many other fungi are used to

A

produce enzymes commercially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Aspergillus niger is commonly used industrially to produce

A

cellulases, pectinases, and amylases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fungal enzymes are currently being investigated in

A

biofuel research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

As the decomposers in the food chain, fungi naturally have the ability to break down

A

cellulose in plant cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ER

A

has an Internal transport system and site for protein translation, the production of new membranes, proteins, and lipids, and the detoxification of poisons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

RER

A

is where mRNA is translated into polypeptide chains during protein synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

. SER plays a role in

A

lipid production and protein storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Centrosomes are made up of

A

centrioles near the nucleus in animal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Protists are being investigated as ________, because __________

A

potential sources of biofuels since they are so numerous and grow quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Common eukaryotic cells used in cell culture for protein production include

A

yeast and other fungi such as Aspergillus, insect cells such as the Sf9 cell line from the fall armyworm (Spodoptera frugiperda), and mammalian cell lines such as Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Antibodies are

A

multisubunit proteins and therefore need to be made in mammalian cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

To produce Herceptin, the gene for the humanized antibody is cloned into

A

CHO cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The CHO cells to produce Herceptin are then cultured in a _______ in ____________

A

suspension culture; large bioreactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The Hereceptin are then ______________ and ______________

A

purified from the cells; used to treat cancer patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the 3 domains?

A

Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Are there more bacteria or more archea?

A

more Bacteria than Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Archaea were not recognized as a separate domain until the

A

1970s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Currently, there are no known human diseases caused by

72
Q

___________ are found in most habitats on earth, including the human digestive system

73
Q

Analyses of the remains of King Tutankhamun in Egypt indicate that __________ caused the kings death

74
Q

Malaria also had a role in the decline of the

A

Roman Empire

75
Q

Almost half of the world’s population is at risk for

76
Q

Anthrax rarely _________, but it could be used for ________

A

affects humans; terrorist attacks

77
Q

Anthrax infection was frequently used as a

A

model system by these early scientists

78
Q

What are model systems?

A

They are used by scientists to investigate something new in an organism or biological system they already know a lot about.

79
Q

Who are recognized as founders of microbiological research?

A

Koch and Pasteur

80
Q

TB caused

A

1 in 7 deaths

81
Q

This “zone of inhibition” was caused by

A

penicillin produced by the mold

82
Q

Most bacteria contain a single loop

83
Q

The cell wall is composed of two alternating sugars ___________ in _________

A

NAM and NAG; a polymer that is crosslinked with small peptides.

84
Q

facultative aerobes

A

if they just grow better in the presence of oxygen but it is not required

85
Q

There are extreme thermophiles, also called hyperthermophilic bacteria, which thrive at temperatures

A

above 80°C

86
Q

here are also pathogenic forms of E. coli responsible for

A

food posioning outbreaks

87
Q

Salt (sodium chloride) is required for

A

the growth of most bacteria and to maintain the osmotic balance between their environment and the inside of the cell.

88
Q

Bacteria that live in extremely salty conditions are called

A

halophiles

89
Q

Once a culture has reached the appropriate cell number or density, the bacteria are

A

harvested and lysed (broken open)

90
Q

Humulin

A

which was the first drug made from a recombinant protein, is still the major recombinant human insulin used in the U.S. today

91
Q

Humulin is now produced in

A

eukaryotic cells

92
Q

Solid media are referred to as

93
Q

Petri plates are used to

A

are used to isolate individual colonies of bacteria

94
Q

The most common medium used for culturing E. coli is

A

lysogeny broth (LB), which is also known as Luria-Bertani broth

95
Q

Bunsen burners are used to heat sterilize

A

inoculation loops and the mouths of glass bottles

96
Q

Incubators

A

maintain a constant temperature.

97
Q

Fermentors and bioreactors have

A

inlets and outlets to regulate stuff

98
Q

The streak plate method allows

A

isolation of a single colony from a bacterial culture by splitting the plate into quadrants and diluting the bacteria repeatedly.

99
Q

Each individual bacterium spread on the plate will grow into a colony and is referred to as a

A

colony forming unit (CFU)

100
Q

The value given by a spectrophotometer is referred to as

A

an optical density (OD)

101
Q

What does the OD measure?

A

measures how cloudy the culture is

102
Q

If a bacteria is shiny what does it mean?

A

it has a capsule

103
Q

. Some bacteria also produce pigments and so colonies are

104
Q

Golgi Body

A

contains enzymes that modify proteins by adding phosphate or carbohydrate groups; helps the cell distinguish between self and non-self (foreign) cells.

