Chapter 5 Flashcards

1
Q

When was Pneumonia frequently fatal and studied by scientists?

A

1920s

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2
Q

What bacterium was studied in relation to pneumonia in the 1920s?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococci).

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3
Q

Who discovered two forms of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Frederick Griffith.

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4
Q

What are the two forms of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

The smooth (S) strain and the rough (R) strain.

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5
Q

What distinguishes the smooth (S) strain from the rough (R) strain?

A

The S strain has a polysaccharide capsule, while the R strain does not.

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6
Q

What term did Griffith use to describe the new encapsulated bacteria?

A

“Transformed.”

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7
Q

Who discovered the “transforming principle” and when?

A

Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty; 1940s

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8
Q

What was identified as the “transforming principle”?

A

DNA from the dead S strain.

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9
Q

What genetic transfer process was discovered in 1946?

A

Bacterial conjugation.

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10
Q

Who discovered bacterial conjugation?

A

Lederberg and Tatum.

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11
Q

When was transduction found?

A

1951

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12
Q

Who discovered transduction?

A

Lederberg and Zinder.

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13
Q

What bacterium did Lederberg and Zinder study for transduction?

A

Salmonella.

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14
Q

What key discovery did Lederberg and Zinder make about gene transfer?

A

Bacteria did not need physical contact to transfer genetic material.

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15
Q

What did Lederberg and Zinder’s discovery suggest about bacterial gene transfer?

A

Bacteria do not build a bridge to transfer genes.

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16
Q

What was responsible for DNA transfer in transduction?

A

Bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria).

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17
Q

What did scientists discover while investigating bacterial conjugation?

A

Plasmids.

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18
Q

Who independently discovered plasmids?

A

Hayes and Lederberg.

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19
Q

Who proposed the name “plasmids” and in what year?

A

Lederberg in 1952.

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20
Q

Who proposed plasmid DNA was circular and when?

A

Allan Campbell; 1962

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21
Q

What was discovered about some Shigella strains?

A

They carried plasmids that conferred antibiotic resistance.

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22
Q

What could antibiotic-resistant Shigella plasmids do?

A

Transfer resistance to non-drug-resistant strains.

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23
Q

Who proposed the use of restriction enzymes and plasmids for recombining DNA?

A

Peter Lobban.

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24
Q

What major breakthrough in genetic engineering was published in 1973?

A

The artificial construction of a biologically functional plasmid.

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25
Q

Who published the paper on recombinant DNA technology?

A

Stanley Cohen, Annie Chang, Herbert Boyer, and Robert Helling.

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26
Q

When was the paper of recombinant technology made?

A

1973

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27
Q

What did the 1973 paper mark the beginning of?

A

The age of recombinant DNA technology.

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28
Q

What are plasmid maps used for?

A

To represent plasmids and their functional components.

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29
Q

What is the ori in a plasmid?

A

A recognition site for DNA polymerase.

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30
Q

What does the ori allow in a plasmid?

A

Replication and cloning as the bacterium divides.

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31
Q

What is copy number in plasmids?

A

The number of plasmids per bacterial cell.

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32
Q

What determines the copy number of plasmids?

A

The ori (origin of replication).

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33
Q

What are β-lactamases?

A

Enzymes that break down β-lactam antibiotics.

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34
Q

What types of antibiotics do β-lactamases break down?

A

Antibiotics with a β-lactam ring, such as penicillin and ampicillin.

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35
Q

How do RNA polymerases function on opposite DNA strands?

A

They read in opposite directions.

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36
Q

What must a plasmid have to express a gene?

A

A promoter sequence before the coding region.

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37
Q

What is a promoter?

A

A DNA sequence that provides a landing site for RNA polymerase.

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38
Q

What does a promoter allow RNA polymerase to do?

A

Transcribe the gene so that the protein can be made.

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39
Q

What are the two main functions of plasmids?

A

To express recombinant proteins and to carry cloned genes.

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40
Q

What is an expression plasmid?

A

A plasmid used to express recombinant proteins.

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41
Q

What is a cloning plasmid?

A

A plasmid used to house and replicate genes.

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42
Q

Why is a cloning plasmid useful?

A

It is stable and allows millions of copies to be made in bacteria.

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43
Q

Why is DNA manipulation easier in a plasmid?

A

Plasmids are small, stable, and easily replicated.

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44
Q

What must be done before inserting a gene into a plasmid?

