Chapter 5: Genetic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. List and discuss the three broad categories of human genetic disorders.
A

1. Mutations in a single gene with large effects (Mendelian disorders)

2. Chromosomal disorders

3. Complex multigenic disorders

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2
Q
  1. List and discuss the three broad categories of human genetic disorders.

[mutations in a single gene]

Description:

Common:

Penetrance:

Example:

A
  • Mutations with single genes are called Menelian disorders. They have:
    • large effects
    • rare
    • high degree of penetrance.
  • An example would be: Sickle cell anemia is prominent in the African-American community and has malaria maintains the mutation in the population.
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3
Q
  1. List and discuss the three broad categories of human genetic disorders.

Chromosomal disorders

Description:

Common:

Penetrance:

A

Chromosomal disorders are structural or numerical alterations in autosomes and sex chromosomes. They are:

  • Uncommon
  • High penetrance
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4
Q
  1. List and discuss the three broad categories of human genetic disorders.

Complex multigenic disorders

Description:

Common:

Penetrance:

A

Complex multigenic disorders (polymorphic disorders) are caused by multiple interactions between the environment and genes. They are multi/polygenic: maning that each different gene has a small increase in disease risk but no single gene is necessary and sufficient to produce the disease. They are:

More common

Low penetrance

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5
Q

What are examples of complex multigenic disorders?

A
  • 1. Atherosclerosis
  • 2. DB
  • 3. HTN
  • 4. Autoimmune diseases
  • 5. Height and weight
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6
Q

What is a mutation?

A

permanent change in the DNA

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7
Q
  • Germ cells mutations give rise to
  • Somatic cells give rise to
A
  • Germ cells sex cells) mutations give rise to inherited dz
  • Somatic cells give rise to cancer & some congenital malformations
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8
Q

What are point mutations and what types are there?

A

Point mutations are changes in which a single base is substituted with another base IN a CODING sequence.

  • Missense: change the meaning of squence in protein.
    • Acid -> base
  • Nonsense: AA substitution results in a stop codon (chain terminator)
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9
Q

Point mutations can be divided into missense mutations or nonsense mutations.

What is an example of both?

A
  • Missense mutation: Sickle cell changes [glutamic acid -> valine] in a B-globulin chain of Hb.
  • Nonsense mutation: β0 -thalassemia is a point mutation affecting the codon for glutamine (CAG) creates a s_top codon (UAG)_ if U is substituted for C => deficiency of β-globin chains
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10
Q
  1. Discuss the effect of mutations involving noncoding sequences.
A

Mutations in non-coding sequence can alter promotor or enhancer regions .

  • May interefere with binding of transcription factors => reduction or total loss of transcription

Mutaion in non-coding sequences can also cause defects of splicing in intervening sequences.

  • Causes fa_ilure to form mRNA=_> cannot translate into protein
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11
Q

What transcription factors should we be aware of when a mutation occurs in non-coding sequences?

A

1. MYC

2. JUN

3. p53

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12
Q
  1. Describe and discuss the two effects on protein encoding associated with deletions and insertions (figure 5-2, 5-3, and 5-4).
A

Deletions and insertion can alter the reading frame of a protein.

Non-frameshit mutation: 3/multiple of 3 base pairs are deleted or inserted, the reading frame will remain intact -> abnormal protein gaining/lacking 1 or more AA will be made.

Framshift mutation: if the number of bases deleted/inserted is not a multiple of 3

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13
Q
  1. What is trinucleotide repeats (figure 5-23).
A
  • Tri-nucleotide repeats is an amplification of a sequence of 3 nucleotides, almost always containting C & G.
    • ​Tri-nucleotide repeats undergo anticipation: as the genetic order is passed onto generations, the symptoms more severe and m_ore apparent at an earlier age_ with each generation
    • Ex. Huntingtons or myotonic drystophy
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14
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an example of what kind of mutation?

A

Non-frameshift mutation: 3-base deletion in the CF allele that causes lack of AA 508 (phenylalanine)

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15
Q

Anticipation is seen in which of the following?

A. Frameshift mutation

B. Non-framshift mutations

C. Tri-nucleotide repeats

D. Mutations with noncoding sequences

A

C. Tri-nucleotide repeats

Anticipation: as a genetic disoder that is passed on to the next generation, the symptoms become more apparent at an earlier age and more severe.

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16
Q

What disorders show anticipation?

A

1. Huntingtons Disease

2. Myotonic dystrophy

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17
Q

What type of mutation is the Tay-Sachs disease, often seen in Ashkenazi Jews?

A

Frameshift mutation: insertion of 4 bases (TATC) on hexosaminidase A gene.

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18
Q

What leads to the O allele in ABO blood typing?

A

Frameshift mutation: deletion of 1 base (G of valine)

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19
Q
  1. Define “de novo” as related to genetic mutations.
A

It is estimated that every individual is a carrier of 5 to 8 deleterious genes, most that are recessive and have no serious phenotypic effects.

  • About 80% to 85% of these mutations are familial.
  • The remainder represents new mutations acquired de novo by an affected individual.
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20
Q

Mendelian disorders can be described in terms of:

1. Codominance

2. Pleitropism

3. Genetic heterogeneity

A
  1. Codominance: both alleles contribute to the phenotype
    1. Ex. AB blood type
  2. Pleiotropic: mutation of 1 gene => has many phenotypic affects
  3. Genetic heterogeneity: mutations at several loci produce the SAME phenotype.
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21
Q
  1. For the autosomal dominant disorders listed in table 5-1, discuss the following;
  • manifestation,
  • chance of inheritance,
  • new mutations
  • penetrance
  • expressivity
A
  • Manifestion: Heterozygous state (only 1 gene is affected so 1 parent most often affected). However, in every autsomal dominant disorder, there is a prop of pts whose parents do have the disorder.
  • Chance of inheritance: Age of onset is delayed in many AD conditions, meaning sx appear in adulthooD!
  • New mutations:
    • With every autosomal dominant disorder, some proportion of patients do not have affected parents. Such patients get the disorder d/t new mutations that involve either the egg or the sperm from which they were derived. Their siblings are neither affected nor at increased risk for disease development.
    • How the disease affects the reproductive fittness determines who develops the disease as a result of a new mutation
      • When a disease causes low reproductive fitness => most cases of the disease arise from new mutations that occur in germ cells of relatively older fathers
  • PResentations in Autosomal Disorders can vary d/t variations in penetrance and expressivity.
    • Penetrance:
      • ​Incomplete penetrance: Pt has the mutation, but are phenotypically normal
        • Ex. 50% penetrance meants that 50% who carry genes express the trait
    • Expressivity:
      • ​Expressivity can vary: All of those + for the trait can express it differently
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22
Q

Autosomal dominant disorders

Loss of function mutations:

Gain of function mutations:

A

Loss-of function mutations: more common in AD disorders

  • Result in: decreased production of a gene or decreased activity of a protein.
  • Ex. Familial hypercholesterolemia

Gain of function: less common

  • Cause disease by giving gene toxic properties or increasing normal activity.
  • Ex. Huntingtin protein toxic to neuron
    • SN: Huntinging trinucleotide repeat that shows anticipation and gain of function
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23
Q

As mentioned, most Autosomal Dominant mutations are loss of function.

What are the 2 main patterns we see?

