Chapter 5: Infection Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the safest classes of antibiotics to use in pregnancy?

A

Penicillins, erythromycin and Cephalosporins (cefalexin (1st gen cefalexin, 2nd gen ceftriaxone, 1st gen cefadroxil)- all but Cefopime a 4th generation cephalosporin

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2
Q

What antibiotic treatment is indicated for septicaemia (community)?

A

Community-Acquired Septicaemia:

Broad-spectrum antipseudomonal penicillin: (e.g. piperacillin with tazobactam, ticarcillin with clavulanic acid) or a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. cefuroxime).
If MRSA is suspected: Add vancomycin (or teicoplanin).
If anaerobic infection is suspected: Add metronidazole to broad-spectrum cephalosporin.
If other resistant organisms are suspected: Use a more broad-spectrum beta-lactam antibacterial (e.g. meropenem).

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3
Q

What antibiotic treatment is indicated for septicaemia (hospital acquired)?

A

Hospital-Acquired Septicaemia:

Broad-spectrum antipseudomonal beta-lactam: antibacterial (e.g. piperacillin with tazobactam, ticarcillin with clavulanic acid, ceftazidime, imipenem with cilastatin, or meropenem).

If MRSA is suspected: Add vancomycin (or teicoplanin).

If anaerobic infection is suspected: Add metronidazole to broad-spectrum cephalosporin.

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4
Q

How to manage Meningococcal Septicaemia (community or hospital acquired?)

also what to do after initial treatment is completed and why?

A

Meningococcal Septicaemia:
Suspected Meningococcal Disease: Benzylpenicillin (before Urgent transfer to the hospital)
Penicillin Allergy: Cefotaxime
Immediate Hypersensitivity to penicilins and cephalosporins: Chloramphenicol

After treatment
To Eliminate Nasopharyngeal Carriage: Ciprofloxacin, Rifampicin, or Ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone

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5
Q

What antibiotic Is very good against anaerobic bacteria so usually infections of the colon?

A

Metronidazole - V high anaerobic activity, narrow spectrum
Very high anaerobic activity: Effective against bacteria in low-oxygen environments.
Narrow spectrum: Targets anaerobes specifically, unlike broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Used for:

Gut infections (e.g., H. pylori, Crohn’s disease)
Bacterial vaginosis
Leg ulcers or other anaerobic infections like abscesses.

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6
Q

How is bacterial meningitis empirically treated?
Pre-Hospital?
In-Hospital?
when to avoid dexamethasone?
Unknown Aetiology?
Treatment Duration?

A

In a nut shell:
1) BENZYPENICILLIN- can be given before transfer to hospital (emergency situation in community)
2) If penicillin allergy- CEFOTAXIME (a cephalosporin)

If hypersensitivity to penicillin & cephalosporins: CHLORAMPHENICOL

4) Can consider addition of Dexamethasone
5) Consider Vancomycin if multiple use of antibiotics in previous 3 months

expand:

Meningitis: Initial Empirical Therapy

Pre-Hospital
Urgent transfer: Immediate transfer to hospital is critical.
Suspected Meningococcal Disease (non-blanching rash or septicaemia): Give Benzylpenicillin Sodium before transfer if it doesn’t delay transport.

Suspected Bacterial Meningitis without non-blanching rash: Give Benzylpenicillin Sodium if transfer is delayed.

Alternative treatments for penicillin allergy:
Cefotaxime if penicillin allergy.
Chloramphenicol if hypersensitivity to both penicillins and cephalosporins.

In-Hospital
Adjunctive Dexamethasone:
For suspected pneumococcal meningitis, start before or with the first antibiotic dose. but no later than 12 hours after starting antibacterial
Avoid if: septic shock, meningococcal septicaemia, immunocompromised, or post-surgery meningitis.

Unknown Aetiology:
Adults & children (3 months to 59 years): Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone (consider vancomycin if recent multiple antibiotic use or foreign travel).
Adults ≥60 years: Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone + Amoxicillin (consider vancomycin under the same conditions).
Treatment Duration: Minimum 10 days for all.

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7
Q

What is the treatment for meningococcal meningitis?

A

Benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime
2nd line: Chloramphenicol For 7 days

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8
Q

What is the treatment for pneumococcal meningitis?

duration of treatment?

A

First-line treatment: Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone.

Adjunctive dexamethasone: Consider starting before or with the first dose of antibacterial, but no later than 12 hours after starting. Note: may reduce vancomycin penetration into cerebrospinal fluid.

If organism is known to be penicillin-sensitive: Switch to benzylpenicillin sodium.

If highly penicillin- and cephalosporin-resistant: Add vancomycin and, if necessary, rifampicin.

Duration of antibacterial treatment: 14 days.

if penicilin allergic give vancomycin with moxifloxacin or meropenem

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9
Q

What is the treatment for meningitis caused by haemophilus influenza?
Duratoion of treatment?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae Meningitis Treatment
First-line treatment: Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone.

Adjunctive dexamethasone: Consider starting before or with the first dose of antibacterial, but no later than 12 hours after starting treatment.

Duration of antibacterial treatment: 10 days.

H. influenzae type b (before discharge): Give rifampicin for 4 days to:
Children under 10 years.
Household contacts with vulnerable individuals.

If penicillin or cephalosporin allergy or resistance: Use chloramphenicol.

Consider adding dexamethasone, preferably starting before or with first dose of antibacterial, but no later than 12 hours after starting antibacterial.

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10
Q

What is the treatment for meningitis caused by Listeria?

Treatment duration?

A

first line: Amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + gentamicin
Suggested duration of treatment 21 days.
Consider stopping gentamicin after 7 days.

second line: If history of immediate hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin, co-trimoxazole only alone
Suggested duration of treatment 21 days.

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11
Q

What antibiotics are used in endocarditis (infection of the heart) initial blind therapy?

A

Native valve endocarditis: Amoxicillin (or ampicillin).

Consider adding: low-dose gentamicin.
If penicillin-allergic, MRSA suspected, or severe sepsis: Use vancomycin + low-dose gentamicin.

If severe sepsis with risk factors for Gram-negative infection: Use vancomycin + meropenem.

Prosthetic valve endocarditis: Use vancomycin + rifampicin + low-dose gentamicin.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

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12
Q

approach for Staphylococcal Endocarditis:?
Duration of treatment for each scenario?

A

Staphylococcal Endocarditis (Native Valve)
First-line treatment: Flucloxacillin.
Duration: 4 weeks (extend to 6 weeks if secondary lung abscess or osteomyelitis is present).
If penicillin-allergic or MRSA suspected: Use vancomycin + rifampicin.
Duration: Same as above—4 weeks, extend to 6 weeks if needed.

Staphylococcal Endocarditis (Prosthetic Valve)
First-line treatment: Flucloxacillin + rifampicin + low-dose gentamicin.
Duration: At least 6 weeks. Review gentamicin at 2 weeks (specialist advice required if continuation is necessary).
If penicillin-allergic or MRSA suspected: Use vancomycin + rifampicin + low-dose gentamicin.
Duration: Same as above—6 weeks, review gentamicin at 2 weeks.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

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13
Q

approach for Enterococcal Endocarditis:

A

First-line: Amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + low-dose gentamicin (or benzylpenicillin sodium + low-dose gentamicin)
Duration: 4-6 weeks (6 weeks for prosthetic valves)
Review gentamicin: at 2 weeks, specialist advice if needed beyond 2 weeks
Penicillin-allergic or resistant: Vancomycin (or teicoplanin) + low-dose gentamicin
Gentamicin-resistant: Amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + streptomycin (if susceptible)
Duration: At least 6 weeks.

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14
Q

approach for Streptococcal Endocarditis:?

A

Streptococcal Endocarditis (Fully Sensitive)
First-line treatment: Benzylpenicillin sodium.
Duration: 4–6 weeks (Use 6 weeks for prosthetic valve endocarditis).
If penicillin-allergic or resistant: Use vancomycin (or teicoplanin) + low-dose gentamicin.
Duration: 4–6 weeks (Stop gentamicin after 2 weeks).

Endocarditis: Less-Sensitive Streptococci
First-line treatment: Benzylpenicillin sodium + low-dose gentamicin.
Duration: 4–6 weeks (Use 6 weeks for prosthetic valve endocarditis).
Review gentamicin: Stop after 2 weeks if microorganisms are moderately sensitive to penicillin. Seek specialist advice if continuation is necessary beyond 2 weeks.
If penicillin-allergic or highly penicillin-resistant: Use vancomycin (or teicoplanin) + low-dose gentamicin.
Duration: Same as above—4–6 weeks, review gentamicin at 2 weeks.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

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15
Q

approach for Enterococcal Endocarditis?

Duration of treatment?

A

First-line treatment:

Amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + low-dose gentamicin or
Benzylpenicillin sodium + low-dose gentamicin.
Duration: 4–6 weeks (Use 6 weeks for prosthetic valve endocarditis).
Review gentamicin at 2 weeks—seek specialist advice if continuation is necessary beyond 2 weeks.
If penicillin-allergic or penicillin-resistant: Use vancomycin (or teicoplanin) + low-dose gentamicin.

Duration: Same as above—4–6 weeks (6 weeks for prosthetic valve endocarditis).
If gentamicin-resistant: Use amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and add streptomycin (if susceptible) for 2 weeks.

Duration: At least 6 weeks.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

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16
Q

approach for Endocarditis caused by Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species (‘HACEK’ micro-organisms)?

A

(Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)

First-line treatment: Amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + low-dose gentamicin.

Duration: 4 weeks (Use 6 weeks for prosthetic valve endocarditis).
Stop gentamicin: After 2 weeks.
If amoxicillin-resistant: Use Ceftriaxone (or cefotaxime) + low-dose gentamicin.

Duration: Same as above—4 weeks (6 weeks for prosthetic valve endocarditis).

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

Note: Gentamicin dosing targets: trough <1, peak 3-5.

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17
Q

What antibiotic is indicated for gastro-enteritis?

A

This is usually self-limiting and an antibiotic not indicated

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18
Q

What is the antibiotic indicated for C. diff?

A

Here’s a condensed version for your flashcard:

C. difficile Infection Treatment:

First Episode:
- Oral 1st line: Vancomycin
- Oral 2nd line: Fidaxomicin
- If ineffective: Seek specialist advice

Further Episodes:
- Relapse (≤12 weeks): Fidaxomicin
- Recurrence (>12 weeks): Vancomycin or Fidaxomicin

Life-Threatening Infection:
- Treatment: Oral Vancomycin + IV Metronidazole (specialist care)

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19
Q

Which antibiotics are commonly used for GU infections?

A

GU Infections: Commonly Used Antibiotics
1. Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)
First-line:
Nitrofurantoin (Avoid in renal impairment)
Trimethoprim (Not used in pregnancy unless resistant)
Fosfomycin (Single dose for uncomplicated UTIs)
Alternatives:
Cefalexin
Amoxicillin (if sensitive)
Ciprofloxacin (reserved for complicated cases)
2. Pyelonephritis
First-line:
Ciprofloxacin
Co-amoxiclav (Amoxicillin/clavulanate)
Alternatives:
Cefalexin
Trimethoprim (if susceptible)
3. Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
Chlamydia:
Azithromycin (Single-dose) or Doxycycline (7-day course)
Gonorrhea:
Ceftriaxone (IM) with Azithromycin (Due to resistance)
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID):
Ceftriaxone (IM) + Doxycycline + Metronidazole
4. Prostatitis
First-line:
Ciprofloxacin
Trimethoprim
Doxycycline

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20
Q

What class of AB’s is Amikacin? When is amikacin usually indicated?

A

Class: Aminoglycoside antibiotic.

Indications:
Serious Gram-negative infections (e.g., Pseudomonas aeruginosa).
Used for sepsis, pneumonia, intra-abdominal infections, and UTIs.
Often reserved for infections resistant to other aminoglycosides (gentamicin) or multidrug-resistant organisms.
Common in hospital-acquired infections.
Usage: Typically combined with other antibiotics for broad coverage.

An aminoglycoside usually indicated for gentamicin resistant infections as amikacin is more stable than gentamicin to enzyme inactivation.

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21
Q

What is the target One hour peak concentration of gentamicin? (multiple daily dosing)

A

5 - 10 mg/L (3-5mg/L For multiple daily dose regimen in endocarditis)

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22
Q

What is the target pre-dose trough concentration of gentamicin? (multiple daily dosing)

A

under 2 mg/L (<1mg/L For multiple daily dose regimen in endocarditis)

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23
Q

What is the target One hour peak conc of gentamicin in treatment of ENDOCARDITIS? and target trough level?

A

Peak: 3 - 5 mg/L Trough: <1mg/L

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24
Q

Which aminoglycoside is too toxic to be administered parenterally, therefore is taken by mouth?

A

NEOMYCIN - used for bowel sterilisation before surgery as its so strong it will wipe the bowel clean of bacteria

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25
Q

Etrapenem, Imipenem and Meropenem are all examples of what kind of antibiotics?

A

The carbapenems. These are beta-lactam antibacterials

NB: imipenem is administered with cilastatin which is a specific enzyme inhibitor that stops it being renally metabolised

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26
Q

Which two cephalosporins are suitable for infections of the CNS?

A

Cefotaxime + Ceftriaxone (TAX AND TRAX) (Hint: these are the two we see used in meningitis, a CNS infection!)

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27
Q

Talk me through treatment of UTI’s in pregnancy?

