Chapter 5 Firefighter Safety Flashcards

1
Q

The guiding objective of this text is preparing the fire officer to take command at structure fires by fully using available resources in a ______________.

A

safe and effective way

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2
Q

Probably the most important safety factor at the scene of a structure fires is a ____________________ based on a solid ______________ utilizing ___________. +++

A
  1. well-organized operation
  2. solid risk-verses-benefits analysis
  3. effective tactics
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3
Q

Poor ventilation combined with a _________________ is a deadly combination.

A

lack of protective hose lines

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4
Q

Duties of the Incident Safety Officer include:

A
  1. Report to command and confirm incident safet officer assignment
  2. Determine the strategy and tactics being employed at the incident scene
  3. Evaluate the operation by systematically visiting every area where FFs are deployed (start with area of greatest hazard)
  4. Share safety concerns with the officer responsible for that specifc area.
  5. After completing a tour, report back to the IC.
  6. Continue touring the fire ground throughout the fire suggesting changes as required
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5
Q

At the scene of a major and widespread fire, who is often the only person with a complete view of the fire scene?

A

The incident safety officer

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6
Q

Several organizations publish fire investigation reports that analyze fires that resulted in FF fatalities (NFPA, NIOSH, USFA, and others). These reports provide information, which, if properly used and analyzed can prevent future on-duty deaths and reduce injury __________________.

A

Frequency and severity.

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7
Q

Once a fire occurs in a nonresidential occupancy, the risk to FFs is ________________.

A

much greater.

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8
Q

The death rate in fires at manufacturing occupancies is:

A

22.5 per 100,000

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9
Q

The death rate in fires at residential occupancies is:

A

2.6 per 100,000

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10
Q

Low air alarms sound at:

A

33% of the air remaining.

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11
Q

A notice of _______________ is probably sufficient in a typical dwelling, but may not provide sufficient escape time when a FF is disoriented or working in larger buildings.

A

10 minutes

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12
Q

Probably the most imporant element of the incident safety program is applying ________________ to fire ground operations.

A

risk management

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13
Q

The single most important ability the fire officer must acquire is being skilled at ___________________. +++

A

recognizing the point at which the risk to FFs lives outweighs the possible benefits of saving lives and property.

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14
Q

The first-arriving officer must consider the possibility of poeple being in the building not as a yes-or-no propositiong, but rather as a ___________.

A

degree of probability

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15
Q

In the past, the time from ignition to flashover was given at 10 minutes. The actual time can vary significantly depending on a number of variables:

A
  1. Compartment size
  2. Available air supply (ventilation)
  3. Ignition sources
  4. Fuel type
  5. Geometry of the enclosure
  6. Distance between fuel packages
  7. Location of the fuel
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16
Q

In UL experiments, the time to flashover in a living room furnished with modern furniture occurred in __________, compared to ____________ for the same room furnished with legacy furniture.

A

3.5 minutes / 29.5 minutes

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17
Q

Loads imposed on a building are divided into _______________ loads.

A
  1. Live
  2. Dead
  3. Seismic
  4. Wind
  5. Snow
  6. Ice
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18
Q

The 20-minute rule states that when a heavy volume of fire is burning out of control on two or more floors for 20 minutes or longer, _________________ should be anticipates (this is based on Type III construction).

A

structural collapse

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19
Q

NFPA 1500 requires dispatch to notify command every _____ minutes until the fires is knocked down, the incident becomes static, or the IC cancels the notifications.

A

10

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20
Q

The fire officer should ask four important questions before assigning FFs to roof operations:

A
  1. Are roof ops necessary?
  2. What do I hope to gain (benefit) by opening the roof?
  3. How long has the fire been impinging on the roof components?
  4. What is the safest method of operating on this roof?
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21
Q

What are four issues with solar panels?

A
  1. Add to the roof load
  2. Create a potential ignition source
  3. Make roof ventilation more difficult
  4. Present an electrical shock hazard that is difficult to de-energize.
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22
Q

What is the most effective method of fighting a basement fire?