A
    1. Mutations in structural proteins, like collagen and cytoskeleton elements of RBC
    1. Mutations in metabolic pathways, subject to feedback inhibition.

Age of onset is delayed in many AD conditions, meaning sx appear in adulthooD!

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24
Q

What does a pedigree for somone with an autsomal dominant mutation look like?

A
  1. If the parent is heterozygous or the trait: will pass down to 50% of children (M or F).
  2. If the mutation is spontaneous (new), parents are not affected and will affect 25% of children.

If dominant: will not skip a generation

If automal: will affect M and F equally

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25
Q

What are the 4 diseases that are autosomal dominant and affect the nervous system? (hint: there is a mnemonic)

A
    • Tuberous sclerosis
    • Myotonic dystrophy
    • Huntington disease
    • Neurofibromatosis

Touch My Hurt Nerves

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26
Q

What is the largest category of genetic disorders?

A

Autosomal recessive disorders

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27
Q

Autosomal recessive disorders

  1. Manifestation
  2. Chance of inheritance
A
  1. Manifestations: homozygous; both alleles are mutated; parents are not usually affected
  2. Chance of inheritance
    1. Siblings have a 25% chance of inheritance
    2. If the mutation does not occur commonly in the population, there is a strong liklihood of consanguineous marriage.
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28
Q

How are AR and AD disorders different from one another?

In AR:

New mutations:

Expressivity:

Penetrance

Onset:

A
  1. New mutations are rarely detected (would occur after several generations
  2. Expressivity is more uniform
  3. Complete penetrance
  4. Onset is early in life
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29
Q

Autosomal recessive disorders usually involve mutations of ______.

A

Enzymes (inborn errors of metabolism); activity of normal enzyme is decreased or the enzyme is is defected

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30
Q

Cystic fibrosis (aka)

Transmission pattern:

Mutation:

A

CF= MUCOVISCIDOSIS

Transission pattern: Autosomal recessive.

Mutation: Non-frameshift 3 base deletion (AA 508;

Phenylalanine) mutation CF allele on CFTR (cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator) gene on chromosome 7, q31.2=> causing abnormal function of Cl- channel

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31
Q

Cystic fibrosis:

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Effect: (Cl-) cannot be pumped into secretion. B/c it usually draws H20 into secretions and thins them out, this will cause thick secretions in exocrine glands and lungs, intestines and reproductive lining.

  • Newborns: thick secretions will affect their meconium (first stool) => making it thicc and stick => get stuck intestines and form meconium ileus
  • Eary childhood: thick secretions can cause pancreatic insufficiency because the thick mucus will block the pancreatic ducts, preventing pancreatic digestive enzymes from going into intestines => problem absorbing fats and proteins => can cause [failure to thrive, malnutrition and steatorrhea: fatty stools]
    • If continue, can damage the pancrease and cause acute pancreatitis/chronic => develop cysts and fibrosis in the pancreas.
  • Later in childhood: develop lung problems: it is hard to clear thicc mucus => create perffff env for bacteria (haemophilus inflenzua and pseudonomas aurginosa) => cough and fever
    • If cant clear => chronic CF => bronchiectasis and atelactasis
    • => overtime, it can cause respitaroy distress and COPD (LEADING COD IN CF)
  • Salt-loss syndrome: acute salt depletion

Main cause of death: COPD (80-90% of cases)

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32
Q

Patients with Cystic fibrosis can get __________, secondary to what?

A

Chronic lung disease, secondary to:

  • pancreatic insufficiency
  • steatorrhea
  • intestinal obstruction
  • male infertility
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33
Q

Cystic fibrosis:

Incidence:

Manifestation appear:

A

Incidence: most common lethal genetic disease that affects whites

Manifestations appear: at any point in life from b4 birth -> later in childhood and adolescence.

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34
Q

Cystic fibrosis is the best-known examples of what? Is this still true?

A

ONE GENE -> ONE DISEASE AXIOM;

However, there is evidence that genes other than CFTR alter the frequency and severity of organ-specific manifestations.

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35
Q

In children with Cystic Fibrosis, what is the biggest thing for diagnosis at birth?

A
  1. Muconium ileus prevents children from having a bowel movement. Thus, children will have abdominal distension, smelly stouls and failure to thrive/
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36
Q

Chronic CF (sinpulomonary disease) is manifested by what two bacteria and causes what?

A

1. Haemphilus infleunza

2. Pseudomas aeruginosa

Can cause bronchiestasis and atelectasis.

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37
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of CF?

A
  1. 1 or more characteristic phenotypic feature
  2. OR history of CF in sibling
  3. OR a postitive newborn screening test

AND

    • sweat cholide test: increased Cl- in sweat on 2 or more occasions, causing bby to taste salty
  1. OR ID of 2 cystic fibrosis mutations
  2. OR abnormal epithelial nasal ion transport
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38
Q

PKU (found in articifial sweetners)

Transmittion pattern:

Mutation:

A
  • Transmittion pattern: Autosomal recessive
  • Mutation: PAH (phenylalanine hydroxylase) => decreased of PAH => phenylalanine cannot convert to tyrosine & tyrosine cannot become melanin => hyperphenylalanemia
    • High phenylalanine
    • Low tyrosine and melanin
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39
Q

PKU

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Effect: High phenylalanine, low tyrosine and low melanin => toxic; severe mental retardation, hypopigmentation of skin and hair, eczema.

  • Pt will have a strong, musty odor in urine and sweat

Main cause of death: N/A

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40
Q

PKU

Incidence:

Manifestation appear:

Other:

A
  • Incidence: 1 in 10K Scandanavian caucasians (not AA or jewish)
  • Manifestations appear: Appears early.
    • Children are normal at birth
    • By 6 months, child has developed severe symptoms.
  • Other: Tx with dietary restrictions.
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41
Q

X-linked recessive diseas that affects the MSK system?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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42
Q

X-linked recessive disorders that affect the blood system (3 of them)?

A
  1. Hemophilia A and B
  2. Chronic granulomatous disease
  3. G6PDH defiency
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43
Q

What X-linked recessive disorders affect the immune system?

A

Agammaglobinemia*

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44
Q

What 2 X-linked recessive disorders affect the metabolic system?

A

1. Diabetes insipidus*

2. Lesch-Nyan syndrome *

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45
Q

What X-linked recessive disorder affects the nervous system?

A

Fragile X syndrome*

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46
Q

The most common X-linked disorders are _______.

A

Recessive.

- Fully expressed in males because they do not have another counterpart (M are XY)

- Heterozygous F, on the othre hand, have another X chromosome so they usually do not express/fully express the disorder.

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47
Q

What is the pattern of transmittance of X-linked dominant conditions?

A

Caused by dominant alleles on X-chromosome; there are FEW X-linked dominant disorders.

  • Affected heterzygous mom -> passes down to 1/2 sons and 1/2 daughters
  • Afffected dad and unaffected mom-> passes to ALL of his daughterss and none of his sons
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48
Q

What is an example of X-linked dominant disorders?

A

Vitamin D-resistant Rickets

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49
Q

How are X-linked recessive disorders expressed in M and F?

A

Males:

  • Affected males are hemizygous for the disorder.
  • Affected men -> fully express disorders if they have 1 copy because the gene will not have a Y counterpart.
  • Males are usually infertile; meaning that there is no Y-linked inheritance.