A

Here’s the information condensed into a flashcard format:

UTI Treatment in Pregnancy:

  • Nitrofurantoin: Safe during pregnancy but avoid at term (risk of neonatal hemolysis).
  • Trimethoprim: Avoid in the first trimester (teratogenic risk as a folate antagonist).
  • Cefalexin: Safe for use throughout pregnancy.
  • Cranberry products: Not recommended (no evidence to support use).

term pregnancy is any pregnancy from 37 weeks and beyond until delivery

This summary aligns with current NICE guidelines for treating UTIs during pregnancy【15†source】【16†source】【17†source】. : term pregnancy is any pregnancy from 37 weeks and beyond until delivery

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28
Q

What classes, other than penicillins, do we have to be wary of with penicillin allergic patients?

A

For penicillin-allergic patients, the main classes of antibiotics to be cautious with are cephalosporins and carbapenems due to their beta-lactam structure, which can potentially trigger cross-reactivity. The cross-sensitivity between penicillins and first-generation cephalosporins is reported to be higher (about 10%), while it is lower (around 2-3%) for third-generation cephalosporins like ceftriaxone【24†source】【25†source】.

Here’s a condensed version for your flashcard:

Penicillin Allergy:
- Cephalosporins (e.g., cefalexin, ceftriaxone): 0.5-10% cross-sensitivity
- Carbapenems: Potential cross-reactivity, though lower than cephalosporins

Other Considerations:
- Monobactams (e.g., aztreonam): Generally safe in penicillin-allergic patients.

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29
Q

What is Co-trimoxazole? What is it used for?

A

Co-trimoxazole Use:
- Contains: Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim
- Limited Use Due to Resistance
- Indicated for:
- Pneumocystis jirovecii (P. carinii) pneumonia
- Toxoplasmosis
- Nocardiasis
- Restricted Use in children:
- Only in bronchitis exacerbations, UTIs, and otitis media in children when culture and sensitivities are evident.
- Important: Only use when there is strong evidence to justify the combination therapy over a single agent due to increasing resistance

【32†source】【33†source】.

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30
Q

What antibiotics require reporting on blood disorders/ rash?

A

Co-trimoxazole (contains trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole)- discontinue immediately if: signs of a blood disorder such as anaemia, thrombocytopenia or rash: stevens johnsons syndrome, photosensitivity

Trimethoprim: Blood disorders: fever, sore throat, ulcers, bruising, bleeds

Penicillamine: not really an anti-bacterial: used as a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug Same as above: fever, sore throat, ulcers, bruising

Amoxicillin: Report if rash (especially in glandular fever) or blood disorders (e.g., eosinophilia, anemia) develop.

Vancomycin: Monitor for neutropenia and other blood dyscrasias.

Linezolid: Requires reporting for thrombocytopenia or other blood disorders during prolonged use.

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31
Q

What do you see fusidic acid commonly used for?

A

Staphylococcal infection of the SKIN e.g. impetigo & also EYES comes as tablet, cream, eye drops

Fusidic Acid
What is it?: Fusidic acid is a narrow-spectrum antibacterial that is primarily used topically.

Indications:

Non-bullous impetigo (first-choice topical antibiotic).
Secondary bacterial infections of eczema or other localized skin infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Conjunctivitis (topical fusidic acid in the form of eye drops).

Usage Instructions:
Applied 2–3 times daily for 5-7 days.
Avoid prolonged use due to risk of antimicrobial resistance.

Important Considerations:
Should not be used extensively or recurrently to prevent the development of resistance.
Only use for localized infections and when systemic infection is not suspected.

not check from here but i presume correct

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32
Q

What happens if a patient on clindamycin develops diarrhoea?

A

Clindamycin and Diarrhoea Management
Diarrhoea on clindamycin?: May indicate C. difficile infection.
First step: Stop clindamycin immediately.
Test: Send stool sample to test for C. difficile toxin.
Treatment: If confirmed, treat with oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin. Use metronidazole if severe or other options unavailable.

Antibiotic associated colitis with clindamycin can be fatal- discontinue immediately + start vancomycin if c.diff is confimed

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33
Q

What antibiotic has been associated with Myopathy/ Muscle effects?

What to monitor?

A

Antibiotics and Myopathy/Muscle Effects

Daptomycin: Can cause myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Monitor CK levels.
Action: Stop the antibiotic and check CK if muscle pain or weakness develops.

additional info for muscle effects other than myophathy:
Fluoroquinolones: Associated with tendonitis (not myopathy) and tendon rupture (especially Achilles). just a muscle effect not myopathy

CK levels means: creatine kinase (CK). the main one is Daptomycin

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34
Q

Which antibiotics can cause cholestatic jaundice?

A

Flucloxacillin ( even upto 2 months after): Can also cause cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice, often presenting weeks after stopping the medication. this is the main one

Others:

Co-amoxiclav: Commonly associated with cholestatic jaundice and liver dysfunction, particularly in older adults or after prolonged use.

Nitrofurantoin: May cause cholestatic jaundice with prolonged use, especially in elderly patients. Liver function should be monitored.

Erythromycin and other macrolides: These are associated with cholestasis and liver toxicity.

Be careful in liver patients and regularly monitor liver function

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35
Q

What is the important safety information associated with Flucloxacillin?

A

Hepatic disorders: Cholestatic Jaundice and HEPATITIS have been reported in patients even up to 2 months after the drug has been stopped.

to expand:
Hypersensitivity: Flucloxacillin can cause severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, particularly in patients with a history of penicillin allergy.

Cholestatic Jaundice and Hepatitis:
Cholestatic jaundice or hepatitis may occur during treatment or up to 2 months after stopping flucloxacillin.
Risk is higher in older adults and after prolonged use (greater than 2 weeks).

Renal Impairment: Dose adjustments are required in patients with severe renal impairment (eGFR less than 10 mL/min) to avoid toxicity.

Other cautions:
Use with caution in people with hepatic dysfunction or serious underlying disease.
Should not be prescribed to people with a history of flucloxacillin-associated jaundice or hepatic dysfunction.

Use flucloxacillin with caution in patients with liver impairment!!

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36
Q

A few antibiotics have been associated with visual problems. Can you think of any?

A

LINEZOLID- optic nephropathy

QUINOLONES (Ciprfloxacin, Levofloxacin)- Fluoroquinolones Can cause blurred vision, photophobia, and in rare cases, retinal detachment.

Ethambutol (used for TB)- ocular toxicity

Rifampicin- colours tears/ contacts red

Rifabutin- Uveitis (eye inflammation)

Doxycycline: May lead to visual disturbances and photosensitivity.

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37
Q

What two things need to be looked out for with Linezolid treatment?

A

Optic neuropathy (visual problems)- report any visual disturbance IMMEDIATELY

Blood disorders:Aneamia, thrombocytopenia

FBC monitored WEEKLY, monitor especially for treatment of 10-14 days or more

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38
Q

What are the three very important safety warnings with QUINOLONES (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)?

A

Fluoroquinolones: Important Safety Information
Convulsions: May induce seizures, especially when taken with NSAIDs. Caution is advised for patients with epilepsy or those taking theophylline, as both increase the risk of convulsions.

Tendon Damage: Can cause tendonitis or tendon rupture, especially in the Achilles tendon. The risk is increased when combined with corticosteroids.

QT Prolongation: Fluoroquinolones can prolong the QT interval, increasing the risk of heart arrhythmias. Caution is needed in patients with existing risk factors like electrolyte imbalances.

MHRA Warning: Fluoroquinolones have been associated with rare but potentially irreversible side effects, affecting the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, and should not be used for non-severe infections unless other treatments are inappropriate.

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39
Q

When should patients discontinue treatment with Quinolones?

A

When to Discontinue Fluoroquinolones
Stop immediately if:
Tendon pain or swelling (signs of tendonitis or rupture).

Muscle pain, weakness, or joint pain and swelling.

Peripheral neuropathy (numbness, tingling, burning sensations)
.
Central nervous system effects (e.g., depression, psychosis, or seizures).

Seek immediate medical advice if these symptoms develop to avoid long-term or irreversible side effects.

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40
Q

WHAT ANTIOBIOTICS CAN CAUSE QT PROLONGATION??!

A

Macrolides:
Erythromycin and Clarithromycin are commonly associated with QT interval prolongation. They can increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmias like torsades de pointes, particularly in patients with underlying heart conditions or electrolyte imbalances (e.g., low potassium).

Fluoroquinolones:
Ciprofloxacin,Levofloxacin and especially Moxifloxacin can prolong the QT interval and lead to arrhythmias, especially in patients also taking other QT-prolonging drugs.

Antifungal Azoles:
While not antibiotics, Fluconazole is often grouped with antimicrobial agents that prolong QT intervals.

Other Considerations:
Caution is advised when combining any of these antibiotics with other medications known to prolong QT or in patients with pre-existing heart conditions.

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41
Q

Linezolid is an antibacterial used in pneumonia. It also had Monoamine oxidase inhibition activity (part of MAOI family). What should patients be advised to avoid?

A

Avoid consuming large amounts of Tyramine rich foods (mature cheese, , wine, beer)

Avoid foods high in tyramine:
Aged cheese, smoked meats, soybean, red wine, tap beer.
Avoid serotonergic drugs:
SSRIs, tricyclic antidepressants (to prevent serotonin syndrome).

Remember: Linezolid will still have interactions/ tyramine effects 2 weeks after discontinuation!!

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42
Q

What can happen if VANCOMYCIN is infused too rapidly?

A

Vancomycin: Rapid Infusion Risks
Red Man Syndrome: Rapid infusion can cause flushing, rash, itching, and redness, particularly of the upper body. This reaction is due to histamine release.

Severe Hypotension and Cardiac Events: Rapid infusion may lead to severe hypotension, shock, or even cardiac arrest.
Wheezing
Pruritis
Pain/ muscle spasm in back

What to do?:

Slow the infusion rate (at least 60 minutes for doses under 1g).
Premedicate with an antihistamine to reduce the risk of reactions.

Flushing of upper body= RED MAN SYNDROME

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43
Q

After how many doses should Vancomycin plasma levels be measured?

A

Before 3 or 4 doses if renal function is normal (earlier if its impaired!)

expanded:
Vancomycin: Plasma Level Monitoring
Measure trough plasma levels: Before the 3rd or 4th dose to ensure therapeutic levels are reached.
Target trough levels: Between 10–20 mg/L.
Ongoing monitoring: Recheck levels regularly (e.g., twice weekly) if the treatment continues, especially in patients with renal impairment.

Before 3 or 4 doses if renal function is normal (earlier if its impaired!)

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44
Q

What side effects do Vancomycin and Gentamicin both have in common? What drugs should be avoided with these?

A

Vancomycin and Gentamicin: Common Side Effects
Ototoxicity: Both drugs can cause hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), and vertigo due to damage to the auditory nerves.

Nephrotoxicity: Both can lead to kidney damage, especially when used together or with other nephrotoxic drugs.

Drugs to Avoid
Obviously avoid use of vancomycin and gentamicin together!
Other nephrotoxic agents: Such as NSAIDs, diuretics, or other aminoglycosides, CICLOSPORINPlatinum chemotherapy.
Other ototoxic agents: Such as loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide).

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45
Q

Treatment with Vancomycin required Full Blood count monitoring. Why is this?

A

Risk or neutropenia- monitor neutrophils and platelets

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46
Q

Which antibiotics could cause CHOLESTATIC JAUNDICE (a liver disorder where bile builds up in the blood stream as it gets blocker from being excreted)?

A

FLUCLOXACILLIN - may even occur up to TWO MONTHS after flucloxacillin stopped, more likely after TWO WEEKS of treatment and older age

Co-fluampicil (contains amoxicillin and flucloxacillin)

Co-amoxiclav:Often associated with cholestatic jaundice and liver dysfunction, particularly after prolonged use or in elderly patients.

Nitrofurantoin - Use these with caution in those with liver dysfunction!!

Erythromycin (Macrolide antibiotics): Known to cause cholestatic liver injury in some cases.

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47
Q

Which antibiotics are commonly used to treat acne??

A

Antibiotics for Acne Treatment
Oral antibiotics:
Lymecycline and Doxycycline: First-line oral antibiotics for moderate to severe acne. They are typically used alongside topical treatments.
Erythromycin (Macrolide): Used if tetracyclines are not suitable (e.g., during pregnancy).
Topical antibiotics:
Clindamycin and Erythromycin: Usually combined with benzoyl peroxide to reduce resistance.Tetracyclines most common: tetracycline, doxycycline, oxytetracycline, lymecycline (trimethoprim for resistant acne)

Erythromycin (a macrolide) sometimes used

Erythromycin (a macrolide) sometimes used

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48
Q

What conditions can Tetracyclines exacerbate?

A

Renal Impairment: Tetracyclines can worsen kidney function due to their renal excretion. Caution is advised in patients with pre-existing renal failure.

Hepatic Impairment: Tetracyclines can increase the risk of liver toxicity, especially when combined with other hepatotoxic drugs.

Myasthenia Gravis: Tetracyclines can exacerbate muscle weakness in patients with this condition.

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): Tetracyclines may worsen symptoms of lupus.

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49
Q

Which antibiotics can cause photosensitivity?

A

Tetracyclines: Especially doxycycline and Demeclocycline. tetracycline, which are commonly used for acne and can cause severe sunburn-like reactions.

Fluoroquinolones: Such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, which increase the risk of phototoxic reactions with sun exposure.

Sulfonamides: Includes sulfamethoxazole (part of co-trimoxazole), which can cause photosensitivity, especially in combination therapies.