105
Q

Small vesicles often pinch off of the RER and merge with the Golgi apparatus for further

A

processing

105
Q

Protists are a type of

A

eukaryotes

106
Q

Many protists, including algae in the ocean are

A

protosynthetic primary producers

107
Q

Many industrial enzymes, such as those in laundry detergents, are made using

A

Aspergillus

108
Q

nsect cells are also used, but may not correctly perform

A

all the required posttranslational modifications of proteins

109
Q

Currently there are multiple clinical trials in Phase 1, 2, or 3 to evaluate _____________; including ____________

A

the safety and efficacy of stem-cell derived cells in patients; stem-cell derived neural, adipose, and muscle cells

109
Q

When did scientists induced human adult stem cells to become pluripotent or switch back to an embryonic ICM-type state?

109
Q

These induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSC) have huge potential since cells could be

A

removed from a patient, induced into pluripotency, and then differentiated into the type of cells required to treat the patient’s disease without any risk of immune rejection.

109
Q

The first human embryonic stem cells (hESC) were isolated in

110
Q

The first transplant using tissue derived from stem cells was performed in

111
Q

Yeast cells are cultured in a manner similar to bacteria

A

on agar plates or in liquid broth

112
Q

Primary cells are used by researchers to

A

investigate how normal cells behave

113
Q

Primary cells are taken and cultured directly from

114
Q

What is the disadvantage for primary cells

A

cultured for only a short amount of time. This makes them unsuitable for biotechnology companies that wish to manufacture therapeutic recombinant proteins

115
Q

Most primary cells and cell lines need to adhere to tissue culture dishes or flasks while they are growing (_________) and stop growing when they come in contact with another cell which is a phenomenon called ___________.

A

adherent cultures; contact inhibition

116
Q

Some cell lines have lost the requirement for adhesion and can grow in

A

suspension

117
Q

Unlike mammalian cells, plant cells are totipotent which means

A

single cell can regenerate an entire plant

117
Q

This forms a mass of undifferentiated cells called a

118
Q

The callus can then be broken up into individual cells in a ___________ or manipulated as a whole callus while the cells are _____________

A

suspension culture; transformed with novel DNA

119
Q

Once plant cells are genetically engineered

A

they are given differentiation signals to produce roots and shoots, which grow into whole plants

120
Q

the media used for culturing mammalian cells typically contain

A

a pH indicator called phenol red, which stains the media pink and changes the color of pH if it isn’t optimal

120
Q

Yeast cells grow best at

120
Q

mouse and human cells grow best at

121
Q

Special incubators are needed for mammalian cells since they usually need to be grown in an environment with

A

a high level of CO2

122
Q

Yeast, insect, and plant cells can be cultured in

A

regular incubators

123
Q

Plant cells are affected by light, so

A

undifferentiated plant cells are often grown in the dark to discourage redifferentiation

124
Q

Class II BSCs, commonly called tissue culture hoods, should be used to

A

prevent contamination of eukaryotic cultures.

125
Q

Class I BSCs do not protect the _____________ but protect the _______________

A

material in the cabinet from contamination in the room; user and the environment

126
Q

Traditional fume hoods protect

A

just the user

127
Q

Cells can also be incubated with antibodies linked to fluorescent dyes that bind to specific proteins on the cell surface which

A

helps identify the type of cell

128
Q

Selective stains can be used to

A

identify specific organelles using a compound microscope

129
Q

methylene blue is used to

A

highlight the nucleus

130
Q

Janus green B specifically stains the

A

mitochondria

131
Q

Molecular biology bridges the disciplines of

A

genetics and biochemistry

131
Q

Molecular biology also refers to an array of techniques that

A

relate specifically to the manipulation of DNA and is used in that context

131
Q

Scientists have also used molecular biology tools to

A

trace strains of cultured microorganisms back to their source, solving mysteries such as the anthrax poisonings of 2001

132
Q

Billions of dollars are generated each year by the ___________ through the production of _____________ for _________ using _______________

A

pharmaceutical industry ; recombinant proteins; medicine; molecular biology tools

133
Q

Companies have used molecular biology to develop drugs like Humulin to ______________ and __________________________

A

treat diabetes; Protropin to alleviate deficiencies in human growth hormone.

134
Q

_____________ coined the phrase the “central dogma of molecular biology” in ______

A

Francis Crick; 1956

135
Q

There are special circumstances in which genetic information flows differently like

A

RNA viruses, such as the influenza virus, can replicate their own RNA using a virus-encoded RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Other viruses, such as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), can copy RNA into DNA. Retroviruses like HIV use reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that has become an important tool in cloning

135
Q

___________ deciphered the structure of DNA, scientists have been studying how ___________. This research has been the foundation of the ____________, leading to the ________________________.