Females:

  • Heterozygous females do not usually express the disease d/t a paired normal allelle.
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50
Q

Mitochondrial Inheritance

Tranmission pattern

A

Mitochondrial DNA is only inherited from the mom. Thus, an affected mom will pass down the gene to all of their children. However, an affected dad will NOT pass on the genes.

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51
Q

What does a mT inheritance pedigree look like?

A
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52
Q

Single Gene (Mendelian )Disorders can cause disease by what 2 ways?

A

Altering a single gene can cause:

1. Decrease in a production of a normal gene

2. Forming abnormal proteins (enzymes, substrates, receptors, and structural proteins)

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53
Q

What are the 4 main categories of mendelian disorders?

A
    1. Production of defective enzymes (which have decreased actiivity) or decreased production of a normal enzyme
    1. Defects in membrane receptors and transport systems
    1. Changes in the structure, function or quantity of proteins that are NOT enzymes.
    1. Mutations that cause unusual reactions to drugs.
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54
Q

Mendelian disorders can cause defects in enzymes.

What are the 3 consequences and give an example of each.

A
  1. Accumulaton of a precursor, intermediate or alternative product that is toxic.
    1. Ex. Galactosemia: deficiency of galatacote-1 phosphate uridyltransferse
    2. Ex. Lysosomal storage disease; accumulation of substrated in lysosomes d/t a deficiency of degradative enzymes.
  2. Decreased amount of an end product
    1. Albinism occurs d/t lack of tyroninase causing a decrease in melanin.
    2. Lesch-Nyhan: decrease in end-products => increase in intermediate products; when they breakdown => TOXIC.
  3. Failure to inactivate a substance that damages tissue
    1. a_1-antitrypsin deficienc_y causes us to not be able to inactivate neutrophil elastase in lung, causing emphysema.
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55
Q

Disorders related to mutations in single genes with large effects are also called?

What is their pentrance and how common?

A

- Mendelian disorders

  • Uncommon, but highly penetrant
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56
Q

Mendelian disorders can cause defects in receptors and transport systems.

What are 2 examples of these?

A

1. Familial hypercholesterolemia: decrease in synthesis/function of LDL receptor => defectiev transport of LDL into cells => secondary increase of cholesterol => can cause arthersclerosis and cardiac problems

2. CF: Cl-ion transport in exocrine sweat glands, ducts, lungs and pancrease is defective

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57
Q

Mendelian disorders can cause changes in structure, function or quantity of non-enzyme proteins.

What are examples of these?

A
  • HAVE WIDESPREAD SECONDARY AFFECTS
    1. Sickle cell disease: defect in structure of globin molecule
    1. Thalassemias: mutation in globin gene => decrease in globin chains
    1. collagen –> osteogenesis imperfecta;
      * spectrin –> hereditary spherocytosis
      * dystrophin –> muscular dystrophies
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58
Q

Mendelian disorders can cause adverse reactions to drugs. How?

A

Silent mutations in a single gene are unmasked after we are exposed to that drug.

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59
Q

What is the most common adverse reaction to a drug?

A

G6PD deficiency: give pt antimalarial primaquine can cause severe hemolytic anemia.

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60
Q

What disorders are associated with defects in structural proteins?

A

1. Marfans syndrome

2. Ehlers Danlos syndrome

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61
Q

Marfan Syndrome

Transmission pattern:

Mutation:

A

Transmission pattern: Autosomal dominant

Mutation: fibrillin-1 on the FBN1 gene on Chr 15q21.1 or FBN2 Chr5q23.31 (less common)

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62
Q

Marfan syndrome

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Normally fibrillin sequesters TGF-B, a growth-factor that causes tissue growth, to prevent overgrowth.

Effect: Decrease in # of dysfunctional fibrillin-1 => causes clinical manfistations via 2 mechanisms

    1. Decreases structural support and elasticity in microfibrils of CT
    1. TGF is not seqetered => high TGF-B => more tissue growth => skeletal, eyes and heart problems
      * A. Skeletal: Tall; long arms and short legs; arachnodactaly (long digits), Pectus excavatum, flexibile joints
      * B. Ocular: Ectopia lentis=> bilateral dislocation of lens
      * D. CV: aortic dissection, mitral valve prolapse*, dilation of ascending aorta
      • *=most common
        * E. HIGH lung capacity; they have the lowest levels of lactate ever -> allowing efficient production of NRG

Main cause of daeth: N/A

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63
Q

Marfans syndrome

Incidence:

A

1 in 5,000; 70-85% familial passdown

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64
Q

Name that disorder:

Heterogenous group of 6 conditions that is due to a defect in the synthesis of fibrillar collagen in CT.

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

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65
Q

What are the general manifestation of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?

A

Changes in skin and joints

  1. Skin is stretchy, fragile and vulnerable to trauma. Small injuries will produce a gaping defect, making repair hard.
  2. Joints are hypermobility => makes people more vulnerable to clumsiness and joint sprains/dislocations
  3. Because there is a defect in CT, pts have internal complications:
  • Vascular EDS: rupture of colon and large arteries
  • Kyphoscooliosis EDS: eye is fragile: causes cornea ruptures and and retina detaches
  • Classic EDS: diaphragmatic hernia
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66
Q

What are the autosomal dominant types of EDS?

A

1. Classic (I/II) EDS

2. Vascular (IV/4) EDS

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67
Q

What is the autosomal recessive (AR) types of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

What is the gene defect and clinical findings in each?

A

Kyphoscoliosis (Type VI)/6 EDS is the most common AR form

  • Gene defect: lysyl hydroxylase
  • Clinical findings: hypotonia (low muscle tone/floppy), joint laxity, c_ongenital scoliosis, ocular fragility_ (causing the cornea to rupture and retina to detach)
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68
Q

Vascular (IV) EDS

Tranmission pattern:

Gene defects:

Clinical findings:

A

Tranmission pattern: autosomal dominant

Gene defects: COL3A1

Clinical findings: thin skin, arterial/uterine/colon rupture and easy bruising

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69
Q

Classic (I/II) EDS

Tranmission pattern:

Gene defects:

Clinical findings:

A

Tranmission pattern: Autosomal dominant

Gene defects: COL5A1, COL5A2

Clinical findings: atrophic scars, easy bruising

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70
Q

Familal Hypercholesterolemia

Transmission pattern:

Mutation:

A

Transmission pattrn: Autosomal Dominant

Mutation: LDL receptor

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71
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolemia

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Effect: Mutation of LDL receptor -> increase in cholesterol -> premature atherosclerosis -> increases risk of MI

Main cause of death: N/A

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72
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolemia

Incidence:

Manifestions appear:

Other

A

Incidence:

  • Heterozygotes: occur in 1/500 births;
    • 1 mutant gene, with 2-3x increase of cholesterol levels,=>
    • tendinous xanthomas, xanthelesmas, and arcus cornealis and premature atherosclerosis
  • Homozygotes: worse prognosis;
    • 2 mutant genes and 5-6x increase of blood cholesterol levels =>
    • skin xanthomas coronary, cerebral, and peripheral vascular atherosclerosis at a early age; MI before 20 yo.

Manifestions appear: N/A

Other: N/A

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73
Q

If a patient comes in before 20 yo with an MI, what should we look for problems with?