Other drugs: Griseofulvin (antifungal) and dapsone can also trigger photosensitive reactions.

doxycycline is the main one

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50
Q

Which antibiotics are not recommended in children and adolescences under 18 years old? And why?

A

Fluoroquinolones: Such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, are generally not recommended in patients under 18 years old due to the risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture.

Tetracyclines: Such as doxycycline and tetracycline, are avoided in children under 12 years old because they can cause permanent tooth discoloration and affect bone growth.

Chloramphenicol: Not used in neonates and infants due to the risk of Gray Baby Syndrome, a serious condition due to underdeveloped liver function.Quinolones: Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

This is because of the risk of TENDON DAMAGE/ JOINT DISEASE (Aropathy)

Tetracyclines - 12+: dental

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51
Q

What is an important monitoring parameter with Linezolid?

A

Monitor for Thrombocytopenia: Regular blood counts (especially platelets) should be monitored weekly during linezolid treatment to detect thrombocytopenia (low platelet count).

Optic and Peripheral Neuropathy: Monitor for any signs of vision changes or nerve damage during prolonged treatment (over 28 days).

WEEKLY Full Blood Counts due to risk of blood disorder/ anaemia

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52
Q

C

Which antibiotics may cause a false positive result on urinary GLUCOSE tests- i.e. be careful when testing for diabetes?

A

Cephalosporins: Can interfere with glucose tests, leading to false positive results when using methods like the Clinitest.

Penicillins: Such as amoxicillin may also cause false positives in certain glucose test methods.

Other antibiotics: Levofloxacin and Ofloxacin (fluoroquinolones) can also interfere with some glucose urine tests.

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53
Q

Which antibiotic is a FOLATE SYNTHESIS INHIBITORS and is therefore teratogenic?

A

Trimethoprim: Inhibits folate synthesis, which is essential for fetal development. It is teratogenic and should be avoided in pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester because it increases the risk of neural tube defects.

Co-trimoxazole (contains sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim)
Therefore AVOID in pregnancy- especially first trimester when folate is needed

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54
Q

What frequency of administration is Vancomycin given?

A

Vancomycin: Frequency of Administration
Intermittent infusion: Typically administered every 12 hours, depending on kidney function and infection severity.

Continuous infusion: In certain cases (e.g., severe infections like endocarditis), a continuous infusion is preferred, with doses adjusted based on creatinine clearance and regular monitoring.

Monitoring: Regular plasma level monitoring is crucial, particularly in cases of continuous infusion.

Teicoplanin: even longer acting: OD dosing after loading dose

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55
Q

Name 2 Glycopeptide antibiotics?

A

Glycopeptide Antibiotics
Vancomycin: Commonly used for serious infections like MRSA and C. difficile.

Teicoplanin: Another glycopeptide used similarly for Gram-positive bacterial infections, including endocarditis.

Teicoplanin (less nephrotoxic than vancomycin)

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56
Q

What are the target pre-dose TROUGH levels for vancomycin?? (only trough levels are used with Vancomycin)

A

Target Pre-Dose Trough Levels:

Vancomycin: Target Pre-Dose Trough Levels
Standard infections: 10–15 mg/L.

Severe or deep-seated infections (e.g., MRSA, endocarditis): 15–20 mg/L.

Continuous Infusion: Target range typically 20–25 mg/L.

Monitoring: Regular trough level measurements are critical to avoid toxicity and ensure efficacy, especially in renal impairment cases.

15-20 for endocarditis

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57
Q

First line antibiotic for Cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin (250-500mg QDS)

If penicillin allergic: Alternative in penicillin allergy or flucloxacillin unsuitable:clarithromycin, oralerythromycin(in pregnancy), or oral doxycycline.

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58
Q

Which antibiotics/ antifungals may cause STEVENS JOHNSON SYNDROME (skin rash)?

A

Antibiotics/Antifungals Associated with Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)
Sulfonamides: Includes sulfamethoxazole (in co-trimoxazole), which has been widely associated with SJS.

Penicillins: Such as amoxicillin and ampicillin.

Cephalosporins: Includes ceftriaxone and cefixime.

Fluoroquinolones: Such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

Antifungals: Such as fluconazole and itraconazole.

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59
Q

What are some of the more common side effects experienced with Metronidazole (its quite an unpleasant antibiotic)?

A

Common Side Effects of Metronidazole
Unpleasant metallic taste: A sharp, metallic taste is very common.
Nausea and vomiting: Often experienced, especially with oral forms.
Dry mouth and loss of appetite.
Gastrointestinal discomfort: Includes stomach cramps and diarrhea.
Dizziness or headaches.
Dark urine: May cause the urine to appear darker.
Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol: Severe nausea, flushing, and palpitations when taken with alcohol.

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60
Q

What is fusidic acid used for?

A

Narrow spectrum antibiotic used for STAPHYLOCOCCAL SKIN infections
Used for impetigo (topical)
Fucidin cream Staph eye infections (topical)

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61
Q

Which antibiotic is cautioned in problems to do with: Lungs, Liver, and Neurones

A

Nitrofurantoin:
Lungs: Can cause pulmonary toxicity and Pulmonary Fibrosis, particularly in long-term use.
Liver: May induce** hepatitis** or** cholestatic jaundice.**
Neurons: Rarely, it can cause peripheral neuropathy, especially in patients with renal impairment or long-term use.

also can cause Vit B/ Folate deficiency

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62
Q

F

Which antifungal medication can cause QT prolongation?

A

Antifungal Medications That Can Cause QT Prolongation
Fluconazole: Known to cause QT interval prolongation and increase the risk of torsades de pointes (a type of life-threatening arrhythmia).

Itraconazole: Another azole antifungal associated with QT prolongation, particularly when used with other QT-prolonging medications or in patients with pre-existing heart conditions.

Voriconazole: Also carries a risk of QT prolongation, especially in higher doses.

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63
Q

What antibiotics/ antifungals should be stopped if signs of dark urine, vomiting, fatigue, anorexia occur?

A

This indicated LIVER FAILURE

Discontinue drugs that are hepatotoxic:
Terbinafine

Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrizinamide (R.I.P liver: TB drugs)

Nitrofurantoin: Can cause liver toxicity leading to dark urine, vomiting, and fatigue. Stop immediately if these symptoms develop.

Itraconazole, Fluconazole and Ketoconazole (no longer available oral)!: Known to cause liver dysfunction, which may present with dark urine, fatigue, and anorexia. Stop treatment and seek medical advice.

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64
Q

Which antifungal is cautioned in patients at a high risk of heart failure?

A

Antifungal Cautioned in High-Risk Heart Failure
Itraconazole: This antifungal is cautioned in patients at high risk of heart failure due to its potential to cause negative inotropic effects, which can worsen existing heart conditions or lead to heart failure.

Monitoring: Close monitoring of cardiac function is essential when using itraconazole, especially in patients with pre-existing cardiac issues.

More at risk if on negatively ionotropic drug e.g. CCB

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65
Q

What skin condition may Terbinafine (antifungal) exacerbate?

A

Terbinafine: Skin Condition Exacerbation
Psoriasis: Terbinafine may exacerbate psoriasis in some patients. Close monitoring is advised in individuals with a history of this condition.

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66
Q

Which antifungal can cause renal toxicity?

A

Antifungal That Can Cause Renal Toxicity
Amphotericin B: Known for its potential to cause renal toxicity, particularly when used in high doses or for prolonged periods. It can lead to acute kidney injury (AKI)and requires close monitoring of renal function.

Can also cause electrolyte disturbance: Hypokaleamia and hypomagneseamia

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67
Q

Which antimalarials are unsuitable in patients with epilepsy/ has a history of epilepsy?

A

Antimalarials Unsuitable in Epilepsy
Chloroquine: Can lower the seizure threshold, making it unsuitable for patients with a history of epilepsy.

Mefloquine: Should be avoided due to its association with neuropsychiatric effects and increased risk of seizures in patients with epilepsy.

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68
Q

A woman, 4 weeks pregnant, comes and asks you what she can do to avoid malaria when she goes to Bolivia next month. Which antimalarials are ok to use in pregnancy?

A

Chloroquine and Proguanil: These are considered safe for malaria prevention in pregnancy, especially in early pregnancy as benefit of malaria prophylaxis outweighs any risk

BUT recommend FOLIC ACID 5mg to be taken with proguanil

Doxy - last resort and must complete full course before 15 weeks gestati

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69
Q

What does the antimalarial malarone contain?

A

Proguanil & Atovaquone

This is fine to use in epilepsy; does not contain chloroquine or mefloquine

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70
Q

What is the most common causative bacteria of a UTI?

A

Escherichia coli (E. coli): The most common bacterial cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). E. coli originates from the gastrointestinal tract and is responsible for the majority of both uncomplicated and complicated UTIs.

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71
Q

Lonely frail old linda sat in her smelly flat

A
Lonely linda= Clindamycin (class of its own)
Frail= bones - clindamycin used for osteomyelitis as it concentrates in the bones
Smelly= diarrhoea= discontinue immediately
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72
Q

Daktocort cream (containing Miconazole and Hydrocortisone) needs to be stored where?? Why??Where is the ointment stored?

A

Daktocort CREAM stored in fridge- creams are more water based so more liable to bacterial growth
Ointment on shelf- more stable, less water less bacteria
Similar to chloramphenicol eye drops/ ointment- DROPS in FRIDGE as more water based
ointment on shelf

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73
Q

What drugs are used to treat Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole vaginal gel

Clindamycin cream

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74
Q

Which antifungal requires an Alert card as it is so Hepato-toxic?

A

Voriconazole

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75
Q

What two toxicities may Voriconazole cause?

A

Hepatotoxicity

Phototoxcity- avoid sunlight!

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76
Q

When should a penicillin be discontinued? Describe the affects.

A

Individuals with a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, or rash immediately after a penicillin should discontinue and not receive penicillins as these are at risk of immediate hypersensitivity.

The rash would come up straight away, be wide spread, all over body, confluent, raised and itchy (urticaria= hives like rash).

Those with history of a minor rash (non-confluent, localised to one area, non-itchy) that occurred more than 72 hours after starting the penicillin are probably not truly allergic, and if a penicillin is absolutely needed they may receive it.

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77
Q

What antibiotics are commonly seen prescribed for chest infections?

A

Penicillins- Amoxicillin or Ampicillin
Or if not: A Macrolide - Azithromycin, Clarithromycin or Erythromycin

Co-amoxiclav used for more serious chest infections as it has broader action over the typical bacteria (e.g. H. influenzae)

Co-amoxiclav used for more serious chest infections as it has broader action over the typical bacteria (e.g. H. influenzae)

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78
Q

How is oral thrush managed?

A

Initially TOPICAL treatment with either Miconazole oromucosal gel or

NYSTATIN oral suspension (use pipette provided, hold in mouth, used after food)

If these don’t work or patient has a dry mouth can use Oral fluconazole capsule

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79
Q

Which anti-epileptic does Meropenem reduce the levels of?

A

Sodium Valproate

Meropenem Interaction: Sodium Valproate
Effect: Meropenem significantly reduces sodium valproate levels, which can lead to a loss of seizure control. This interaction can result in a drop of valproate levels by up to 100% within 24 hours.
Management: Sodium valproate should not be stopped, but adjunct therapy with levetiracetam is often recommended during meropenem treatment

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80
Q

What is the usual organism (Not atypical) causing Lower respiratory tract infections?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae - major cause of pneumonia S. pneumoniae is also one of the major causes of meningitis (pneumonococcal) along with Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcal)

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81
Q

What antibiotic should be used for resistant strains of pneumonia?
AT WHAT DOSE?

WHAT IS AN ALTERNATIVE?

A

Co-amoxiclav.This contains amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid which is a beta lactamase inhibitor- this makes this antibiotic very effective against more resistant strains. (500/125 mg three times a day or 1.2 g intravenously three times a day).

Alternative: Levofloxacin (500 mg twice a day orally or intravenously), particularly if penicillin allergy is present. This is often used when fluoroquinolones are needed due to their broader spectrum, but they come with risks like tendinopathy and should be used cautiously.

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82
Q

Aside from antibiotics like clindamycin etc, what can cause C.diff?

A

PPI’s

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83
Q

What is the difference between the discharge in bacterial vaginosis and Trichomoniasis Vaginalis?

A

Bacterial Vaginosis Discharge:
Greyish-white, thin and watery discharge
Often has a strong fishy odor, especially after sex
Usually no itching or soreness.

Trichomoniasis Vaginalis Discharge:
Frothy, yellow-green discharge
Can have a fishy smell and may cause itching, soreness, and irritation around the vagina

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84
Q

Pink and frothy sputum=?

A

Heart Failure: the pulmonary oedema (fluid on lungs) can result in coughing up blood and requiring more pillows to sleep on to take weight off the chest

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85
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of Community Aquired pneumonia? (4)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae: The most common bacterial cause of CAP in adults.
Haemophilus influenzae: Frequently seen in individuals with underlying lung diseases, such as COPD.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: Often responsible for milder, atypical cases of pneumonia, especially in younger adults.
Legionella pneumophila: Causes more severe pneumonia, often linked to contaminated water sources

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86
Q

What antibiotics are suitable in pregnancy?

A

Penicillins and Cephalosporins + erythromycin

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87
Q

What are the indications for aminoglycosides?

A

Indications for Aminoglycosides

Severe Gram-negative infections(e.g., sepsis, pneumonia, urinary tract infections (pyelonephritis))
Endocarditis (in combination with other antibiotics)
Plague and tularemia
Tuberculosis (drug-resistant cases, alongside other antibiotics)

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88
Q

What is the therapeutic range for gentamicin?

