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Sam's OB II > Chapter 52 and 53 Test Review > Flashcards

Chapter 52 and 53 Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

Caudal regression syndrome is commonly found in patients with what?

A

diabetes

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2
Q

What term defines the appearance of over lapping skull bones that indicate fetal death?

A

Spalding’s Sign

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3
Q

What would fetal hydrops appear like under ultrasound?

A 
extensive accumulation of fluid in fetal tissues
scalp edema 
pleural effusion 
pericardial effusion 
ascites 
polyhydramnios 
thickened placenta
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4
Q

If hydrops is caused by tachycardia what would the fetal heart rate be?

A

a range from 200 to 240 bpm

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5
Q

If a patient of size has a baby, what would there be a more incidence of because the patient is of size?

A

neural tube defects

may be attributed to a deficiency in diet

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6
Q

What is caudal regression syndrome?

A

lack of development of the caudal spine and cord that may occur in the fetus of diabetic mother

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7
Q

Skeletal and central nervous system congenital anomalies in infants of diabetic mothers include…

A

caudal regression syndrome
neural tube defects excluding anencephaly
anencephaly with or without herniation of neural elements
microcephaly

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8
Q

When is it considered premature labor?

A

labor that begins before 37 wks

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9
Q

Monochroionic twin pregnancy during which one fetus develops without a heart or upper body, what is that condition?

A

Acardiac twin

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10
Q

Twin to twin transfusion

A

monozygotic twin pregnancy with single placenta and arteriovenous shunt within the placenta
monozygotic twins are at higher risk because of the shared placenta
twin to twin transfusion cannot exist between male/female twins

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11
Q

What is poly-oli sequence?

A

diamniotic pregnancy with polyhydramnios in one sac and severe oligohydramnios and smaller twin in the other sac

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12
Q

Poly-oli sequence is referred to what?

A

stuck twin syndrome

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13
Q

The development of conjoined twins occurs after how many day of conception?

A

13 days

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14
Q

Stuck twin syndrome is usually observed between what weeks?

A

16 to 26 weeks

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15
Q

Diamniotic/dichroionic twin pregnancy demonstrates what sonographic findings?

A

each fetus has their own placenta, chorion and amniotic sac

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16
Q

What one of the following demonstrated the division of one fertilized egg occurs 4-8 days after fertilization?

A

monochorionic, diamniotic

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17
Q

In twin to twin transfusion what is know to be true..

A

it exist when there is an arteriovenous shunt with the placenta.
The arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin.
The donor twin becomes anemic and growth restricted.
The twin has less blood flow through it’s kidneys and urinates less, causing it to develop oligohydramnios,

The recipient twin
gets too much blood flow
may be normal or larger in size
has excess blood flow through kidneys and urinates more, causing polyhydramnios
may go into heart failure and become hydropic

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18
Q

What are the predictors of discordance and the growth of twins?

A

a difference in estimated fetal weight of more than 20%
a difference in BPD of 6 mm
a difference in AC of 20 mm
a difference in femur length of 5 mm

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19
Q

Most frequent cause of non-immune hydrops is what?

A

cardiovascular lesions

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20
Q

What are the advantages of Chorionic villi sampling (CVS)?

A

biopsy of the placenta to obtain a fetal karyotype
performed early in pregnancy (10-14 wks)
results are available within 1 wk
early results allow more options for parents

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21
Q

Cordocentesis is mostly common used for what procedure?

A

to obtain a blood sample
evaluates blood type
hematocrit
hemoglobin

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22
Q

Amniocentesis may be used for what?

A

obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for Rh testing

monitor the isoimmunized pregnancy with delta optical denstiy 450

23
Q

Why do we perform amniocentesis?

A

relieve polyhyramnios
to predict Rh isoimmunization
document fetal lung maturity

24
Q

Twins that arise from two separately fetilized ova are what kind?

A

dizygotic

25
Q

Sonographic findings may suggest chromosomal anomalies include what?

A

?

26
Q

High levels of AFP indicate what?