A

Cholesterol, vascularity, and skin xanthomas

=> patient could be homozygous in familial hypercholesterolemia.

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74
Q

VLDLs released by liver are rich in ______ and contain lesser amounts of _______

A

VLDLs released by liver are rich in triglycerides and contain lesser amounts of cholesterol esters

  • Undergo lipolysis via lipoprotein lipase-> release TAGs -> stored in fat cells -> used as source of NRG in skeltal muscle
  • -> IDL -> LDL
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75
Q

Patients with ______ familial hypercholesteremia present with tendinous xanthomas. How does this process occur?

A

Heterozyous familial hypercholesteremia

  • Tendinous xanthomas manifest as first, the thickening of, then depostings of cholesterol in extensor tendons.
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76
Q

Xanthelasmas and arcus cornealis are most common in ________ familal hypercholesteremia. What are these?

A

Heterozygous

  • ​Xanthelasmas: deposits of cholesterol around the eye
  • Arcus cornealis: deposits of cholesterol around the cornea
    • ​occur most commonly in ppl younger than 45.
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77
Q

Mutations in the LDL receptor in familial hypercholestermia can be classified as what?

A
  1. Synthesis in the ER (I)
  2. Transport to Golgi (II)
  3. Binding of apoprotein ligands (III)
  4. Clusting in coated pits (IV)
  5. Recycling in endosomes (V)
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78
Q

____ is the major transport form of cholesterol in the plasma

A

LDL

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79
Q

Which apoprotein is found on LDL and can be recognized by the LDL-recptor for uptake/clearance by the liver?

A

ApoB-100

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80
Q

How is plasma LDL most cleared?

A

Uptake by the liver, even though most cells have high affinity receptor for ApoB-100.

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81
Q

If LDL is chemically altered, how is it taken up?

A

Scavenger receptors on mononuclear phagocytes and other cells can uptake chemically altered LDL.

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82
Q

What disorders are associated with defects in enzymes?

A
    1. Lyosomal storage diseases (Tay Sachs, Niemann Pick Disease Type A, B and C, Gaucher disease, MSP (mucopolysaccharidoses I H and II)
    1. Glyocogen Storage Disease (hepatic type and miscellaneous type)
      *
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83
Q

Storage diseases are also called _______.

A

Thesaurismoses

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84
Q

Lyosomal storage diseases are d/t the deficiency of _________; this can cause what?

A

lysosomal enzymes; causing the accumulation of non-metabolized substrates.

  1. Primary accumulation: breakdown of the substrate of the missing enzyme is incomplete, causing to accumulate in the lysosome -> lysosomes become large and impair cell functions
  2. Secondary accumulation: lysosome makes substances needed for autophagy. SA is a buildup of substances important in autophagy in the lysosome
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85
Q

What are the 3 general approaches to treatment of lysosomal storage diseases?

A
    1. Enzyme replacement therapy*, currenltly used in many diseases
    1. Substrate reduction therapy: reduce the substrate that would be degraded by the enzyme. The remaining enymze activity may be enough to catabolis and prevent build up.
    1. Consider molecular basis of the deficiency: use molecular chaperones to help with mutated proteins fold normally
      * Ex. Tx in Gaucher diseaes
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86
Q

How can we divide lysosmal storage diseases?

A

Based on the accumulated metabolite:

1. Glycogenases

2. Sphingolipidoses (lipidoses)*

3. MPSs

4. Mucolipidoses

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87
Q

Storage diseases (thesaurismoses) are most common in _________ and cause ______. The most common are what?

A

Storage diseases are most common in children and caues hepatomegaly. The most common are

    1. Sphingolipidoses (Niemann-Pick, Tay-Sachs and Gaucher disease)
    1. Glycogen storage diseases (von Gierke disease)
88
Q

GM2 gangliosidoses are what?

What is the most common?

A

A group of 3 lysosomal storage disorders that make it hard to break out GM2 gangliosides.

Tay-sachs is the most common.

89
Q

Tay Sachs Disease

Transmission pattrn:

Mutation:

A

Transmission pattern: Autosomal Recessive

Mutation: alpha-subunit of hexosaminidase on chromosome 15

90
Q

Tay Sachs Disease

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Effect: Mutation of a_lpha-subunit of hexosaminidase on chr 15_ =>

  • Deficiency of hexosaminidase =>
  • Accumulation of GM2 gangliosides in neurons*, retina, <3, liver and spleen => cause motor and mental deficits
    • *neurons have the most gangliosides, so they are the cell most affected
    • Obtunded, flaccid, blind and dementia
    • Cherry red spot in macula
    • Lipid filled cytoplasmic vacules

Main cause of death: death by 2-3 yo

91
Q

Tay Sachs Disease

Incidence:

Manifestions appear:

Other

A

Incidence: Most common in Ashkenazic Jews (1 in 30 have it)

Manifestions appear:

  • Pts are normal at birth
  • 6 months: motor and mental deterioration appear
  • 1-2 yo: in a vegetative state
  • 2-3 yo: death

Other:

92
Q

What is a cherry-red spot in the macula and what disorders does it occur in?

A
  • Accumulation of lipids in retinal ganglion cells, causing them to become pale in color and swollen. This makes the red-color of the macula seem brighter.
  • Occurs in: Tay-Sachs and Niemann Pick A.
93
Q

Niemann Pick Dz

Transmission pattrn:

Mutation:

A

Transmission pattrn: Autosomal recessive

Mutation: Chr 11p15.4 of moms chromosomes d/t epigenetic silencing of dads gene.

94
Q

Niemann Pick Disease

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Effect: mutation of Chr 11p15.4 => inherited deficiency of sphingomyelinase => accumulation of sphingomyelin in lysosome.

  • Cholesterol and sphingomyelin build up in cells, causing them to enlarge and have foamy cytoplasm*
    • => splenomegaly, build up also occurs in spleen, liver, LN, BM, GI tract, lungs
  • Zebra bodies form: lysosomes with concentric lamellations
  • 1/3-1/2 will have cherry red spot*

Main cause of death: Those with Type A will have extensive neuro deficits and die b4 3 years old.

95
Q

Niemann-Pick Disease

Incidence:

Manifestions appear:

Other

A

Incidence: Most common in Ashkenazi Jews

Manifestions appear:

Other: there are 3 types (A, B, C)

96
Q

Which NPD is the most common and which is the most severe and mild?

A
  • Most common: C is the most common -> A -> B
  • Most severe: Type A
  • Most mild (best): Type B
97
Q

Niemann Pick Dz Type A

Type of mutation:

Characterstitics

A

Type of mutation: missense mutation, causing the compelte lack of sphingomyelinase

Characteristics: Type A is a severe infantile form of NPD characterized by sx that appear at 6months old

  • e_xtensive neuro deficits_
  • visceral accumulations of sphingomyelin
  • Progressive muscle wasting

Patient will die before 3 years old

98
Q

Niemann Pick Dz Type B

Type of mutation:

Characterstitics

A

Type of mutation: N/A

Characterstitics: organomegaly but no CNS involvement. Patients survive until childgood.

  • Most mild
99
Q

Niemann Pick Dz Type C (NPC)

Type of mutation:

Characterstitics

A
  • Type of mutation: mutation in NPC1 => which codes for proteins that transport cholesterol from lysosome -> cytoplasm
    • Most common
  • Characterist: progressive neurological damage that include ataxia, vertical supranuclear gaze palsy, dystonia, dysarthria and psychomotor regression.
100
Q

Niemann Pick disease is characterized by a foamy cytoplasm. What is this due to?