A

5-10mg/L

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89
Q

Which aminoglycoside is given orally? and why?

A

Neomycin- too toxic for IV use

Reason for Oral Use: Neomycin is given orally to prepare the bowel before surgery and to treat hepatic encephalopathy. It works by reducing bacteria in the intestines, which can help prevent infection during surgery or reduce the production of toxins in liver disease

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90
Q

What are the side effects of aminoglycosides? (3)

A

1) Nephrotoxicity 2) Ototoxicity 3) Peripheral neuropathy

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91
Q

Aminoglycosides shouldn’t be used in…? (2)

A

1) Myasthenia gravis (impairs neuromuscular transmission

2) Pregnancy (ear damage)

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92
Q

Aminoglycosides interact with what drugs?

A

1) Loop diuretics and Vancomycin (ototoxicity)

2) Cisplatin, Ciclosporin and vancomycin (nephrotoxicity)

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93
Q

IV treatment with aminoglycosides should not exceed how many days?

A

7 days

Treatment should not exceed 7 days in most cases. Prolonged treatment increases the risk of renal and ototoxicity. Gentamicin and other aminoglycosides are often reviewed after 48-72 hours, with doses adjusted based on serum levels and patient response​

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94
Q

Monitoring requirements for aminoglycosides? (3)

A

Monitoring Requirements for Aminoglycosides:

  1. Serum concentration monitoring: Measure levels 12–18 hoursafter the first dose and every 3 days, or after dose adjustments.
  2. Renal function: Monitor serum creatinine and creatinine clearance
  3. Auditory and vestibular function:Check for ototoxicity, especially in patients with prolonged therapy or at high risk
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95
Q

Common bacteria in meningitis? (3)

A

Common Bacteria in Meningitis

  1. Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
  3. Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) (now rare due to vaccination)
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96
Q

Antibiotics used in meningitis?

A

Antibiotics for Meningitis

Cefotaxime (first-line treatment)
ceftriaxone(alternative if Cefotaxime is contraindicated)
Benzylpenicillin sodium if organism is sensitive eg (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
Chloramphenicol (for severe penicillin or cephalosporin allergies)

Amoxicillin or Ampicillin (for Listeria monocytogenes infections)

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97
Q

Name THE NON C cephalosporins?

A

1) Cefalexin 2) Cetrotide 3) Cefaclor 4) Cefuroxime 5) Cefixime 6) Ceftriaxone 7) Ceftaroline 8) Fosamil

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98
Q

Are cephalosporins broad spectrum?

A

Yes

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99
Q

Indications for cephalosporins?

A

Indications for Cephalosporins:

Respiratory infections: Including pneumonia and bronchitis
Meningitis: Effective against Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae
Septicemia: Often used in serious bloodstream infections
Urinary tract infections(UTIs)
Biliary-tract infections
Peritonitis

2nd or 3rd line treatment for UTI and RTI
IV for severe resistant organisms Pneumonia, meningitis, gonorrhoea

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100
Q

Side effects of cephalosporins? (2)

A

1) GI effects

2) Penicillin hypersensitivity (avoid in known allergy)

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101
Q

Do IV cephalosporins require approval by a microbiologist?

A

YES and are now mainly restricted to antibiotic associated colitis

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102
Q

Does warfarin interact with cephalosporins? if so, how?

A

YES, cephalosporins kill the gut flora responsible for synthesizing vitamin K this results in a reduction in the production of vitamin K dependent blood clotting factors-results in increased anticoagulant effect of warfarin. It is important to monitor INR levels closely and adjust the warfarin dose if needed during concurrent use​

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103
Q

What is the first line antibiotic group for MRSA?

A

Glycopeptides e.g vancomycin, Teicloplanin etc

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104
Q

What indications are glycopeptides generally used for?

A

Indications for Glycopeptides

Serious Gram-positive infections, especially MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
Endocarditis caused by Staphylococcus or Enterococcus species
Clostridium difficile infections (oral vancomycin)
Bone and joint infections when Gram-positive bacteria are involved

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105
Q

What are the main side effects of glycopeptides? (5)

A

1) Nephrotoxicity
2) Blood disorders
3) Ototoxicity
4) ‘Red man syndrome
5) Thrombophlebitis (IV)

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106
Q

When would you avoid using glycopeptides? 4

A

elderly, history of deafness, renal impairment, pregnancy (ear damage)

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107
Q

What are the monitoring requirements for glycopeptides? (5)

A

1) FBC
2) WCC
3) Hepatic and renal function
4) Urinalysis
5) Auditory function in elderly

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108
Q

What drugs do glycopeptides interact with?

A

Ciclosporin, cisplatin, aminoglycosides, loop diuretics Suxamethonium- (Increases vancomycin conc)

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109
Q

What are the indications for clindamycin? (3)
what medicine class?

A

it is a lincosamide
indications
1) Staphylococcal joint and bone infections

2) Intra abdominal sepsis

3) Cellulitis and skin and soft tissue infections (effective against penicillin resistant streptococci)

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110
Q

Important side effects of clindamycin? (4)

A

1) Antibiotic associated colitis-REPORT diarrhoea

2) Esophageal disorders

3) Jaundice

4) SJS, rash

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111
Q

In what patient groups is clindamycin CI?

A

Existing diarrhoea Caution in middle aged/ elderly women after an operation

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112
Q

What are the indications for macrolides?

A

Respiratory infections (in addition to penicillin),

Lyme disease,

severe pneumonia (added to penicillin),

skin and soft tissue infections (alternative to penicillin)

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113
Q

Important side effects of macrolides? (4)

A

1) Antibiotic associated colitis

2) QT prolongation

3) Ototoxicity

4) Cholestatic jaundice

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114
Q

Why would you avoid using macrolides in myasthenia gravis?

A

Macrolides cause electrolyte abnormalities which can aggravate myasthenia gravis

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115
Q

Main CI for macrolides?

A

1) Hepatic impairment (cholestatic jaundice)
2) Arrhythmia (QT prolongation)

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116
Q

What drugs interact with macrolides?

A

1) CYP450 substrates
2) Drugs that prolong QT interval

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117
Q

What are the main indications of metronidazole? and appropriate doses? (3)

A

1) Antibiotic associated colitis (400mg TD 5 days)
2) Oral infections (200mg TD 3 days for gingivitis)
3) Gynecological infections e.g trichomonas vaginal infection

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118
Q

Main side effects associated with metronidazole? (3)

A

1) Neurological effects e.g peripheral and optic neuropathy

2) Mouth-Taste disturbance, furred tongue and mucositis

3) Hearing loss

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119
Q

Is metronidazole a CYP450 inhibitor?

A

NO, it is a substrate of CYP450

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120
Q

What happens if you drink alcohol while taking metronidazole?

A

‘di-sulfram like’ reaction will occur. Metronidazole inhibits the clearing of acetylaldehyde (intermediary metabolite)- this causes flushing, headache, tachycardia

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121
Q

How long after stopping metronidazole should you avoid alcohol?

A

2 days

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122
Q

What drugs does metronidazole interact with? (4)

A

1) CYP450 inhibitors
2) CYP450 inducers
3) CYP450 substrates
4) Lithium (reduces clearance of lithium resulting in toxicity)

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123
Q

What effect will ketoconazole have on metronidazole?

A

Ketoconazole is a CYP450 inhibitor, metronidazole is a substrate of CYP450 therefore ketoconazole will reduce the metabolism of metronidazole. Metronidazole is a pro-drug so this will reduce the efficacy of metronidazole.

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124
Q

What duration of treatment with metronidazole requires FBC and hepatic monitoring?

A

10 days

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125
Q

Are penicillins broad spectrum?

A

Yes

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126
Q

What are the main indications for penicillins? (7)

A

1) Tonsillitis (streptococcal)
2) Otitis media
3) Cellulitis
4) respiratory tract infections
5) Meningitis
6) Tetanus (C.diff)
7) Skin and soft tissue infections

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127
Q

Main side effects of penicillin’s? (2)

A

1) Penicillin allergy

2) CNS toxicity (convulsions, coma)-do not give intrathecal injection

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128
Q

Main drug interaction of penicillin’s?

A

Methotrexate- reduced renal excretion and increased toxicity

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129
Q

What are the main indications for co-amoxiclav? (3)Main side effect of co-amoxiclav?

A

1) Pneumonia

2) UTI (250-500mg 8hrly)

3) H.pylori (combo therapy)Same as penicillin’s + Cholestatic jaundice (no more than 14 days treatment)

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130
Q

What are the main indications for flucloxacillin? (3)Main side effect of flucloxacillin?

A

1) Skin and soft tissue infections e.g cellulitis

2) Osteomyelitis/septic arthritis

3) Endocarditis Same as penicillin’s +Cholestatic jaundice

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131
Q

Name two diaminopyrimidine antibiotics

A

1) Trimethoprim 2) Co-trimoxazole

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132
Q

How do diaminopyrimidines work?

A

Bacteriostatic-inhibit folate synthesis

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133
Q

Main indications of diaminopyrimidines?

A

Uncomplicated UTI (200mg 12 hourly) trimethoprim

RTI, pneumocystis pneumonia (co-trimoxazole)

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134
Q

What are the main side effects associated with diaminopyrimidines? (Trimethoprim) (2)

A

1) Blood disorders (look out for bruising, bleeding, ulcers etc)

2) SJS

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135
Q

What are the main contra indication for diaminopyrimidines? (2)

A

1) Pregnancy (Teratogenic-especially in first trimester)

2) Caution in folate deficiency

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136
Q

Drugs that interact with diaminopyrimidines?

A

K+ elevating drugs e.g ACE inhibitors, ARB’s

Folate antagonists e.g methotrexate Phenytoin, warfarin (reduced clearance)

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137
Q

Name five Quinolone antibiotics?

A

1) Ciproflaxacin

2) Monoflaxacin

3) Levofloxacin

4) Ofloxacin

5) Norfloxacin

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138
Q

Why are quinolones typically 2nd and 3rd line drugs?

A

Rapid resistance developing
Safety Concerns: Tendinopathy, QT interval prolongation,Neurotoxicity,

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139
Q

Main indications that quinolones are used for? (4)

A

1) Complicated UTIs and pyelonephritis

2) severe GI infections including travelers diarrhoea - (e.g., salmonella, shigella)

3) LRTI -lower respiratory tract infection - Pneumonia (only when other first-line antibiotics are inappropriate)

4) Gonorrhoea (when other options are unsuitable)

5) Prostatitis (acute bacterial)

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140
Q

What are the main side effects associated with quinolones? (6)

A

1) Gastrointestinal upset: Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are common, or C. diff

2)Central nervous system effects:-seizures and hallucinations

3)Inflammation and rupture of tendons-STOP

4) Prolong QT interval-arrhythmia

5) Photosensitivity

6) Peripheral neuropathy: Causes abnormal sensations like tingling, numbness, and weakness.

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141
Q

What is an important side effect of monoflaxacin?

A

Life threatening hepatotoxicity

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142
Q

In what conditions should quinolones be use with caution?

A

1) Epilepsy

2) GPD6 deficiency

3) Joint disorders e.g myasthenia gravis

4) Children and adolescents (disease of joints)

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143
Q

What drugs do quinolones interact with?

A

1) Calcium and antacids (reduce absorption)

2) Theophylline (quinolones inhibit CYP450)

3) NSAIDS

4) Prednisolone (tendon rupture)

5) QT prolonging drugs e.g amiodarone, antipsychotics etc

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144
Q

What is the last resort antibiotic for MRSA?

A

Linezolid (vancomycin resistant cocci)

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145
Q

What types of infections is Linezolid used for?

A

Complicated skin and soft tissue infections and pneumonia
1. Infections Treated with Linezolid

  1. Pneumonia:Especially when caused by Gram-positive bacteria and when other antibacterials like vancomycin cannot be used.
  2. Complicated skin and soft-tissue infections: Particularly those caused by resistant Gram-positive organisms like MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus).
  3. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) infections
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146
Q

What type of drug is linezolid?

A

a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) in addition to being an oxazolidinone antibiotic.

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147
Q

What are the main side effects associated with Linezolid?

A

1) Bipolar and confusional states

2) History of seizures

3) Uncontrolled hypertension

4) Elderly (increased risk of eosinophilia)

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148
Q

What foods should be avoided while taking linezolid?

A

Tyramine rich foods

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149
Q

What monitoring is required for Linezolid if the treatment exceeds 14 days?

A

FBC monitoring unless patient has existing myelosuppression, taking blood drugs and renal impairment (check for eosinophilia)

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150
Q

What monitoring is required for Linezolid if treatment exceeds 28 days?

A

Check for optic neuropathy

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151
Q

What drugs does Linezolid interact with and why?

A

SSRIs, triptans, tricylic antidepressants, sympathomimetics, buspirone, opioids, pethidine, antipsychotics (MAOI inhibitor)

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152
Q

Which TWO drugs cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

Antibiotics Causing Peripheral Neuropathy:

Fluoroquinolones(e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin): Commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy, particularly with prolonged use.
Chloramphenicol: Rarely causes peripheral neuropathy, especially with prolonged or high-dose therapy.
Ethambutol: Known to cause sensory peripheral neuropathy, especially with long-term use.
Dapsone: Can cause a motor axonal neuropathy, particularly with high doses or long-term treatment

Metronidazole and nitrofurantoin

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153
Q

What type of infection is nitrofurantoin used for and what are the typical doses?