A

neural tube defects
anencephaly
open spina bifida

27
Q

The quad screen evaluates all of the following markers…

A

AFP (Alpha-Fetoprotein)
hCG
unconjugated estriol
inhibin-A

28
Q

An abnormality in the number of chromosomes is called what?

A

aneuploidy

29
Q

An early noninvasive means of assessing the risk of aneuploidy is what?

A

nuchal fold measurement

30
Q

Secondary to pregnancy induced hypertension of coma and serizures of a patient in the 2nd and 3rd trimester represents what?

A

eclampsia

31
Q

A large cystic hygroma, hydrops, coarctation of the aorta may be seen in a fetus with what?

A

Turner’s Syndrome

32
Q

A common reason for an elevated maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) is what?

A

to rule out neural tube defects

33
Q

Free beta hCG can be assessed in maternal serum in the first trimester to evaluate for an increased risk in what condition?

A

Down Syndrome

34
Q

After amniocentesis the sonographer should demonstrate and document which one of the following?

A

cardiac activity (heart rate)

35
Q

Continuous monitoring during an amniocentesis with ultrasound is invaluable in patients with which one of the following conditions?

A

oligohydramions
anterior placental placement
premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

36
Q

Fetal death occurs after the fetus has reached a certain growth that is too large to reabsorb into the uterus is called what?

A

fetal papyraceous

37
Q

What structures is AFP found?

A

fetal spine
gastrointestinal tract
liver
kidneys

38
Q

The following sonographic findings of increased nuchal thickening, shorten femurs, cardiac anomalies and pyelectasis (fetal hydro) is what?

A

Trisomy 21

39
Q

Sonographic findings of cranial anomalies, chroid plexus cysts, facial abnormalities and rocker bottom feet (talipes), is what?

A

Trisomy 18

40
Q

Holoproscenphaly and proboscis are most likely to be found in a fetus with what?

A

Trisomy 13

41
Q

Pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) levels what do they do during the pregnancy?

A

a glycoprotein derived from the trophoblastic tissue that is then diffused into the maternal circulation
it increases in the maternal serum throughout pregnancy
levels decrease with pregnancies affected by aneuploidy

42
Q

AFP is produced early in gestation by which of the following structures?

A

yolk sac - early gestation

fetal liver - later in gestation

43
Q

The most common aneuploid condition is what?

A

Down Syndrome

44
Q

An optimal collection site in an amniocentesis includes all of the following…

A

away from the fetus
away from the central part of the placenta
away from the umbilical cord
near the maternal midline to avoid the maternal uterine vessels

45
Q

Maternal serum AFP increase with advancing gestational age and peak at how many weeks gestation?

A

15 to 18 weeks

46
Q

Low AFP levels have been found in what condition?

A

closed spina bifida (occulta) because there is no opening to allow leakage

47
Q

What is the picture the chromosomes?

A

Karyotyping

48
Q

An abnormal nuchal translucency increase fetal risk for all of the following…

A 
chromosomal abnormalities
trisomy 13
trisomy 18 
trisomy 21 
triploidy 
turners syndrome
49
Q

Which one of the following is included in a first trimester serum screening?

A

nuchal translucency measurement
PAPP-A
Free BhCG
Age

50
Q

Which one of the following is not associated with turner’s?

A

advanced maternal age

51
Q

What are the 5 most common types of conjoined twins?

A 
pygopagus (joined at the ischial region)
ischiopagus (joined at the buttocks)
thoracopagus (joined at the thorax)
omphalopagus (joined at the anterior wall)
craniopagus (joined at the cranium)
52
Q

What is auto-somomal recessive?

A

a pair of defective gene

inherited by both parents

53
Q

What is auto-somomal dominate?

A

a single defective gene

inherited by one parent

54
Q

What are mosaic patterns?

A

is the occurrence of a gene mutation or chromosomal abnormality in a portion of an individual’s cells. It is difficult to predict the types of problems that will occur when mosaicism is found.

Sam's OB II (4 decks)

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