A

The gene must be cloned.

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45
Q

What method was traditionally used to clone genes into plasmids?

A

Restriction enzymes.

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46
Q

What method is now used to clone genes into plasmids?

A

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

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47
Q

How are genes sometimes cloned into plasmids?

A

In pieces using multiple steps and intermediates.

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48
Q

What is the multiple cloning site (MCS) in a plasmid?

A

A string of unique restriction enzyme recognition sites.

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49
Q

What is the function of the MCS in a plasmid?

A

It allows insertion of the gene of interest.

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50
Q

Why are there many restriction sites in the MCS?

A

To match the sticky ends of different DNA fragments.

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51
Q

What type of plasmid places the MCS downstream of a promoter?

A

An expression plasmid.

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52
Q

The protein-coding sequence needs to be cloned in frame for proper expression.

A

Cloning in frame ensures correct translation of the gene into protein.

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53
Q

When is cloning in frame not important?

A

It is not important if the gene is only being housed in a cloning plasmid and not expressed.

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54
Q

What are constitutive genes?

A

Genes that are always expressed.

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55
Q

What are facultative genes?

A

Genes transcribed only when needed.

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56
Q

How do bacteria regulate some facultative genes?

A

By using operons.

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57
Q

What is an operon?

A

A bacterial DNA control unit consisting of one promoter, multiple genes, and a single terminator.

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58
Q

How many mRNA molecules does an operon produce?

A

One mRNA molecule encoding multiple proteins.

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59
Q

Why are operons beneficial to bacteria?

A

They allow simultaneous production of multiple proteins for fast adaptation to new food sources.

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60
Q

Do prokaryotes or eukaryotes have operons?

A

Only prokaryotes have operons.

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61
Q

Who discovered the lac operon?

A

François Jacob and Jacques Monod

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62
Q

When was the lac operon discovered?

A

1961

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63
Q

What does the lac operon control?

A

The production of three enzymes.

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64
Q

What does the araBAD operon control?

A

Enzyme production for arabinose metabolism.

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65
Q

How are operons controlled?

A

By repressor proteins encoded by additional genes.

66
Q

What do repressor proteins bind to?

A

The operator.

67
Q

How is an operon turned on?

A

The sugar (inducer) binds to the repressor, allowing transcription.

68
Q

What is an inducer?

A

A sugar molecule that binds to the repressor to turn on an operon.

69
Q

What is an inducible operon?

A

An operon that turns on genes that are normally off.

70
Q

What is a repressible operon?

A

An operon that turns off genes that are normally on.

71
Q

What is pBAD18?

A

A plasmid with the araBAD promoter and the AraC repressor protein gene.

72
Q

How was GFP expression regulated in pBAD18?

A

GFP was cloned downstream of the araBAD promoter, making expression arabinose-dependent.

73
Q

What are shuttle plasmids?

A

Plasmids that function in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

74
Q

What promoter is used if a gene is expressed in yeast?

A

A yeast promoter.

75
Q

What components must a mammalian shuttle plasmid have for propagation in E. coli?

A

An ori and a bla gene.

76
Q

What components must a mammalian shuttle plasmid have for expression in mammalian cells?

A

A selectable marker and a mammalian viral promoter.

77
Q

Why are viral promoters used in mammalian shuttle plasmids?

A

Viruses evolved to efficiently use host cell resources.

78
Q

What sequence do mammalian shuttle plasmids contain to add a poly-A tail?

A

A polyadenylation sequence.

79
Q

What is the Ti plasmid?

A

A naturally occurring tumor-inducing plasmid in plants.

80
Q

Which bacterium carries the Ti plasmid?

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

81
Q

What disease does Agrobacterium tumefaciens cause?

A

Crown gall disease.

82
Q

What happens to T-DNA in a Ti plasmid infection?

A

It integrates into the plant’s genomic DNA.

83
Q

How is the Ti plasmid modified in the lab?

A

Tumor-inducing genes are removed, and foreign genes are inserted into the T-DNA.

84
Q

How is the modified Ti plasmid propagated?

A

In A. tumefaciens using its natural regulatory sequences.

85
Q

What drives gene expression in engineered Ti plasmids?

A

Plant viral promoters.

86
Q

What sequences are required in engineered Ti plasmids?

A

Terminator sequences, often cloned from natural Ti plasmids.

87
Q

What is transformation?

A

The process of introducing foreign DNA into a cell.