A

1st line for UTI (100mcg m/r BD for 3 days) and as prophylaxis for UTI (50-100mg nightly for max 6 months)

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154
Q

What are the main side effects associated with nitrofurantoin? (4)

A

1) Dark yellow/ brown urine

2) Pulmonary reactions

3) Peripheral neuropathy

4) Hepatitis

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155
Q

In what patient groups would nitrofurantoin be an inappropriate choice? (4)

A

Patient Groups Where Nitrofurantoin is Inappropriate:

Patients with Renal Impairment: Contraindicated in those with an eGFR of less than 45 ml/min/1.73m², as its efficacy decreases, and the risk of side effects increases.

Pregnant Women at Term (38-42 weeks): Risk of haemolytic anaemia in newborns.

Patients with G6PD Deficiency: Risk of haemolysis.

Severe Hepatic Impairment: Risk of liver damage

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156
Q

What are the TWO monitoring requirements for Long term nitrofurantoin use?

A

Hepatic and pulmonary function

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157
Q

In what patient groups would a specimen and culture be collected before treatment for UTI?

A

Men,

pregnant women,

children <3,

Upper UTI

Recurrent UTIs: reresistant organism suspected e.g Klebsiella suspected

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158
Q

What are the treatment options for an uncomplicated UTI in a child >3mo?

A

Trimethoprim, Nitrofurantoin, Cefalexin, amoxicillin

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159
Q

What are the treatment options for an uncomplicated UTI in a child <3mo?

A

IV ampicillin with gentamicin or cefotaxime in hospital, then oral treatment

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160
Q

What are the antibiotic treatment options for recurrent UTI’s in children?

A

Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

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161
Q

Name FIVE tetracyclines?

A

Tetracyline, doxycycline, minocycline, lymecyline, oxytetracyline

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162
Q

What are the main indications for tetracylines? (6)

A

1) Chlamydia and PID

2) Acne

3) LRTI (including COPD)

4) Malaria,

5) lyme disease,

6) rickettsia

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163
Q

Main side effects associated with tetracylines? (5)

A

1) Photosensitivity

2) Esophageal irritation

3) Hepatotoxicity

4) benign intracranial pressure- headache and visual disturbances-STOP

5) Discoloration of tooth enamel

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164
Q

In what patient groups would you want to avoid tetracylines?

A

1) Children <12 (binds to teeth)

2) Pregnancy and breastfeeding

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165
Q

Name TWO conditions that require prolonged courses of antibiotics?

A

TB

osteomyelitis

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166
Q

Antibiotic used to prevent pneumococcal infection in sickle cell disease?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin,

If contra indicated then erythromycin

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167
Q

Antibiotic used as prevention for early onset neonatal infection?

A

IV : Benzylpenicillin or ampicillin in combination with gentamicin, which provides broad coverage against Gram-positive bacteria like Group B Streptococcus and Gram-negative bacteria like Escherichia coli.

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168
Q

Name FOUR beta lactam antibiotics?

A

1) Penicillins

2) Cephalosporins

3) Carbapenems

4) Monobactams

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169
Q

What is the main use for fusidic acid?

A

narrow spectrum for staph infections, topically on the skin or eye or IV/oral for osteomyelitis and endocarditis

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170
Q

What is the first line treatment for C.diff?

A

vancomycin or fidoxamicin

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171
Q

What can a tobramycin dry powder inhaler be used for?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa lung infection in cystic fibrosis.

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172
Q

Name TWO carbapenems?

A

Imipenem and Meropenem

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173
Q

Name TWO cephalosporins that can be used for CNS infections?

A

1) Cefotaxime 2) Ceftriaxone

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174
Q

Which cephalosporin has good activity against haemophillus influenza?

A

Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

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175
Q

Which cephalosporin should be used in history of hypercalciuria (history of renal stones)?

A

Ceftriaxone

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176
Q

What is the maximum duration of treatment for fusidic acid?

A

10 days

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177
Q

What are the specific monitoring requirements for minocycline if the treatment is longer than 6 months?

A

Monitor every 3 months for

hepatotoxicity,

pigmentation of the skin and

systemic lupus erythromtosus

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178
Q

Name TWO antimycobacterials?

A
  1. Isoniazid

Use: First-line treatment for TB.
2. Rifampicin

Use: Essential in TB therapy and other mycobacterial infections.
3. Ethambutol

Use: Commonly used in combination therapy for TB.
4. Pyrazinamide

Use: Key part of short-course TB treatment.
5. Rifabutin

Use: For TB, especially in patients intolerant to rifampicin, and for mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).
6. Rifapentine

Use: Similar to rifampicin, often used for latent TB.
7. Clofazimine

Use: Primarily for leprosy, has anti-inflammatory effects.
8. Dapsone

Use: A key drug for leprosy, used in multidrug therapy

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179
Q

Name the three antibiotics that can be used in lyme disease?

A

1) doxycycline
2) amoxicillin
3) azithromycin

Should be used in this order unless <9 years (avoid doxycycline)

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180
Q

Name SEVEN bacteria that can cause UTI?

A

1) E coli

2) Staph saprophyticus

3) Proteus

4) Klebsiella

5) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

6) Staph epidermidus

7) Enterococcus Faecalis

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181
Q

What is the antibacterial prophylaxis and treatment of choice for animal bites?

A

Co-amoxiclav (if penicillin allergic- doxycyline + metronidazole for up to 5 days) and give the tetanus jab

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182
Q

What is the treatment for a >50 year old with meningitis?

A

First-line treatment

Ceftriaxone (2g IV every 12 hours)
Add Amoxicillin or Ampicillin (2g IV every 4 hours) to cover (Listeria monocytogenes).
Duration:

Usually 10-14 days, depending on the clinical response.

Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone AND Amoxicillin or Ampicillin Consider adding vancomycin (10 days)

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183
Q

How long is the initial phase of TB treatment?

A

Duration: 2 months

Regimen: Four-drug therapy (Rifampicin, Isoniazid with Pyridoxine, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol).
This phase is followed by a continuation phase of 4 months with Rifampicin and Isoniazid

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184
Q

How long is the second phase of TB treatment?

A

4 months
Rifampicin and Isoniazid

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185
Q

What drugs are used in the initial phase of treatment for TB?

A

Isonazid (300mg OD)
Rifampicin (<50kg=450mg OD, >50kg=600mg OD)
Pyrazinamide (<50kg=1.5g, >50kg=2g OD)
Ethambutol (15mg/kg OD)

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186
Q

What drugs are used in the second phase of treatment for TB?

A

Isonazid (300mg OD)
Rifampicin (<50kg=450mg OD, >50kg=600mg OD)

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187
Q

Which TB drugs cause liver toxicity?

A

Isonazid
Rifampacin
Pyrazinamide

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188
Q

Which TB drugs cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

Isonazid

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189
Q

Which TB drugs cause occular toxicity?

A

Ethambutol

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190
Q

What are the monitoring requirements for TB treatment?

A

Plasma levels e.g ethambutol

Urinalysis

Visual acuity testing

Blood counts

Liver and hepatic function

Auditory function in the elderly

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191
Q

What is the duration of treatment for extrapulmonary TB?

A

CNS Tuberculosis Treatment
Duration: 12 months (2 months initial, 10 months continuation).
Drugs: Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.
Steroids: Dexamethasone or Prednisolone tapered over 4–8 weeks.
Surgery: If raised intracranial pressure or spinal instability

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192
Q

What is a specific Contra indication of pyrazinamide?

A

Acute attack of gout

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193
Q

Name the antibiotics in the aminoglycoside class

A

Amikacin
Gentamicin
Neomycin
Streptomycin
Tobramycin

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194
Q

What aminoglycosides are active against Pseudomonas and what one is the treatment of choice?

A

For aminoglycosides that are active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the following are commonly used:

Gentamicin
Tobramycin
Amikacin
Among these, Tobramycin is often considered the treatment of choice for infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa due to its effectiveness, particularly in respiratory infections like cystic fibrosis.

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195
Q

What aminoglycoside is active against TB?

A

Aminoglycoside active against TB

Streptomycin:Commonly used in TB treatment, particularly for multidrug-resistant TB.
Alternatives: Amikacin, Kanamycin (used in drug-resistant TB).

Streptomycin(mainly reserved for this indication)

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196
Q

Can aminoglycosides be given orally?

A

No- destroyed by the gut so must be given via injection

except neomycin which can be given orally

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197
Q

Is gentamicin a broad or narrow antibiotic?What strains does it have poor activity against?

A

Broad but it is inactive against anaerobes and poor activity against haemolytic streptococci and pneumococci, but Very good for gram negative organisms

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198
Q

Which aminoglycoside is used for encocarditis?If it is resistant to this, what is an alternative aminoglycoside?

A

Which aminoglycoside is used for endocarditis?

Gentamicin: Used in combination with other antibiotics for gram-positive endocarditis (e.g., with penicillin or teicoplanin).
Alternative: If resistant or high-level aminoglycoside resistance occurs, Streptomycin or Amikacin may be considered as alternatives

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199
Q

Are aminoglycosides more active against gram positive or gram negative?

A

More Active Against: Gram-negative bacteria.
Examples: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli.

Use in Gram-positive infections: Often combined with other antibiotics (e.g., gentamicin with penicillin for endocarditis) for synergy

Gram negative but are broad

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200
Q

Can neomycin be given IV?

A

No, Neomycin cannot be administered intravenously.
Forms: It is used orally or topically.
Uses: For reducing gut bacteria before surgery or treating hepatic coma (oral), and for skin, eye, or ear infections (topical).
Reason: It is highly toxic systemically, making IV use inappropriate

No too toxic Can only be used for skin/mucous membrane infections… However BNF states the cream is less suitable for prescribing(Can also be used to reduce the bacterial population of the colon prior to bowel surgery or in hepatic impairment)

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201
Q

What is the problem with using aminoglycosides in myasthenia gravis?

A

Problem:Aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamicin) can impair neuromuscular transmission, worsening muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis.
Risk: This may lead to severe symptoms such as respiratory failure or even a myasthenic crisis.
Caution: Aminoglycosides should be avoided unless no alternative exists

Contraindicated May impair neuromuscular transmission

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202
Q

What antibiotics can be used for prophylaxis in rheumatic fever?

A

Pen V or sulfadiazine

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203
Q

What anitbiotics can be used for prevention of secondary case of menincoccal meningitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin Or IM ceftriaxone (unlicensed)

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204
Q

What antibiotic can be used for prevention of secondary infection for Group A strep?

A

Pen V

205
Q

What antibiotic can be used for prevention of secondary infection in Influenza Type B?

A

Rifampicin

206
Q

What antibiotic can be used for prevention of secondary cases of diphtheria in non-immune patients?

A

Erythromycin

207
Q

What is pertussis?

A

Whooping cough

208
Q

What antibiotic is used for prophylaxis of pertussis (whooping cough)?

A

Clarithromycin

209
Q

What antibiotic is used post splenectomy or in patients with sickle cell disease for prevention of pneumococcal infection?

A

Pen V(Erythromycin if penicillin allergic)

210
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis/treatment is used in animal and human bites?If the patient is penicillin allergic, what should be used instead?

A

Co-amoxIf penicillin allergic: Doxycycline and metronidazoleUp to 5 days and give tetanus jab

211
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis do you use in hip and knee replacement?

A

Single dose IV cefuroxime/flucloxacillinAdd in gent

212
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis do you use in high lower limb amputation?

A

Use i/v co-amoxiclav alone or i/v cefuroxime + i/v metronidazole

213
Q

What antibacterial prophylaxis do you use in caesarean section?

A

Single dose cefuroxime

214
Q

What is 1st line for aspergillosis?What is 2nd line if this cannot be used?

A

Voriconazole
Liposomal amphotericin

215
Q

If a patient with aspergillosis is intolerant/refractory to voriconazole and liposomal amphotericin, what other antifungals can be used?

A

CaspofunginItraconazole

216
Q

What systemic antifungal is used in vaginal candidiasis?For resistant organisms, what can be used?

A

FluconazoleItraconazole as an alternative

217
Q

What is micafungin licensed for?

A

Invasive candidiasisOesophageal candidiasisProphylaxis of candidiasis in patients undergoing haematopoietic stem cell transplantation

218
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis, a fungal infection, is especially common in which group of immunocompromised patients?How is this treated?

A

HIV positive IV amphotericin followed by PO fluconazole

219
Q

What is tinea capitis?

A

Fungal infection (ringworm) of scalp

220
Q

What is tinea pedis?

A

Athlete’s foot

221
Q

How do you treat tinea captis?

A

SystemicallyGriseofulvin Can also used an additional topical application

222
Q

True or false:In fungal nail infections, topical therapy is more effective than systemic

A

FalseSystemic is more effective

223
Q

Is fluconazole active against Aspergillus?

A

No

224
Q

Is caspofungin effective against CNS fungal infections?

A

No

225
Q

What is the advantage of lipid amphotericin formulations over conventional amphotericin?

A

Significantly less toxic and are recommended when the conventional formulation of amphotericin is contra-indicated because of toxicity, especially nephrotoxicity or when response to conventional amphotericin is inadequateHowever, more expensive

226
Q

What are echinocandin antifungals active against? (Caspofungin, micafungin)

A

Aspergillus and CandidaNot active against CNS fungal infections

227
Q

What can be used for MRSA?

A

Glycopeptides mainly:
Teicoplanin Vancomycin

Alternatives: Tigecyline, Daptomycin Linezolid (if glycopeptide unsuitable)

Tetracyclines can be used for skin or soft tissue infections or UTI caused by MRSA

Clindamycin can be used for bone and joint MRSA infections

228
Q

Are carbapenems useful against MRSA?