A

James Watson and Francis Crick; its structure leads to its function; recombinant DNA revolution; development of genetic engineering and the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

136
Q

it is the complementarity between bases that is the basis of

A

PCR and DNA sequencing

136
Q

The phosphate group of the nucleotide is attached to ___ and the base is attached to __________.

A

carbon 5; carbon 1

136
Q

Nucleic acids are synthesized in ________ only in a 5’ to 3’ direction

137
Q

As the strand grows, each new nucleotide is added to the _____________ of the sugar. the relative positions are usually noted as being either upstream (toward the __ end) or downstream (toward the __ end) from one another.

A

3’-hydroxyl group (attached to carbon 3); 5’; 3’

138
Q

Modern biotechnology is based on the premise

A

that DNA is virtually the same in all cells and can be read and acted on (or expressed) in all cells.

139
Q

In the pharmaceutical industry, recombinant proteins are

A

produced and sold as therapeutic drugs.

139
Q

In medicine

A

people with genetic diseases can be helped by gene therapy where a recombinant gene is expressed in specific tissues to counter a genetic defect.

140
Q

The first gene therapy to treat leukemia was approved in the ________ in _______ and others are _________

A

US; 2017; in the clinical trial stage

140
Q

In _____ bacterial enzymes that cut DNA in very predictable locations were discovered

A

late 1960s,

141
Q

The discovery of restriction enzymes by_________ started the _______.

A

Werner Arber, Hamilton Smith, and Dan Nathans; DNA revolution.

142
Q

How do phages often kill bacteria?

A

Phages inject their DNA into bacteria and then use the bacterial cellular machinery to reproduce more copies of themselves, frequently killing the bacteria.

142
Q

How does bacteria destroy the page?

A

Bacteria produce restriction enzymes to cut the phage DNA, thereby destroying the phage.

142
Q

Why are restriction enzymes named the way they are?

A

Restriction enzymes were so named because they limit or restrict the growth of phages; at the time, scientists did not understand how these enzymes functioned.

143
Q

Since the bacteria’s own DNA may contain the same restriction sites, bacteria protect their DNA from being cut by ______________The presence of it changes ____________ and prevents ________

A

adding methyl groups to the DNA bases; the bacterial DNA conformation; restriction enzymes from recognizing and cutting the restriction sites on the DNA

144
Q

Specific restriction enzymes are named for the bacteria from which they were originally isolated.

A

The name uses the first initial of the genus and the first two letters of the species name of the bacterium, followed by the order in which the enzymes were discovered in that particular strain

145
Q

EcoRI

A

The first restriction enzyme isolated from Escherichia coli RY13 strain

146
Q

HindIII

A

The third restriction enzyme isolated from Haemophilus influenzae Rd strain.

147
Q

PstI

A

The first restriction enzyme isolated from Providencia stuartii bacteria.

147
Q

Restriction enzymes are also called

A

endonucleases

148
Q

In general, restriction sites are

A

palindromic

149
Q

By chance, a 4-base sequence occurs every ________ in a DNA sequence, while a 6-base sequence occurs every __________.

A

few hundred base pairs; several thousand base pairs

150
Q

Ligase catalyzes

A

the formation of a phosphodiester bond between the free 5’-phosphate end on the backbone of a DNA fragment and the 3’-hydroxyl group of another DNA fragment.

151
Q

To prevent plasmids from self-ligating

A

the phosphate on the 5’ end of the plasmid DNA is removed using an enzyme called phosphatase in a process called dephosphorylation.

152
Q

The DNA fragments can also ligate to one another. To reduce this occurrence,

A

the molar ratio of plasmid to DNA fragment is controlled during a ligation reaction and is usually, but not always, 1:1.

152
Q

After the ligation is complete

A

the ligated DNA is transformed into bacteria.

153
Q

The use of restriction enzymes relies on __________ and it also requires several separate reactions, so it can be ______________

A

the presence of restriction sites in the DNA sequences to be cloned; time-consuming, error-prone, and inefficient.

154
Q

Type IIs restriction enzymes (for example, BsaI)

A

cut DNA outside of their recognition sites

154
Q

The topoisomerase I cuts DNA at a specific sequence much like a restriction enzyme. It then stays with the DNA (for example, the plasmid) and .

A

ligates any DNA fragment with compatible overhangs to create a recombinant molecule

155
Q

Enzyme concentration is often given in

A

units of activity (U) rather than the concentration of protein.

156
Q

Most enzymes are also supplied with reaction buffers that

A

provide the optimal reaction conditions and provides the optimal salts and pH for that specific enzyme

157
Q

Many enzymes should be stored at the recommended temperature, usually _____and are usually supplied in _______

A

20°C; glycerol so that they do not freeze.

158
Q

Freeze-dried enzymes are designed

A

for a single use