88
Q

How is transformation efficiency measured?

A

Number of transformed bacteria per microgram (μg) of DNA.

89
Q

What is calcium chloride transformation?

A

A method where actively dividing bacteria are washed in ice-cold calcium chloride.

90
Q

What does calcium chloride do to bacterial cells?

A

Calcium chloride makes bacterial cells chemically competent and more permeable to DNA.

91
Q

How are chemically competent bacteria transformed?

A

Plasmid DNA is added to the cells, incubated on ice, heat shocked at 42°C for 50 seconds, then placed back on ice.

92
Q

What is added to transformed cells before incubation at 37°C?

A

Non-selective growth medium is added to allow recovery.

93
Q

How does electroporation transform cells?

A

Electricity disrupts cell membranes, temporarily increasing permeability.

94
Q

What is transfection?

A

Transfection uses lipid vesicles to deliver plasmid DNA into eukaryotic cells.

95
Q

What method is used to penetrate plant cell walls for transformation?

A

Biolistics, which shoots DNA-coated gold or tungsten particles into cells under helium pressure.

96
Q

Besides plants, what other cells can be transformed using biolistics?

A

Biolistics can also be used to transform other eukaryotic cells.

97
Q

How can genes be introduced into plants using bacteria?

A

A genetically modified Ti plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens integrates foreign genes into the plant genome.

98
Q

How do scientists introduce Ti plasmids into plant cells?

A

By infecting plant cells with Agrobacterium cultures containing engineered Ti plasmids or using biolistics.

99
Q

What is transduction?

A

Transduction is the use of bacteriophages to deliver genes into bacterial cells.

100
Q

What viruses are commonly engineered to express recombinant genes?

A

Baculoviruses, which naturally infect insect larval cells.

101
Q

How do retroviruses integrate foreign genes into mammalian cells?

A

They convert their RNA genome into DNA and insert it into the host genome.

102
Q

What is selection in genetic transformation?

A

Selection is the process of identifying transformed cells.

103
Q

How are new plasmids typically generated?

A

By ligating a new DNA fragment into the multiple cloning site (MCS) of an existing plasmid backbone.

104
Q

What is the purpose of selection systems in plasmid transformation?

A

To distinguish plasmids with new DNA inserts from recircularized plasmids without inserts.

105
Q

What gene does the pUC18 plasmid contain for selection?

A

The lacZ gene, which encodes β-galactosidase.

106
Q

What happens when β-galactosidase cleaves X-gal?

A

X-gal turns blue, causing bacterial colonies with plasmids to appear blue.

107
Q

What color do bacterial colonies appear when the lacZ gene is disrupted by an insert?

A

White, because β-galactosidase is not produced.

108
Q

How have scientists engineered the lacZ gene for selection?

A

A multiple cloning site (MCS) is inserted into lacZ without disrupting its function unless a new DNA fragment is ligated.

109
Q

What is positive selection in transformation?

A

A system where unsuccessful ligations cannot grow due to toxic MCS insertion.

110
Q

What factors affect transformation efficiency?

A

Bacterial growth phase, plasmid amount and supercoiling, bacterial type, heat shock temperatures, and transformation method.

111
Q

Which transformation method is more efficient, electroporation or calcium chloride treatment?

A

Electroporation is usually more efficient.

112
Q

Is plasmid transformation more efficient than ligation transformation?

A

Yes, plasmid transformation is much more efficient.

113
Q

What bacterium is most commonly used to produce plasmids?

A

Escherichia coli (E. coli).

114
Q

What is a miniprep?

A

A process of growing a bacterial culture and purifying the plasmid DNA.

115
Q

What are the two purposes of a miniprep?

A

1) To purify plasmid DNA from bacteria and separate it from genomic DNA. 2) To amplify plasmid DNA for further experiments.

116
Q

What are the three key requirements for optimal E. coli growth?

A

Nutrients, oxygen, and a warm temperature.

117
Q

What are the four phases of a bacterial growth curve?

A

Lag, growth, stationary, death.

118
Q

How are transformed bacteria harvested after overnight growth?

A

By centrifugation, followed by plasmid DNA purification.

119
Q

What happens when bacteria are spun in a microcentrifuge?

A

The bacteria form a dense pellet at the bottom of the tube.

120
Q

How is the bacterial pellet prepared after centrifugation?

A

It is resuspended in a buffered solution.

121
Q

What must be done to bacteria to extract plasmid DNA?