A

No

229
Q

Do carbapenems have good activity against pseudomonas? What is the exception to this?

A

Yes apart from ertapenem

230
Q

Why does imipenem have to be administered with cilastatin?

A

Imipenem is partially inactivated in the kidney by enzymatic activity and is therefore administered in combination with cilastatin, a specific enzyme inhibitor, which blocks its renal metabolism

231
Q

If meningitis is suspected, what antibiotic should be given before being transferred to hospital (as long as this doesn’t delay treatment)?What would be an alternative?

A

IV benpenCefotaxime if penicillin allergic / chloramphenicol if history of immediate hypersensitivity to penicillin and cephalosporins

232
Q

When would you use dexamethasone in meningitis?In what situations would you avoid this?

A

Particularly in pneumococcal meningitis in adults, either before starting antibacterial therapy or within 12 hours of startingAvoid using dex in septic shock, meningococcal septicaemia, immunocompromised, or meningitis following surgery

233
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic therapy for children 3 months - adults 50 years in meningitis if the cause is unknown?What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime or ceftriaxoneConsider adding vancomycin10 days

234
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic therapy for adults over 50 years in meningitis if the cause is unknown?What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone AND amoxicillin or ampicillinConsider adding vanc10 days

235
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by meningococci (neisseria)?What would be an alternative if not suitable?What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Benpen Or cefotaxime/ceftriaxoneChloramphenicol is an alternative if history of immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins or cephalosporins 7 days

236
Q

What bacteria can be the cause of meningitis?

A

Meningococcal (neisseria)PneumococcalHaemophilus influenzaeListeria

237
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by pneumococcal?If the organism if penicillin and cephalosporin resistant, what can be added?What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone Consider adding dex before first dose or within 12 hours of starting antibacterial therapy If penicillin sensitive, change to benpenIf penicillin and cephalosporin resistant, vancomycin and rifampicin can be added14 days

238
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?What is the suggested duration of treatment?

A

Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone Consider adding dex before first dose or within 12 hours of starting antibacterial therapy 10 days

239
Q

What is the recommended antibacterial therapy for meningitis caused by Listeria?What is the suggested duration of treatment?If history of immediate penicillin hypersensitivity, what could be an alternative?

A

Amoxicillin/ampicillin AND gentamicin 21 days - can consider stopping gentamicin after 7 daysAlternative- co-trimoxazole for 21 days

240
Q

How should the following be managed:Patients presenting with sinusitis symptoms of 10 days or less

A

Paracetamol, ibuprofen, nasal salineAntibiotics not usually required

241
Q

How should the following be managed:Patients presenting with sinusitis symptoms of 10 days or more

A

Could be considered for treatment with a high-dose nasal corticosteroid, such as mometasone furoate [unlicensed use] or fluticasone [unlicensed use] for 14 days. Supply of a back-up antibiotic prescription could be considered and used if symptoms do not improve within 7 days, or if they worsen rapidly or significantly.

242
Q

In what situations would you offer antibiotics for sinusitis?

A

Should only be offered to patients with acute sinusitis who are systemically very unwell, have signs and symptoms of a more serious illnessOr if bacterial sinusitis is suspected

243
Q

What is 1st and 2nd line in a non-penicillin allergic sinusitis patient if antibiotics are indicated?

A

1st line- Pen V2nd line- Co-amox (especially if more serious illness)

244
Q

What is 1st line in a penicillin allergic sinusitis patient if antibiotics are indicated?

A

Doxycycline or clarithyromycin

245
Q

What is 1st line in a penicillin allergic sinusitis PREGNANT patient if antibiotics are indicated?

A

Erythromycin

246
Q

What antibiotic can be used in a pregnant UTI patient?

A

Cefalexin

247
Q

If antibiotics are clinically appropriate, what would be used for otitis externa?What if the patient is penicillin allergic?

A

FlucloxacillinClarithromycin

248
Q

If antibiotics are clinically appropriate, what would be used for otitis media?What if the patient is penicillin allergic?

A

Amoxicillin (or co-amox as second line)Clarithromycin

249
Q

Otitis media is most common in which age group?

A

Children

250
Q

What antibiotics are likely to cause C.Diff?

A

ClindamycinPenicillinsCephalosporinsFluoroquinolones

251
Q

What 3 antibiotics can be used in C.Diff?

A

VancomycinMetronidazoleFidaxomicin

252
Q

For first episode of mild-moderate C.Diff, what should be used and for how long?

A

Oral vancomycin for 10 days

253
Q

For second/subsequent C.Diff infection not responding to metronidazole, what can be used and for how long?

A

Oral vancomycin Fidaxomicin can be used for severe infection 10 days

254
Q

What antibiotic is used for bacterial vaginosis and how long for?

A

Metronidazole 5-7 days

255
Q

What antibiotics cover chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin (single dose)DoxycyclineErythromycin

256
Q

What is the recommended length of treatment for osteomyelitis?

A

6 weeks

257
Q

Osteomyelitis and septic arthritis antibiotic choice:
1. First line
2. If penicillin allergic
3. If MRSA suspected

A
  1. Flucloxacillin
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Vancomycin or teicoplanin
258
Q

What penicillins can you use for oral infections e.g. dental?

A

Pen VAmoxicillinHowever these are not effective against bacteria that produces beta lactamasesCo-amox can be used in severe cases

259
Q

What is the drug of choice for acute ulcerative gingivitis?

A

Metronidazole

260
Q

Is haemophilus influenzae a bacteria or a virus?

A

Bacteria

261
Q

What is the recommended therapy for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

262
Q

What antibiotics do you use to treat an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and how long for?

A

Amoxicillin or a tetracycline for 5 days

263
Q

What antibiotic therapy is recommended in low severity CAP and how long for?What would be alternatives?

A

AmoxicillinAlternatives= doxycycline, clarithromycin7 days (if infection caused by staph (MRSA), it would be 14-21 days)

264
Q

What antibiotic therapy is recommended in moderate severity CAP and how long for?

A

Amoxicillin AND clarithromycinOr doxycycline alone 7 days

265
Q

What antibiotic therapy is recommended in high severity CAP and how long for?

A

Co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin or oral erythromycin (in pregnancy).
Alternative in penicillin allergy: levofloxacin (consult local microbiologist if fluoroquinolone not appropriate).

266
Q

For life-threatening CAP, what would be the recommended treatment and how long for?If the patient was penicillin allergic, what would be the alternative?

A

Co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin or oral erythromycin (in pregnancy).
Alternative in penicillin allergy: levofloxacin (consult local microbiologist if fluoroquinolone not appropriate).

267
Q

In CAP, the usual treatment duration is 5 days. When would you extend this to 7-21 days?

A

If staphylococci suspected

268
Q

If MSRA was suspected in CAP, what would you add on to the treatment?

A

Teic/vanc

269
Q

What are the main organisms that cause pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniaeHaemophilus influenzaeChlamydia pneumoniaeMycoplasma pneumoniaeLegionella pneumophila

270
Q

What would you use to treat pneumonia caused by chlamydial/mycoplasma?

A

Doxycycline

271
Q

What is the difference between early onset vs late onset HAP (in terms of days in hospital)?

A

Early onset = less than 5 days admission to hospitalLate onset = more than 5 days after admission to hospital

272
Q

How do you treat early onset HAP?

A

Co-amox or cefuroxime

273
Q

How do you treat late onset HAP?

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin e.g. Pip TazORBroad spectrum cephalosporin e.g. ceftazidimeORQuinolone e.g. ciprofloxacinMRSA- add vanc

274
Q

What would you use to treat a small area of impetigo?

A

Fusidic acid

275
Q

What would you use to treat a widespread infection of impetigo?If penicillin allergic, what would be an alternative?

A

Oral flucloxacillin Clarithromycin

276
Q

What would you use to treat cellulitis?If penicillin allergic, what can be used?

A

High dose flucloxacillin Clindamycin/clarithromycin

277
Q

What antibiotic would you use for mastitis during breastfeeding?What if penicillin allergic?

A

FlucloxacillinErythromycin10-14 days

278
Q

What are the side effects of aminoglycosides?

A

Hearing impairment (ototoxicity - patients should report tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo)NephrotoxicityMay impair muscle transmission-c/i in myasthenia gravis

279
Q

What is the risk of aminoglycosides to the infant in pregnancy?

A

Risk of auditory or vestibular nerve damage

280
Q

What is a possible problem with carbapenems that means it is cautioned in CNS disorders?

A

Seizure inducing potential Also increased risk of seizures if renal impairment is present

281
Q

Should you give carbapenems if there is a history of immediate hypersensitivity to penicillins?

A

No

282
Q

True or false:Cephalosporins penetrate the meninges poorly unless they are inflamed

A

TRUE

283
Q

What are some common side effects of cephalosporins?

A

Abdo painEosoniphiliaThrombocytopenia

284
Q

Should you give cephalosporins if there is a history of penicillin allergy?

A

Used in cautionBut should not be given if there is immediate hypersensitivity

285
Q

What are the glycopeptide antibiotics?

A

DalbavancinTeicoplaninTelavancinVancomycin

286
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has a lower incidence of nephrotoxicity:TeicoplaninVancomycin

A

Teicoplanin

287
Q

What drugs are associated with red man syndrome?

A

GlycopeptidesTeicoplaninVancomycin

288
Q

What is the main advice to give to patients on clindamycin and should stop taking if this happens?

A

Diarrhoea Stop and contact doctor

289
Q

What are the cautions in macrolides?

A

QT prolongationand electrolyte disturbances

290
Q

Amoxicillin can cause an increased risk of erythematous rash in what conditions?

A

Acute lymphocytic leukaemiaChronic lymphocytic leukaemiaCMVGlandular fever

291
Q

Why should you maintain adequate hydration with high doses of IV amoxicillin?

A

Risk of crystalluria Especially in renal impairment

292
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 1-11 months?

A

125mg TDS (increased up to 30mg/kg TDS if needed)

293
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 1-4 years?

A

250mg TDS(increased up to 30mg/kg TDS if needed)

294
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 5-11 years?

A

500mg TDS(increased up to 30mg/kg TDS if needed)

295
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for a child 12-17 years?

A

500mg TDSIncreased up to 1g TDS if needed

296
Q

What is the dose of amoxicillin in susceptible infection for an adult?

A

500mg TDS

297
Q

What is the MHRA warning surrounding flucloxacillin?

A

Cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis

298
Q

What is a side effect of oral amoxicillin and co-amox in terms of colouring the patient’s tongue?

A

Black hairy tongue

299
Q

Ciprofloxacin is a type of what antibiotic?

A

Quinolone

300
Q

What is the important safety information regarding fluoroquinolones?

A

May induce convulsions in patients with or without a history of convulsions; taking NSAIDs at the same time may also induce them.Tendon damage (including rupture) has been reported rarely in patients receiving quinolones. Tendon rupture may occur within 48 hours of starting treatmentSmall increased risk of aortic aneurysm and dissection

301
Q

Should quinolones be used in MRSA?

A

No

302
Q

What quinolone is active against pseudomonas?

A

Ciprofloxacin

303
Q

What are some common side effects of quinolones?

A

QT prolongationHearing impairmentDecreased appetiteRhabdomylosisDrug should be discontinued if psychiatric, neurological reactions occurCautioned in young adults and children- risk of arthropathy

304
Q

What antibiotic would you use for PCP prophylaxis and treatment?

A

Co-trimoxazole

305
Q

What is a rare but serious side effect of co-trimoxazole?

A

Blood disorders Rash - steven johnson’s syndrome

306
Q

What age group are tetracyclines contraindicated in?

A

Children < 12 due to deposition in growing bones and teeth Staining of teeth can occur

307
Q

What are the common side effects of tetracyclines?

A

Angiodema

Henoch Schonlein purpura (spotty rash)

Photosensitivity reaction

Headaches and visual disturbances- may indicate benign intercranial hypertension - discontinue if intercranial pressure increases

308
Q

Is there any special patient advice with doxycycline?

A

Should be taken with mealsAvoid exposure to sunlight and sun lamps Do not take zinc, indigestion remedies 2 hours before or after

309
Q

What is a serious side effect of chloramphenicol when given systemically?

A

Haemotological side effects (agranulocytosos, bone marrow disorder) Aplastic anaemia- reports of leukaemiaShould only be reserved for life-threatening conditions e.g. typhoid fever

310
Q

What muscle side effect can daptomycin cause?

A

MyopathyReport any muscle weakness and monitor creatine kinase if necessaryNeed to monitor CK twice a week whilst on it

311
Q

What monitoring requirements are needed for systemic fusidic acid?

A

Elevated liver enzymes, hyperbilirubinaemia and jaundice can occur with systemic useManufacturer advises monitor liver function with high doses or on prolonged therapy

312
Q

What is the important safety information regarding linezolid?

A

Severe optic neuropathy- patients should report visual impairment Blood disorders - thrombocytopenia, anaemia,

313
Q

What food does linezolid interact with and why?

A

Tyramine-rich foods (such as mature cheese, salami)Avoid consuming large amountsAlso is a reversible MAOI

314
Q

Is linezolid active against gram-ve, gram+ve or both?

A

Gram +ve

315
Q

What would be the dose of trimethoprim in an adult for UTI?

A

200mg BD

316
Q

Can you use trimethoprim in renal impairment?

A

Yes- monitorMay need to half normal dose

317
Q

What is the patient advice surrounding rifampicin?

A

May stain contact lenses red Report signs of liver disorder May colour urine red - harmless

318
Q

How does rifampicin interact with hormonal contraceptives?