A

Hepatocytes and kupfer cells will have a high deposition of lipids => foamy vacuolated appearance.

101
Q

At the end stage of Niemann-Pick disease, neurological damage in can be seen in histo by identifying what?

A

Blue stains in the cerebellum that show lipid accumulation

102
Q

What disease is charcterized by a fibrillary type of cytoplasm likened to crumpled tissue paper?

A

Gaucher

103
Q

Gaucher Disease

Transmission pattrn:

Mutation:

A

Transmission pattrn: Autosomal recessive (AR); most common lysosomal storage disorder

Mutation: mutation of glucocerebrosidase

104
Q

Gaucher Disease

Effect:

Main cause of death:

A

Effect: mutation of glucocerebrosidase =>

  • accumulation of glucocerebroside phagocyte’s lysosomes => creates lipid-laden macrophages (Gaucher cells) that enlarge and accumulate in the [liver, spleen, and BM], causing them to look like crumpled tissue paper. The phagocytes then release IL-1, IL-6, TNF
    • Pancytopenia (decrease in all BCs: RCs, WCs and platelets) and hepatosplenomegaly (>10kg) cause easy bruising and anemia
    • Patient develops osteoporosis

Main cause of death: Death is most common in Type II (acute neuronopathic) Gaucher disease.

105
Q

What is the most common form of Gaucher disease?

Affects primarily?

Found prinicipally in what population?

Affect on longevity?

A
    • Type I (chronic nonneuronopathic form) of Gaucher disease
    • NO involving the CNS; thus, life expentancy decreases a LITTLE
    • Splenic and bone involvements dominate this pattern
    • Found principally in European jews
    • Slight decrease in life-span
106
Q

Type II form of Gaucher disease has what type of affect and pattern?

Glucocerebrosidase activity?

Clinical picture dominated by?

Affect on longevity?

A
  • Type 2 (acute neuronopathic form) is the acute infantile cerebral pattern in NON-JEWISH PEOPLE
  • THere is virtually no glucocerebrosidase activity in the tissues
  • Hepatosplenomegaly seen, but clinical picture dominated by progressive CNS involvement, leading to death at an early age
107
Q

Describe type 3 Gaucher Disease

A

Type 3 GD (intermediate): systemic involvement with progressive CNS disease that begins in early adolescene or early adulthood.

108
Q

What is the morphology of Gaucher disease?

Dominant cell type visualized?

What is visualized with electron microscope?

What type of stain is positive?

A
  • Accumulation of distended phagocytotic cells (Gaucher cells) found in spleen, liver, bone marrow, LN’s, tonsils, thymus, and Peyers patches
  • Accumulation of glucocerebroside causes the cytoplasm to look like fibrillary, crumpled tissue paper.
  • Rarely appear vacuolated
  • Eccentric nucleus
  • Periodid acid-Schiff (PAS) staining is intensely positive
109
Q

Accumulation of Gaucher cells in the bone marrow in type I disease leads to?

A

Gaucher cells in BM => secretion of IL-1, IL-6 and TNF by macrophages => bone erosion, which can give rise to pathologic fractures

110
Q

The signs and symptoms of type I Gaucher disease first appear when and what’s involved?

Most commonly there is?

Longevity of these patients?

A
  • In adult life and are related to splenomegaly (>10kg) or bone involvement
  • Most commonly there is panocytopenia or thrombocytopenia secondary to hypersplenism
  • Progressive in the adult, but IS compatible with long life
111
Q

In types II and III Gaucher disease what are the most common dysfunctions and organs involved?

A
  • CNS dysfunction, convulsions, and progressive mental deterioration dominate
  • Liver, spleen and LN’s are also affected
112
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for Gaucher disease?

A
  1. Allogenic hematopoetic stem cell transplant
  2. Recombinant enzyme replacement
113
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS)

Transmission pattrn:

Mutation:

A

MPS is a group of disorders: Hunter and Hurley

  • -Transmission pattern: All MPS disorders are AR except Hunter syndrome, which is X-linked recessive.
  • Mutation: Mutations are different for each type, but they affect enzymes that degrade mucopolysaccharides (glycosaminoglycans)
114
Q

MPS have mutations in enzymes that degrade glycoaminoglycans (GAGs/mucopolysaccharides)

Thus; what are the glycosaminoglycans that accumulate in MPSs?

A
  1. Dermatan sulfate,
  2. Heparan sulfate,
  3. Keratan sulfate
  4. Chondroitin sulfate
115
Q
  • All the MPSs are classified numerically MPS I to MPS VII (7) and are inherited in a _______ fashion

What is the exception?

A
  • AR fashion
  • Exception, MPS II (Hunter syndrome), is X-linked recessive trait
  • HUNTER DZ: “X-marks the spot” like a hunter”
    • X-linked recessive
    • No cloudy cornea because how can they shoot with one
116
Q

In general, MPSs are progrssive disorders characterized by?

A
  • Coarse facial features,
  • clouding of the cornea,
  • joint stiffness,
  • mental retardation
117
Q

MPS-I-H is also called?

A

Hurler syndrome

118
Q

Hurler syndrome (MPS I-H)

Defiency of what enzyme?

Appears when, cause of death and what are its affects?

What is the cause of death?

A

-α-_L-_iduronidase deficiency ->accumations of mainly dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate

  • Hurler syndrome is one of the most severe forms
  • Children at normal at birth
  • 6 months-2 years: develop hepatosplenomegaly
  • 6-10 years: death d/t cardiovascular problems

-Clouding of the cornea, growth is retarded, coarse facial features and skeletal deformities

119
Q

Hunter syndrome (MPS II)

Defiency of what enzyme?

Genetics:

How is different than MPS-I-H?

A

X- MARKS THE SPOT: X-linked recessive; no clouding of the cornea bc how can they hunt

  • l-lduronosulfate sulfatase deficiency-> accumations of mainly dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate
  • -X-linked recessive
  • -NO corneal clouding and a milder clinical course
120
Q

How can we diagnose disorders of mucopolysaccharidoses: MPSs have what feature that is different from all other storage disorders?

A

Metabolite present in urinalysis

121
Q

What is the morpholgy of MPS?

A

Mucopolysaccharides will build up in: mononuclear phagocytotic cells, endothelial cells, smooth muscles in intestines and fibroblasts in the [liver, spleen, BM, BV and <3] =>

  • Affected cells are called balloon cells: swollen with clear cytoplasm, swollen lysosomes with PAS positive material (periodic acid schiff stain).
  • Also have lamellated zebra bodies.
122
Q

What disorders have lamellated zebra bodies?

A

1. Niemann Pick Dz

2. Mucopolysaccharides (MSPs)

123
Q

Glucose molecules in glycogen are linked together via what kind of bonds?

A

α-1,4-glucoside bonds

124
Q

Glycogen storage diseases are called what?

A

Glycogenoses

125
Q

What are glycogen storage diseases (glycogenoses)?

A
  • Hereditary deficiency in one of the enzymes involved in synthesis or degradation of glycogen
    • => storage of normal/abnormal glycogen mainly in liver or muscle.
126
Q

What are the 3 subgroups of glycogenoses?