A

They must be lysed to break the cell wall and membrane.

122
Q

What chemicals are used to lyse bacterial cells?

A

Sodium hydroxide, SDS, and EDTA.

123
Q

What role does EDTA play in bacterial lysis?

A

It removes magnesium ions, destabilizes the cell wall, and inactivates DNases.

124
Q

What happens when the bacterial cell wall is weakened?

A

The cell bursts, and alkaline conditions break hydrogen bonds in DNA.

125
Q

How is the alkaline pH neutralized in plasmid extraction?

A

A low pH, high salt solution is used.

126
Q

What effect does high salt concentration have in plasmid extraction?

A

It causes proteins to precipitate and gDNA to aggregate.

127
Q

Why do plasmids remain soluble while gDNA aggregates?

A

Their single strands remain linked and reanneal into double-stranded molecules.

128
Q

How is cellular debris removed after lysis?

A

By centrifugation, leaving plasmid DNA in the supernatant.

129
Q

What is the final step in plasmid DNA purification?

A

The purified plasmid DNA is collected from the supernatant.

130
Q

What is neutralized in plasmid extraction?

A

A low pH, high salt solution is used.

131
Q

What is the final step in plasmid DNA purification?

A

Removal of salts and contaminants.

132
Q

What was historically used to desalt and concentrate DNA?

A

Alcohol precipitation.

133
Q

What are the steps of alcohol precipitation?

A

Add alcohol, incubate, centrifuge, wash, centrifuge again, air dry, and hydrate.

134
Q

What modern method is commonly used for plasmid purification?

A

Chromatography columns.

135
Q

How does DNA bind to chromatography columns?

A

It binds strongly to silica in high salt conditions.

136
Q

How is DNA eluted from a chromatography column?

A

Using a low-salt elution solution.

137
Q

What principle does gel quantitation rely on?

A

The intensity of a DNA band is proportional to DNA amount.

138
Q

What are mass rulers used for in gel quantitation?

A

To compare DNA concentrations.

139
Q

How does linear DNA migrate in agarose gel electrophoresis?

A

Proportionally to its size.

140
Q

How does circular DNA migrate in agarose gel electrophoresis?

A

Differently than linear DNA.

141
Q

What should be used for plasmid quantitation in gel analysis?

A

The most intense plasmid band.

142
Q

What type of light source is required for spectrophotometric DNA quantitation?

A

Ultraviolet (UV) light.

143
Q

What is the absorbance of a 50 μg/ml double-stranded DNA solution at 260 nm?

A

1 (A260 = 1).

144
Q

If A260 is 0.5, what is the DNA concentration?

A

25 μg/ml.

145
Q

Why are quartz cuvettes preferred for UV spectrophotometry?

A

They allow UV light transmission.

146
Q

Why are plastic resin cuvettes used instead of quartz?

A

They are cheaper and less fragile.

147
Q

What are micro cuvettes used for?

A

To conserve DNA samples.

148
Q

How is DNA typically diluted before spectrophotometric analysis?

A

10 to 100 times.

149
Q

How do single-stranded DNA and RNA absorb UV light compared to double-stranded DNA?

A

Differently; 33 μg/ml ssDNA and 40 μg/ml RNA both have A260 of 1.

150
Q

How can spectrophotometers assess DNA purity?

A

By measuring the A260/A280 ratio.

151
Q

What absorbs light at 280 nm in spectrophotometry?

A

Proteins (due to aromatic rings).

152
Q

What absorbs light at 260 nm in spectrophotometry?

153
Q

What does a spectrophotometer’s automatic setting measure in DNA purity assessment?

A

The A260/A280 ratio.

154
Q

What does an A260:A280 ratio <1.7 indicate?

A

Protein contamination.

155
Q

What must be done if the A260:A280 ratio is well below 1.7?

A

The DNA must be purified before proceeding.

156
Q

What is a NanoDrop spectrophotometer?

A

A small-volume spectrophotometer that measures samples without cuvettes.

157
Q

What measurements can a NanoDrop spectrophotometer provide?

A

A260 and A260:A280 ratio.

158
Q

What is a fluorometer used for?

A

Measuring DNA at very low concentrations.

159
Q

What type of DNA does a fluorometer specifically measure?

A

Double-stranded DNA.

160
Q

Why is a fluorometer useful for contaminated DNA samples?

A

It can specifically measure double-stranded DNA even if RNA is present.