A

Effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives are reduced - alternative method needed

319
Q

What antibiotics are used in the initial phase of TB treatment?

A

Rifampicin IsoniazidPyrazinamideEthambutolStreptomycin- hardly used but may be useful if resistant to isoniazid

320
Q

How many antibacterials are used in the initial phase of TB treatment and how long for?

A

4 FOR 2 months

321
Q

How many antibacterials are used in the continuous phase of TB treatment and how long for?

A

2 FOR 4 months

322
Q

If someone is isoniazid, what else must be prescribed and why?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)Prophylaxis of isoniazid-induced neuropathy

323
Q

Generally speaking, after 2 months of RIPE treatment for TB, what antibiotics are continued for a further 4 months?

A

Rifampicin and isoniazid (needs to be on pyridoxine for prevention of neuropathy)

324
Q

What treatment for TB should be given in pregnancy and breastfeeding?

A

RIPE for 2 months and then RI (Rifampicin and isoniazid) for a further 4 monthsShould NOT be given streptomycin

325
Q

DOT TB therapy should be offered to which groups of people?

A

Directly observed therapy should be offered to patients who:-Have a history of non-adherence;-Have previously been treated for tuberculosis;-Are in denial of the tuberculosis diagnosis;have multidrug-resistant tuberculosis;have a major psychiatric or cognitive disorder;-Have a history of homelessness, drug or alcohol misuse;-Are in prison, or have been in the past 5 years;-Are too ill to self-administer treatment;-Request directly observed therapy.

326
Q

In a patient with HIV and TB, starting antiretrovirals in the first 2 months of TB treatment can increase the risk of what?

A

Immune reconstitution syndrome

327
Q

In patients with HIV and TB, how long should the TB treatment be for?What is the exception to this?

A

6 monthsHowever if the TB has CNS involvement, 12 months max

328
Q

What is the general TB treatment regimen?

A

RIPE for 2 months and then RI (Rifampicin and isoniazid) for a further 4 months

329
Q

What is the general CNS TB treatment?

A

RIPE for 2 months and then RI (Rifampicin and isoniazid) for a further 10 monthsInitial high dose of dexamethasone or prednisolone should be started at the same time and slowly withdrawn over 4-8 weeks

330
Q

What would be the treatment regimen for latent TB?

A

Isoniazid for 6 months - recommended if interactions with rifampicin a concernOR rifampicin and isoniazid for 3 months - recommended if hepatotoxicity a concern

331
Q

A break in TB treatment of how many weeks is classed as a treatment interruption?

A

2 weeks

332
Q

What are the 6 toxicity syndromes associated with intermittent TB treatment?

A

Influenza-like, abdominal, and respiratory symptoms, shock, renal failure, and thrombocytopenic purpura

333
Q

What is the brand name of the medicine that contains RIPE for TB?

A

Voractiv

334
Q

What is the brand name of medicine that contains RI (rifampicin and isoniazid) for TB?

A

Rifinah

335
Q

Why is ethambutol cautioned in young children?

A

Can cause visual impairmentEthambutol should be used with caution in children until they are at least 5 years old and capable of reporting symptomatic visual changes accurately.

336
Q

What kind of toxcity can ethambutol cause?

A

Ocular - report any visual disturbancesNephrotoxicityOther side effects include red-green colour blindness, hepatotoxicity

337
Q

What are the main side effects to look out for in a patient on isoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathyHepatic disordersOtotoxicity

338
Q

What are the main side effects to look out for in a patient on pyrazinamide?

A

HepatoxicityAggravates gout

339
Q

What antibiotics respond to a lower UTI?

A

TrimethoprimNitrofurantoinAmoxicillinAmpicillinCefalexin

340
Q

What is the recommended duration of treatment for uncomplicated UTI in women?

A

3 days

341
Q

What antibiotics for a UTI should be used in pregnancy?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins are the best choices

342
Q

At what EGFR should you avoid prescribing nitrofurantoin in?

A

<45

343
Q

Does does caspofungin interact with and what should be done about the dose?

A

Some enzyme inducers e.g. rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin increase dose to 70mg daily (if not already on it)

344
Q

What is the risk of giving an infusion of amphotericin?

A

Risk of arrhythmias if given too rapidly Anaphylaxis- test dose is needed and close observation is needed for first 30 mins after this test dose

345
Q

What are some side effects of amphotericin?

A

NAME?

346
Q

Are different preparations of amphotericin interchangeable?

A

No Vary in PD, PKShould preferably prescribe by brand to avoid confusion

347
Q

What are some side effects of fluconazole?

A

NAME?

348
Q

What is a specific side effect with IV isavuconazole?

A

Infusion related reactions:Hypotension, SOB, paraesthesiaNausea, headacheDiscontinue if these occur

349
Q

What is the important safety information regarding itraconazole?

A

Reports of heart failure, especially in high risk patients:- High dose and long courses- Patients on negative ionotropic drugs- CCBs- Elderly - Chronic heart diseaseShould be avoided in those with a history of heart failure unless the infection is serious Also, hepatotoxicity that can be life-threatening can occur. Patient should be aware of liver disorder signs

350
Q

What are the specific side effects for voriconazole that requires patient counselling?

A

Hepatotoxicity- patients should be aware of liver disorder signsPhototoxicity- patients should avoid intense or prolonged exposure to direct sunlight, avoid sunbeds If they get sunburnt, seek medical attention It is the antifungal that is most associated with hallucinationsKeep an alert card on them

351
Q

What is the contraception and conception advice for both men and women who are on griseofulvin (antifungal for dermatophyte infections of the skin)?

A

Women:Should continue effective contraception at least 1 month after administration. The effectiveness of the pill may reduce so use an additional barrier methodMen: Avoid fathering a child during and for at least 6 months after administration

352
Q

What adjunctive therapy is recommended in PCP treatment in patients with HIV?

A

For moderate to severe infections, prednisolone for 21 days

353
Q

True or false:All members in a household must be treated if one person in the house has threadworm

A

TRUE

354
Q

What is the drug of choice for threadworm?

A

Mebendazole

355
Q

For malaria prophylaxis, what are mosquito nets usually impregnated with?

A

Permethrin (insecticide)

356
Q

Can DEET spray be used during pregnancy and breastfeeding?

A

Yes

357
Q

When applying DEET and suncream, what should be applied first?

A

Suncream Then DEET

358
Q

How does DEET spray affect the SPF of suncream?

A

Lowers it so a factor 30-50 should be used

359
Q

Generally speaking, how much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis be started?What are the exceptions to this?

A

1-2 weeks before Mefloquine is 2-3 weeks beforeMalarone and doxycycline is 1-2 days beforeIn warfarin patients- 2-3 weeks before

360
Q

How much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis with Malarone be started?

A

1-2 days before

361
Q

How much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis with doxycycline be started?

A

1-2 days before

362
Q

How much time before travelling should malaria prophylaxis with mefloquine be started?

A

2-3 weeks before

363
Q

How long can Malarone be used for in malaria prophylaxis?

A

Up to 1 year

364
Q

How long can doxycycline be used for in malaria prophylaxis?

A

Up to 2 years

365
Q

How long can mefloquine be used for in malaria prophylaxis?

A

Up to 1 year

366
Q

What antimalarials are unsuitable for those with epilsepy?What would be alternatives?

A

ChloroquineMefloquineProguanil is recommended in areas with chloroquine resistanceDoxycyline or Malarone is recommended in areas without chloroquine resistance

367
Q

Which group of patients are at a particularly high risk of severe malaria?

A

Those without a spleen

368
Q

What antimalarials can be given at their usual dose during pregnancy?

A

ChloroquineProguanilHowever, resistance exists so may have to look at other options, only if benefit outweighs risk and travel is unavoidable

369
Q

If a pregnant lady is on proguanil during malaria prophylaxis, what else must she be on?

A

Folic acid at high dose (5mg) for at least the first trimester

370
Q

How long should malaria prophylaxis continue after leaving the at risk country?What is the exception to this?

A

Continue for 4 weeks afterExcept for Malarone which is 1 week

371
Q

In warfarin patients, when should malaria prophylaxis begin?

A

2-3 weeks before travellingINR should be stable before departure

372
Q

When should INR be checked in warfarin patients on malaria prophylaxis?

A

Before starting the course7 days after starting the course After completing the courseFor prolonged stays, INR needs to be checked at regular intervals

373
Q

What is standby malaria treatment?

A

Travellers visiting remote, malarious areas for prolonged periods should carry standby treatment if they are likely to be more than 24 hours away from medical care. Self-medication should be avoided if medical help is accessible.In order to avoid excessive self-medication, the traveller should be provided with written instructions that urgent medical attention should be sought if fever (38°C or more) develops 7 days (or more) after arriving in a malarious area and that self-treatment is indicated if medical help is not available within 24 hours of fever onset.

374
Q

When travelling to different places that require 2 different malaria prophylaxis regimens, what do you do?

A

The regimen for the higher risk area should be used for the whole journey

375
Q

What combination of antimalarials is in Malarone/Maloff?

A

Atovaquone and proguanil

376
Q

For the treatment of malaria, is the infective species is unknown/mixed, what are the options?

A

MalaroneRiametQuinine

377
Q

What is P. Falciparum resistant to?

A

Chloroquine

378
Q

What are the treatment options for malaria caused by P.Falciparum?

A

Quinine (with doxycycline or clindamycin)MalaroneRiamet

379
Q

What are the treatment options for malaria caused by P.Falciparum in pregnancy?

A

Quinine followed by clindamycin(cannot use doxycycline)

380
Q

What are the treatment options for non-falciparum malaria?

A

ChloroquineHowever, if resistant- Malarone or Riamet

381
Q

What are the treatment options for non-falciparum malaria in pregnancy?

A

Chloroquine

382
Q

What antimalarials does Riamet contain?

A

Artemether and lumefantrine

383
Q

What is the important safety information with chloroquine?

A

Occular toxicity Very toxic in overdose

384
Q

What are some side effects of chloroquine?

A

QT prolongation
Agranulocytosis

Side-effects which occur at doses used in the prophylaxis or treatment of malaria are generally not serious

Arrhythmias and convulsions in overdose

385
Q

What is a main neurological side effect of mefloquine?

A

Mefloquine is associated with potentially serious neuropsychiatric reactions. Abnormal dreams, insomnia, anxiety, and depression occur commonly.Therefore, contraindicated in those with history of psychiatric disorders including depressionHas a long half life so can persist up to several months after discontinuation

386
Q

What screening should be done before a patient starts taking primaquine and why?

A

G6PD as if deficient, can cause haemolysis

387
Q

What is the difference between quinine sulphate and quinine bisulphate?

A

Bisulphate has less quinine inShould not be used for malaria, only quinine sulphate

388
Q

What is the important safety information regarding quinine?

A

QT prolongation

389
Q

What are the initial treatment options for chronic Hep B?

A

Peginterferon alphaInterferon alphaTreatment with the above should be stopped if no improvement after 4 monthsEntecavirTenofovirTreatment should be changed to other antivirals if no improvement after 6-9 months

390
Q

What determines treatment route for chronic Hep C?

A

Before starting treatment, the genotype of the infecting hepatitis C virus should be determined and the viral load measured as this may affect the choice and duration of treatment.

391
Q

What is used for the initial treatment of chronic Hep C?

A

Combination of ribavirin and peginterferon alphaRibavirin monotherapy=ineffective

392
Q

What is the MRHA warning regarding direct-acting antivirals to treat chronic Hep C?

A

Risk of interaction with Vitamin K antagonists and changes in INR. INR needs to be monitored closelyRisk of Hep B reactivation (if patient has both B and C)Need to be screened for Hep B before starting treatment

393
Q

What is herpes labialis?

A

Cold sore

394
Q

What is herpes zoster?

A

Shingles

395
Q

What is varicella?

A

Chicken pox

396
Q

In shingles, within how many hours of rash onset should antivirals be started?How long is it continued for?

A

Within 72 hoursContinued for 7-10 days

397
Q

In adults with chickenpox, within how many hours of rash onset should antivirals be started to reduce duration and severity of symptoms?

A

Within 24 hours

398
Q

What kind of drug is foscarnet?

A

Antiviral

399
Q

What antivirals are used for CMV?

A

Ganciclovir IVValganciclovir POFoscaret - toxic and causes renal impairment

400
Q

During CMV treatment, what does ganciclovir cause if given with zidovudine (for HIV)?

A

Myelosuppression

401
Q

Initial treatment of HIV-1 includes what combination types of antiretroviral drugs?

A

Triple therapy2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and ONE of the following;- Boosted protease inhibitor- Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor- Integrase inhibitor

402
Q

What is used for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Emtricitabine with tenofovir

403
Q

Why are some HIV medicines used in combination with cobicistat?

A

It is a pharmacokinetic enhancer that boosts the concentrations of other antiretrovirals, but it has no antiretroviral activity itself.

404
Q

Name the nucleoside reverse transciptase inhibitors for HIV

A

ZidovudineAbacavirDidanosineEmtricitabineLamivudineStavudineTenofovir disoproxil.

405
Q

Name the protease inhibitors used for HIV

A

AtazanavirDarunavirFosamprenavirRitonavirSaquinavirTipranavirMetabolised by cytochrome P450 enzyme systems

406
Q

Name the integrase inhibitors used for HIV

A

Dolutegravir, elvitegravir and raltegravir

407
Q

Name the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors used for HIV

A

Efavirenz, etravirine, nevirapine, and rilpivirine

408
Q

What is Maraviroc?

A

Antagonist of the CCR5 chemokine receptor. It is licensed for patients exclusively infected with CCR5-tropic HIV.