A
  • 1. Hepatic type: von Gierke disease (type I)
  • 2. Myopathic type: McArdle disease (type 5)
  • 3. Miscellaneous type: Pompe disease (type 2)
127
Q

What are the 2 glycogen storing diseases discussed?

A
  1. Hepatorenal von Gierke disease (type 1)
  2. Generalized glycogenesis - Pompe Disease (type 2)
128
Q

Von Gierke disease (type I glycogenosis) is deficiency in?

  • Characterized by?
  • Longevity?
A

Deficiency: Glucose-6-phosphatase (G6Pase)

  • Increase glycogen in liver and decrease in blood glucose (hypoglycemia)

Characterized by:

  • Hepatomegaly and renomegaly d/t accumulation of glycogen
  • Impaired gluconeogenesis
    • => hypoglycemia in blood, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia

Longetivity: Most survive and develop late complications (i.e., hepatic adenomas)

129
Q

In Von Gierke disease where does the glycogen accumulate in the liver and kidney?

A
  • Intracytoplasmic and intranuclear accumulations in liver
  • Intracytoplasmic accumulation in cortical tubular epithelial cells of kidney
130
Q

McArdle disease (type V) is deficiency in?

Characterized by?

A

Deficiency in: muscle phosphorylase (V, VI)

Characterized by: Accumulation of glycogen in skeletal muscle ->

  • muscle weakness, cramps and no increase in lactate levels after XRCise
  • muscle cramps after excercise
  • blood lactate levels do not increase after excercise
131
Q

Pompe disease (type II glycogenosis) is a deficiency in?

  • Clinical features of this disease
  • what is the most prominent clinical feature?
A

Deficiency in: Lysosomal α-glucosidase (acid maltase)

  • Lysosomal storage of glycogen in all organs (i.e., mild hepatomegaly and skeletal muscle) but mostly in _myocardial cell_s, => massive cardiomegaly
    • ​muscle hypotonia and cardioresporatory failure also occur within the first 2 years of life
    • *
132
Q

Miscellaneous forms of glycogenoses involve deficiencies of what?

Glycogen accumulates: _________.

Life expentence: __________

A

Deficiency of:

    1. Deficiency in glucosidase (acid maltase)
    1. Lack of branching enzyme

Glycogen accumulates:

  • many organs

Life expenctancy:

  • death in early life
133
Q

What are 2 important characteristics of complex multigenic disorders, which are VERY common.

A
  1. Multifactorial inheritance: caused by the interaction of the environment and 2 or more genes
  2. **There are a range of levels of severi_ty**, however, different levels of severity can also be d/t v_ariable expressivity and reduced penetrance of 1 mutation.

This is why complex multigenic disorders and mendelian are often confused.

134
Q

What conditions are caused by multifactorial inheritance?

A

1. Cleft lip

2. Cleft palate

3. Neural tube defects

135
Q

Why is it difficult to distinguish between Mendelian diseases and multifactorial diseases?

A

Mulitfactorial diseases have a range of levels of severity, but differeny levels of severity can also be d/t variable expressivity and reduced penetrance of 1 mutation.

136
Q

The fact that the incidence of neural tube defects are DRAMATICALLY reduced by taking folic acid does what?

A

undermines the importance of environmental contributions to multifactorial inheritance.

137
Q

Euploid vs. aneuploidy?

A

Euploid = exact multiple of the haploid number of chromosomes (23)

Aneuploidy _= error in mitosis or meiosis w_here cell has an abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of 23

138
Q

Common causes of aneuploidy include what?

A
  • Nondisjunction: can occur in gametogenesis, gamates have an increase or decrease in # chromosomes
  • Anaphase lag: during meiosis or mitosis, one chromatid lags behind and is left out of the nucleus -> one normal cell and one monosomy cell.
139
Q

What is mosaicism and what cells are most commonly affected?

A

Errors in mitosis that give rise to 2 or more populations of cells, most commonly in sex chromosomes, with different genotypes, in one person.

140
Q

What is a ring chromosome?

A

Both ends of the chromosome break, then the damaged ends fuse. If too much genetic material is lost => phenotypic abnormalities.

Ex. 46, XY,r(14)

141
Q

What is an isochromosome?

A

Isochromosomes occur when 1 arm of a chromosome is lost and the remaining arm is copied, resulting in a chromosome with only 2 short arms or only 2 long arms. The genetic material in both arms is identical.

i(17q).

142
Q

What is translocation?

A

When a segment of one chromosome is transferred to another.

143
Q

What is a balanced recipricol translocation?

A

2 chromosomes each have a single break and then exchange material. Thus, no genetic material is lost and phenotype is normal.

144
Q

What is a robertsonian translocation (centric fusion)

A

Robertsonian translocations (ROBs) are recipricol translocation between the two accentric chromosomes that involve the short arm of one and th_e long arm of another._

Makes: one abnormally large chromosome and a_n extremely small chromsome._ The e_xtremely small one is usually lost._ bc it as reduntant genes so loss of this => NL phenotype

It does not usually cause health difficulties, but can in some cases result in genetic disorderssuch as Down syndrome and Patau syndrome.[1] Robertsonian translocations result in a reduction in the number of chromosomes.

145
Q

How common are robertsonian translocations?

A

occur in 1/1000 normal people

146
Q

What is an example of a Robertsonian translocation?

A

3-4% of trisomy 21 cases are robertsonian translocations:

  • q arm of chromsome 21 is translocated to other Chr 22 or 14 => fetus has 46 chromosomes but 3 copies of long arm of chromsome 21, which has all the functional genes of the chromosome.
147
Q

How can we indicate in letters trisomy 21?

A

46, XY, der (15:21)(q10;q10), +21

148
Q

What is the most common chromosomal disorder?

It is a major cause of what?

A
  • Down syndrome (Trisomy 21): 1/700
  • Mental retardation
149
Q

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

What are the genetics (mutations) we see in Trisomy 21?

A
  1. 95% of people have a complete extra chromosome 21, causing them to have 47 chromsomes.
    1. In 95% of these, the extra chromosome is maternal in origin. Thus, maternal age is a STRONG incidence in Down-syndrome (older=more likely)
  2. 4% of cases receive extra chromosome from Robertsonian translocation of the long arm of Chr 21 -> Chr 22 or Chr 15 that is paternally derived . Thus, maternal age is of no impact.
  3. 1% are mosciacs: have a mixture of cells with either 46 or 47 chromosomes. Sx in these people are more variable and milder
150
Q

What clinical features do we see in people with Trisomy 21?

A
    1. Facial features: Flat face, oblique palpebral fissues, epicanthal folds
      * simeon crease on hand (big crease that run horizontal across the palm
    1. Severe mental retardation (80% have an IQ between 25-50)
    1. 40% have congenital <3 disease, particular endocardial cushyions
      * ​more likely to get a VSD (ventricular septal defect)
      * COD
  • 4.By 20: 10-20x increased risk of developing acute leukemia
    1. By 40:almost all Down patients older than 40 have changes assx with premature Alzheimers (neuropathogenic stages of DS)
    1. Faulty immune system: predisposes them to infections (mainly lungs) and thyroid autoimmunity.
151
Q

What is responsible for the majority of death in [infancy and early childhood] in Down Syndrome patients?