409
Q

What has been reported in patients with advanced HIV disease or following long-term exposure to antiretroviral treatment?

A

Osteonecrosis

410
Q

What is the MHRA advice regarding preparations containing dolutegravir (integrase inhibitor used for HIV)?

A

Increased risk of neural tube defects; do not prescribe to women seeking to become pregnant; exclude pregnancy before initiation and advise use of effective contraception

411
Q

What CNS effects can efavirenz cause and how can this be reduced?

A

Depression, psychosis, confusion, hallucination, abnormal behaviour, suicidal ideations Take the dose at bedtime, especially during the first 2-4 weeks of treatment

412
Q

What reaction can occur with HIV medicines?

A

Hypersensitivity e.g. Rash, lesions, oedema, SOB

413
Q

Which HIV medicine is associated with a high incidence of rash including Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Nevirapine

414
Q

What is the important information that requires patient counselling for patients on nevirapine for HIV?

A

NAME?

415
Q

Efavirenz for HIV is associated with an increase in plasma concentration of what substance?

A

Cholesterol

416
Q

What are the long term effects of HIV treatment?

A

1.Immune reconstitution syndrome: as the immune system stands up on its feet again due to antiretroviral treatment, marked inflammatory reactions happen against opportunistic organisms2. Lipodystrophy syndrome: this is made up of insulin resistance, fat redistribution and dyslipidaemiaBlood lipids and sugars should be measured before, 3-6 months after and yearly after HIV treatment.3. Osteonecrosis: following long-term exposure to treatment.

417
Q

Protease inhibitors are mainly associated with what side effects?

A

Lipodystrophy and metabolic effects.

418
Q

What can be used for the treatment of influenza and within how many hours of symptom onset should it be started?

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) first line and zanamivir is reserved for those who are immunocompromised or when oseltamivir cannot be usedWithin 48 hours

419
Q

What can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis of influenza and within how many hours of exposure?

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) within 48 hours of exposure and zanamivir within 36 hours of exposure

420
Q

How long should influenza treatment be for?

A

Twice daily dosing for 5 days

421
Q

How long should post-exposure prophylaxis for influenza be for?

A

Once daily dosing for 10 days

422
Q

What is a particular caution with co-amoxiclav in in terms of side effects?

A

Cholestatic jaundice can occur either during or shortly after the use of co-amoxiclav.

423
Q

What is a rare but potentially fatal side effect of ketoconazole?

A

Associated with fatal hepatotoxicity. The CSM advise that prescribers shouldweigh the potential benefits of ketoconazole treatment against the risk of liver damage and shouldcarefully monitor patients both clinically and biochemically.

424
Q

What penicillin based antibiotics must you take on an empty stomach (1 hour before food or 2 hours after food)?

A

FlucloxacillinAmpicillinPenicillin V

425
Q

What shouldn’t a patient take at the same time as tetracycline antibiotics?

A

Do not take milk, indigestion remedies, or medicinescontaining iron or zinc at the same time of day as this medicine (prevents absorption of the antibioticand should be taken 2-3 hours apart)Oxytetracycline and tetracycline should be taken on an empty stomach

426
Q

Which tetracycyline antibiotics should be taken on an empty stomach?

A

Oxytetracycline and tetracycyline

427
Q

What is the patient advice surrounding trimethoprim?

A

On long-term treatment, patients and their carers should be told how to recognise signs of blood disorders and advised to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms such as fever, sore throat, rash, mouth ulcers, purpura, bruising or bleeding develop.

428
Q

True or false:Rifampicin should be taken on an empty stomach

A

TRUE

429
Q

True or false:Metronidazole should be taken on an empty stomach

A

FalseTake with or just after food

430
Q

What shouldn’t a patient take at the same time as ciprofloxacin?

A

Do not take milk, indigestion remedies, or medicines containing iron orzinc at the same time of day as this medicine.

431
Q

What specific monitoring should you do with daptomycin?

A

Creatine kinase twice a week

432
Q

What is the CHMP advice regarding the use of oral ketoconazole to treat fungal infections?

A

Marketing authorisation for oral ketoconazole to treat fungal infections should be suspended. The CHMP concluded that the risk of hepatotoxicity associated with oral ketoconazole is greater than the benefit in treating fungal infectionPeople with a prescription for oral ketoconazole should be referred back to their doctors

433
Q

How does calcium carbonate interact with doxycycline? What do you recommend the patient does if the patient is normally on calcium carbonate e.g. Adcal and is prescribed doxycycline?

A

Calcium carbonate is predicted to decrease the absorption of doxycycline Separate administration by 2-3 hours

434
Q

What CD4 count is classed as AIDs?

A

<200

435
Q

Which of the following is active against pseudomonas:- Benpen- Flucloxacillin- Ampicillin- Piperacillin

A

Piperacillin (Pip taz)

436
Q

Which antibacterial drug increases the risk of serotonin syndrome?LinezolidVancomycinTelvancinSeptrin

A

Linezolid as it is a weak MAOI Serotonin syndrome risk increases with:SSRIsTCAsMacrolidesAmiodaroneFluoroquinolonesAntipsychoticsQuinineRisk of hypertensive crisis

437
Q

Which drug class is most associated with lipodystrophy?Antiretroviral drugsAlkylating agentsTCAsARBs

A

Antiretroviral drugs can cause redistribution of fat around the body

438
Q

Quinine can be very toxic - what are the signs of toxicity?

A

Life-threatening features include arrhythmias (which can have a very rapid onset) and convulsions (which can be intractable).

439
Q

What are adverse effects of quinine?

A

TinnitusDeafnessBlindnessQT prolongationHypoglycaemiaGI upsetHypersensitivity reactions

440
Q

What advice should you give to a patient on metronidazole regarding their urine?

A

May darken urine (brown)

441
Q

Which of these is used to boost the effects of protease inhibitors?ElvitegravirMaravirocRitonavirEtravirine

A

Ritonavir - it is a protease inhibitor itself but it inhibits CYP enzymes that would otherwise metabolise other protease inhibitors

442
Q

What are the side effects of trimethoprim?

A

Megaloblastic anaemiaGI effectsTaste disturbanceElevated creatinine levelsSkin rashHyperkalaemia

443
Q

Trimethoprim can cause high levels of what electrolyte?

A

Potassium

444
Q

What is the advice surrounding ribavirin and contraception?

A

Effective contraception essential during treatment and for 4 months after treatment in females and for 7 months after treatment in males of childbearing age.

445
Q

What is the standard dose of oseltamivir in:i) Treatment of fluii) Prevention of flu

A

i) 75mg BD for 5 days for treatmentii) 75mg OD for 10 days for prophylaxis

446
Q

Is vancomycin good for treating gram negative or positive organisms?

A

Gram positive

447
Q

Is teicoplanin good for treating gram negative or positive organisms?

A

Gram positive

448
Q

Allopurinol and what antibiotic can result in a skin rash?

A

Amoxicillin

449
Q

True or false:NSAIDs and fluoroquinolones together increase seizure risk

A

TRUE

450
Q

Can macrolides cause QT prolongation?

A

Yes

451
Q

What tetracyclines can you take with milk?

A

Does Like Milk acronymDoxyclineLymecyclineMinocycline

452
Q

What is 1st line treatment for chlamydia (both the patient and partner)?If this is not suitable, what regimes can be used instead?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg BD for 7 daysAlternatives:Azithromycin 1 g orally for one day, then 500mg orally once daily for two daysErythromycin 500 mg BD for 10–14 days

453
Q

How you manage a pregnant lady with chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin 1 g orally for one day, then 500mg orally once daily for two daysErythromycin 500 mg BD for 10–14 days

454
Q

If a patient is thought to have chlamydia and presents in a primary care setting, where should you refer to?

A

GUM clinic

455
Q

When should you do an STI screen in a patient with chlamydia?

A

1 week after completing treatment

456
Q

If a patient and their partner are being treated for chlamydia, how long should they abstain from sexual intercourse?With what antibiotic is this different?

A

Until they have both finished treatmentWith azithromycin, you need to wait 7 days after

457
Q

Does a partner of someone of chlamydia need to be treated if their screen result is negative?

A

Yes

458
Q

How many weeks after the start of treatment do you do a test of cure treatment for chlamydia?

A

5 weeks

459
Q

What age should you offer repeat testing of chlamydia in 3-6 months after treatment?

A

<25 years

460
Q

What can a high ESR indicate?

A

Inflammation, infection

461
Q

Is ESR usually low or raised in infection?

A

Raised

462
Q

Why aren’t quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin generally used in children?

A

Quinolones cause arthropathy and therefore are not recommended in children and growing adolescents.

463
Q

What is the cut off eGFR for nitrofurantoin?

A

45

464
Q

Can you use tetracyclines in renal impairment?

A

No - should not be given at all in renal impairment Apart from doxycycline and minocycline (but these should be used with caution)

465
Q

Can tetracyclines cause hepatotoxicity?

A

Yes

466
Q

True or false:Tetracyclines can be used during pregnancy

A

FALSE

467
Q

True or false:Trimethoprim can be used during pregnancy

A

False - teratogenic in first trimester

468
Q

True or false:Nitrofurantoin can be used during pregnancy

A

True But avoid at term

469
Q

Can metronidazole be used during pregnancy?

A

No Only use if benefit outweighs risk

470
Q

Is Ben Pen active against streptococci?

A

Yes

471
Q

Is linezolid active against MRSA?

A

Yes

472
Q

Can chloramphenicol be used in pregnancy?

A

No

473
Q

Should metronidazole be taken with or without food?

A

With or just after food

474
Q

What electrolyte disturbances can be caused by aminoglycosides?

A

HypokalaemiaHypo MgHypo Ca

475
Q

What is the MHRA warning about gentamicin?

A

Potential for histamine-related adverse drug reactions with some batches

476
Q

Is gentamicin used for MRSA?

A

No

477
Q

Red man syndrome caused by vancomycin causes is associated with what other clinical features?

A

HypotensionBronchospasms Caused by rapid infusion

478
Q

Which is associated with a higher incidence of nephrotoxicity?TeicoplaninVancomycin

A

Vancomycin

479
Q

If a patient on a tetracycline develops a headache, what should they do?

A

Stop Side effect of tetracyclines- benign intracranial hypertension

480
Q

What tetracyclines should you avoid milk in? (DOT)

A

DemeclocyclineOxytetracyclineTetracycline

481
Q

What tetracyclines can you have milk with? (DLM)

A

Doxycycline LymecyclineMinocycline

482
Q

What tetracyclines cause oesophageal irritation and is recommended to take with plenty of fluid?

A

DoxycyclineMinocyclineTetracycline

483
Q

Can ciprofloxacin cause QT prolongation?

A

Yes

484
Q

Are quinolones active against MRSA?

A

No

485
Q

If a patient on a quinolone develops psychiatric disturbances, what should you recommend?

A

They should stop the drug

486
Q

What is the interaction between ciprofloxacin and theophylline?

A

Ciprofloxacin is an enzyme inhibitor and causes theophylline toxicity - convulsions risk

487
Q

Which quinolone should you protect yourself from sunlight if on it?

A

Ofloxacin

488
Q

Cholestatic jaundice risk is increased with amoxicillin/flucloxacillin if on it for more than how many days?

A

14 days

489
Q

What is the dosing regimen for Malarone for the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

1 tablet OD, started 1-2 days before, during, and 7 days afterTake with food/milky drink

490
Q

Should Malarone be taken on an empty stomach or with food?

A

Take with food/milky drink to maximise absorption

491
Q

What is the renal cut off for Malarone?

A

<30 mL/min

492
Q

What is the dosing regimen for doxycycline for the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

1 tablet OD, started 1-2 days before, during, and 4 weeks after

493
Q

How long do you continue malaria prophylaxis with doxycycline after leaving the area of risk?

A

4 weeks after

494
Q

What is the dosing regimen for chloroquine in the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

2 tablets once a weekStart 1 week before, during and 4 weeks afterTake just after food

495
Q

Should chloroquine be taken on an empty stomach?

A

No Take just after food

496
Q

Should proguanil be taken on an empty stomach?

A

No Take just after food

497
Q

What is the dosing regimen for proguanil in the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

2 tablets ODStarted 1 week beforeContinue for 4 weeks after Take just after food

498
Q

Should mefloquine be taken on an empty stomach?

A

No Take just after food

499
Q

What are the side effects associated with glycopeptides?

A

NAME?

500
Q

What is the dose of trimethoprim for a UTI?

A

200mg BD

501
Q

What is the safest macrolide to use in pregnancy?

A

Erythromycin

502
Q

What is penicillin G?

A

Benzylpenicillin

503
Q

What is first line for acute infective exacerbation of COPD and how long for?

A

Amoxicilin, clarithromycin or doxycycline for 5 days

504
Q

What is first line for acute exacerbation of bronchietasis and how long for?

A

Amoxicilin, clarithromycin or doxycycline for 7-14 days

505
Q

What is low severity CAP in terms of CURB score?

A

0-1

506
Q

What is moderate severity CAP in terms of CURB score?

A

2

507
Q

What is high severity CAP in terms of CURB score?

A

03-May

508
Q

What is the CURB score and what does each marker mean?

A

Confusion - mental test 8 or less Urea > 7 mmol/LResp rate 30 breaths/min or moreBlood pressure systolic < 90 or diastolic 60 or less65 years and older1 point for eachLow risk 0-1Moderate 2High risk 3-5

509
Q

What monitoring is required for clindamycin?

A

Renal and liver function if more than 10 days of treatment