A

Congenital <3 Disease,

in particular: endocardial cushions (VSD)

152
Q

Trisomy 21: Down syndrome

Incidence:

Trisomy 21 type: _____

Translocation type: _____

Moscaic type: _____

A

Incidence: 1/700

Trisomy 21 type: 47 XX, +21

Translocation type: 46 XX, der (14;21)(q10;q10), + 21

Moscaic type: 46,XX/47,XX, +21

153
Q

What are 2 other trisomys besides trisomy 21?

A
  • 1. Trisomy 18: Edwards syndrome
  • 2. Trisome 13: Patau syndrome
154
Q

What are the distinctive clinical features of Trisomy 18: Edwards syndrome?

A
  1. Prominent occiput
  2. Horseshoe kidney
  3. Low set ears and short neck
  4. Micrognathia (small jaw)
  5. Overlapping fingers
  6. Limited hip abduction
  7. Child will die at 4 months
155
Q

What are the distinctive clinical features of Trisomy 13: Pateau syndrome?

A
  • 1. Microcephaly (small head)
  • 2. Micropthalmia (small or missing eyeballs)
  • 3. Cleft lip and cleft palate
  • 4. Polydactyl
    1. Umbilical hernia
156
Q

In all Trisomy conditions (21, 13 and 18), what symptoms are common?

A

1. Renal malformations

2. Rocker-bottom feet

3. <3 defects

4. Mental retardation

157
Q

What is Chr 22q11.2 Deletion syndrome

A
  • Range from DiGeorge Syndrome => velocardial facial syndrome
  • Ch.22q11.2 deletion syndrome is a a fairly common mutation (1/4000) that occurs due to a deletion of band q11.2 on the long arm of chromosome 22.
158
Q

symptoms of Chr22q11.2 deletion syndrome are often what?

A
  • 1. Congenital heart defects (affects 2nd, 3rd and 4th brachial arches)
  • 2. Facial abnormalities
  • 3. Developmental delay
  • 4. Various degrees of T-cell immunodeficiency: funny thymus
  • 5.Hypocalcemia (d/t parathyroid hypoplasia)
159
Q

What are the clinical features of DiGeorge’s syndrome?

A
    • Thymic hypoplasia w/ resultant T-cell immunodeficiency
    • Parathyroid hypoplasia giving rise tohypocalcemia
    • Low-set ears, wide-set eyes, small jaw
160
Q

What are clinical manifestations of velocardialfacial syndrome?

A
  1. Facial: Long face, prominent nose, retrognathia and cleft palate
  2. Cardiac: CV anomalies
  3. Developmental delays
161
Q

What 2 genes are implicated in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

A
  • TBX1\
  • PAX9
162
Q

Which are more common: genetic diseases involving autosomes or sex chromosomes?

A

SEX SEX SEX

163
Q

Which are better tolerated?

Imbalances (excess or loss) of sex chromosomes or imbalance of autosomes?

A

Imbalances of sex chromosomes: thus, they are more common but better tolerated.

164
Q

Why are abnormalities of sex chromosomes more common but better tolerated?

A
  1. Only 1 X chromosome is active (others undergoes lyonization)
  2. Y chromosome carries a MODEST amount of genetic material.
165
Q

What is the Lyon hypothesis?

A
  • Normally, there iac activation of only 1 X chromosome and random inactivation of 1 X chromosome (either moms or dads), forming a Barr body.
  • Random inactivation of paternal or maternal X chrom occurs on/about day 5.5 of embryonic life.
  • The inactivation of the SAME X chromosome persists in all cells that are derived from precursor.
166
Q

Is there mocaicism in normal females: thus, does the lyon hypothesis hold true?

A

No.

Normal females are a moscaic of two population:

one population of cells can have inactivated maternal X chromosome and the other can have an inactivated paternal X chromsome.

167
Q

Barr bodies are inactive X chromosomes that can be seen in ____________phase nucleus as what?

A

INTERPHASE NUCLEUS

as a dark staining small mass that contacts the nuclear membrame

168
Q

Describe the genes on Barr bodies

A

It was originally thought that ALL genes are inactive, however, more recent studies show that many escape X inactivation.

169
Q

What determines the male sex

A

Presence of a SINGLE Y chromsome

170
Q

In general, sex chromosomes disorders cause problems relating to _______________ and are first recognized at ___________.

A
  • Sexual development and fertility
  • Puberty
171
Q

In males and females, the greater the number of __________ = the greater the liklihood of ____________.

A

more X chromsomes = more liklihood of mental retardation

172
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

What is the most common?

A
  • Male hypogonadism that occurs when a person has 2 or more X chromosomes and at least 1 Y chromosome.
  • Most common: 47XXY is seen 90% of the time
173
Q

What is the only consistent finding in Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)?

A

Hypogonadism

174
Q

Most patients with Kleinfelter syndrome have a distinctive body habitus characterized by?

A
  1. - Euchnoid (talll and thin)
  2. - Abnormally long legs
    • Small testes and penis (hyopgonadism)
  3. - Feminine physique: gynecomastasia (breast tissue), n_o chest hair, fem pubic hai_r
  4. _- Lack masculine secondary sexual characteristi_cs
175
Q

You, as a doctor, should be cautious that patients with Klinefelters syndrome have INCREASED RISK FOR WHAT?

A
  • 1. Type 2 DM
  • 2. 50% increased risk for mitral valve prolapse
  • 3. Osteoporosis and fractures because of hormone imbalance
  • 4. Male infertility
  • 5. 20% risk of breast cancer
    *
176
Q

What is the incidence of ppl with Klinefelters syndrome?

when it is diagnosed?

A

1/660 live male births but is usually not diagnosed until after puberty.

It is the most common cause of hypogonadism in males

177
Q

What is the most common cause of MALE hypogonadism>

A

Klinefelters

178
Q

What is the most common sex chromosome abnormalitiy in females?

A

Turner syndrome

179
Q

What is Turners Syndrome?

A

Turner syndrome is hypogonadism in phenotypic females that is due to complete or partial monosomy of X chromosome.

180
Q

What are the 3 types of karyotypic abnormalities in Turner syndrome?

A
  1. 57% of phenotypic females are completely missing one X (45 X).
  2. Partial monosomy of X chromsome
  3. Mosaic (45X/46XX): one population with 45 X0 and another with normal or abnormal cell type
181
Q

What mosaics can we see in Turner syndrome?

A

1. 45X/ 46XX

2. 45X/ 46XY

3. 45X/47XXX

182
Q

What clinical manifestions do we see in people with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. Short
  2. Infants will have cytic hygroma: lymphedema in the neck, hands and feet => causes webbing of neck
  3. Congenital <3 disaese affects 25-50%:
    1. ESPPPPP coarctication of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve.
    2. *Most common COD
  4. Lack of secondary sex characteristics
  5. Primary amenorrhea
  6. Fibrotic ovaries (Streak ovaries)​ => infertility.
183
Q

Most common cause of death in children with Turner Syndrome

A

Cardiovascular abnormalities

184
Q

1/3 of causes of primary amenorrhea is due to what?

A

Turner syndrome

185
Q

“Menopause BEFORE menarche” is a common phrase for _________.

A

Turner syndrome

186
Q

People with Turners syndrome also have what conditions?

A
  1. Hypothyroidism: 1/2 pts will have
  2. Glucose intoleranc_e, obesity, I_nsulin intolerance in a minority of paitents
187
Q

People with Turners syndrome often have lymphedema and webbing of the neck. How does this occur

A

They are born with a cystic hygroma (edema and swelling of the nape of the neck),

As the infant gets older, the swellling goes down but leaves bilateral neck webbing and looseness of skin on the back of the beck.

188
Q

What are the 4 categories of single-gene disorders with Non-classic inheritance?

A

Diseases caused by:

1. Trinucleotides-repeat mutation

2. Mutations in mT genes

3. associated wit_h genomic imprinting_

4. associated with gonadal mosaicism

189
Q

What is the morphologic hallmark of tri-nucleotide repeat mutations?

A

Accumulation of mutated proteins in NUCLEUS

190
Q

What are the top 2 most common genetic causes of mental retardation. In order.

A

1. Down syndrome

2. Fragile X syndrome

191
Q

Trinucleotide repeat mutations is an important cause of ___________ disorders

A

NEURODEGENERATIVE

192
Q

What disorders are caused by trinucleotides repeats?

A

1. Fragile X syndrome

2. Huntingtons disease

193
Q

3 principles of trinucleotide-repeat mutations:

A
  1. Repeats of trinucleotides that often have G and C

2. Tendency to expand depends on the SEX of the parent that transmits it

  1. These repeats can cause:
  • loss of funtion (fragile X)
  • toxic gain of function (huntingtons)
  • t_oxic gain of function mediated by mRNA_ (fragile X tremor ataxia syndrome)
194
Q

What gene, locus, protein and repeat is affected in fragile X?

A

Gene: FMRI (FRAXA),

Locus: Xq27.3

Protein: FMR-1 protein

Repeat: CGG

195
Q

Fragile-X syndrome is a result of what?

What type of mutation?

A
  1. 200- 4000 CGG tricnucleotide repeats on the non-coding part of FMR-1 gene (familial mental retardation-1)
  2. Occurs on the X chromosome so: X-linked recessive
  3. Loss-of-function mutation
    1. ​FMR-1 gene stops functioning and is not transcribed
196
Q

What is the site of expansion for Huntingtons disease?

A

CAG triplet repeats in the exon => misfolded expansions of polyglutamine, causing a toxic gain of function.

197
Q

What is the characteristic phenotype of someone with Fragile X syndrome?

A
    • Long face w/ large mandible
    • Large everted ears
    • Large testicles (macro-orchidism) = most distinctive feature (90% of males)
198
Q

How is Fragile X Syndrome transmitted?

A
  1. Carrier males are called normal-transmitting males.
    1. They transmit the repeats to their phenotypically normal daughters with SMALL changes in repeats
    2. Thus, the premutation is passed on by the carrier female => grandchildren
      1. During oogenesis, premutations (silent) undergo triplet-repeat amplification => converted to mutations
        1. Thus, clincial presentation worsen with each generation (anticipation)
    3. Carrier females then affect almost all sons and 50% of daughters
      1. 30-50% of carrier females are affected and have mental retardation, which is higher than any other X-linked recessive disorder.
199
Q

Describ the risk of phenotypic effects of Fragile X syndrome

A
  • The risk depends on the position of the individual in the pedigree. It gets more severe in later generations (anticipation)
    • Brothers of transmitting males have a 9% risk of MR; grandsons of transmitting males have a 40% risk.
200
Q

IN FRAGILE X SYNDROME,

THE MUTATIONS BECOME _________ WITH EACH SUCCESSIVE GENERATION AS IT IS TRANSMITTED FROM MAN-> GRANDSOMES AND GREAT-GRANDSONS.

A

INCREASING DELETORIOUS.

THIS IS CALLED ANTICIPATION

201
Q

DESCRIBE PEDIGREE OF FRAGILE X

A

IN FIRST GENERATION, ALL SONS ARE NORMAL AND ALL FEMALES ARE CARRIERS.

During oogenesis in the carrier female, premutation expands to

full mutation; hence, in the next generation all males who inherit the X with full

mutation are affected. However, only 50% of females who inherit the full mutation are

affected, and only mildly.

202
Q

What gene, locus, protein and repeat is affected in Huntingtons?

A
  1. Gene: HTT
  2. Locus: Chr 4p16.3
  3. Protein: Huntingtin => toxic to neurons (bc toxic GOF)
  4. Repeat: CAG triplet in the exon
    1. => misfolded expansions of polyglutamine => toxic gain of function
    2. => Huntingtons
203
Q

What is Huntigtons Disease?

A

**Autosomal dominant d_isease** characterized by progressive movement disorders, dementia, and d_egeneration of striatal neurons d/t loss of [head of caudate nucleus => flattening of lateral ventricle => GP]

Calorie intake is 3x more

204
Q

Gain of function mutations are almost always what type of inheritance pattern?

Which disease illustrates this type of mutation?

A

- Autosomal dominant

  • Huntington’s disease gives rise to abnormal protein, huntingtin, that is toxic to neurons, and hence even heterozygotes develop neurologic deficit
205
Q

What parts of the brain are affected in Huntingtons?

A
  1. head of caudate nucleus=> flatten lateral venticle
  2. Body of corpus callosum
  3. GP
206
Q

Describe the transmission of Huntingons.

A

Repeat expansion occur during SPERMATOGENESIS, s_o paternal transmission is associated with early onset in the next generation (anticipation)_

207
Q

How are mT disorders passed down from mom?

A

Bc ova have a shit ton of mT in cytoplasm, spermatozoa do not.

208
Q

Describe the expression of mT disorders as they are passed down.

A

Expression is variable. When a cell that has normal and mutant DNA divides, the proportion of normal and mutated mtDNA in daughter cells is random and variable (heteroplasmy). In order for the disease to occur, there must be a minimum number of mutant mtDNA, called the threshold affect.

209
Q

What is an example of mT disorders?

A

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

210
Q

What is Leber hereditary optic neuropathy?

A

mTDNA neurodegenerative dissease that causes progressive bilateral loss of central vision first noted between 15- 35 => evenentually leading to blindness.

also has: cardiac conduction defects and minor neurological problems.

211
Q

Pedrigree for mT dNA

A
212
Q

What is genomic imprinting?

A

Imprinting INACTIVATES either a maternal allele or a paternal allele .

Maternal imprinting: transcriptional silencing of maternal allele.

Paternal imprinting: inactivation of paternal allele

213
Q

What 3 ways can genomic imprinting occur?

A
  1. Deletions

3. Uniparental disomy

3. Defecting imprinting

214
Q

What is uniparental disomy?

A

Inheritance of both chromosomes of a pair from 1 parent. This is seen in normal patients with prader-Willi syndrome, who have 2 maternal copies of chromosome 15. This is the 2nd most common reason for PW.

215
Q

What is Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

deletion of paternal q12 of chromosome 15q11.2q13, leaving behind only the silenced mothers gene =>

mental retardation, short obese, small hands and feet, hypogonadism, hyperphagia, hypotonia.

216
Q

What is Angelman syndrome?

A

deletion of maternal q12 of chromosome 15q11.2q13, leaving behind only the silenced paternal gene =>

“happy puppets”: mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures, inappropriate laughter.

Laughter and ataxia make them happy puppets

217
Q
A