A

From the exterior of the building

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23
Q

Various tactics have been used to fight basement fires. Probably the most often used, and the most difficult and dangerous, is _______________________.

A

advancing a hose line down the interior stairway from the first floor to the basement.

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24
Q

Firefighters are at significant risk of injury or death when fighting fires in basements or floors below grade level. The increased risk is due to:

A
  1. Limited entry and egress
  2. Working above the fire
  3. Weakened floor structures in the fire’s flow path
  4. Unknown fire load
  5. Ventilation issues
  6. Utility panels
  7. Hanging wires
  8. Utility meters
  9. Appliances
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25
Q

Basement fires are often confined to:

A

Clothes dryers or HVAC equipment

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26
Q

Standard on-scene measures used by FFs to test a floor for structural stability (sounding the floor, thermal imaging, and floor sag) provide some indication of an impending collapse but are ____________________.

A

very late indicators that are not entirely reliable.

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27
Q

What is a major concern when combating a basement fire?

A

Floor collapse

28
Q

Several on-duty death reports revealed that…

A
  1. There were savable occupants or reports of occupants in the fire building upon arrival
  2. FFs did not know the fire was in the basement
  3. Visual clues of fire were absent or indicated a minor fire
  4. There was unknown direct access to the basement at grade level at the rear or side
  5. Floors were supported by dimensional wooden beams
29
Q

Several factors must be taken into consideration in evaluating the collapse potential of a building that is under fire attack. These factors fall into two general categories:

A

Building prefire conditions
Current fire conditions

30
Q

Prefire Conditions include:

A
  1. The type of construction
  2. The Weight (live and dead loads)
  3. The type, location, and arrangement of combustible/flammable fuel loads inside the building
  4. Damage to the building’s structural support system (previous fires, weather, partial collapse)
  5. Building renovations
  6. Buildings or areas in poor repair (including vacant structures)
  7. Buildings with long spans
  8. Roofs and floors supported by trusses, wooden I-beams, C-channels, and other lightweight construction
31
Q

Signs of structural collapse include:

A
  1. Bulging, cracked, or unsupported walls
  2. Walls leaking water or smoke
  3. Falling bricks
  4. Floors holding large volumes of water or stock soaked with water
  5. Movement in floors or the roof
  6. Any other signs of sctructural movement, including unusual noises
  7. Vertical structural members that are out of plumb
32
Q

A wide area beyond the working zones is known as the ________________?

A

Fire perimeter

33
Q

How far beyond the building on fire in all directions is a good general rule for the fire perimeter?

A

Two blocks

34
Q

Any FF who discovers or suspects an electrical shock hazard should take immediate action to warn others.

A
  1. Immediately warn others using an urgent or priority radio message
  2. Act as guard or sentry to warn others until the IC can assign resources
  3. Use a box light, lantern, or other scene light to illuminate the hazard at night
  4. Flag the area as a no-entry zone using red-and-white diagonal-striped barrier tape
  5. For overhead power pole fires or hanging wires, clear a zone equal to the distance between two poles
  6. Ensure that the local power company has been notified to respond
35
Q

What is the minimum clear zone for grounded electrical hazards? (safe distance from downed power lines)

A

10 feet (3 meters), greater when wet

36
Q

What are the different phases of a fire?

A
  1. Ignition phase
  2. Growth phase
  3. Fully developed phase
  4. Decay phase
37
Q

Fires involving the contents of the building are known as what?

A

Building Fires

38
Q

Fires involving actual structural members are considered what?

A

Structure fires

39
Q

Preburn time is what?

A

From ignition until the fire is reported to the public safety answering point

40
Q

Dispatch time?

A

From public call until fire units are notified. (NFPA: 64 to 106 seconds)

41
Q

Turnout Time?

A

From when fire units are notified until apparatus leaves the station (NFPA: 80 seconds)

42
Q

Travel Time?

A

From when first engine leaves the station until they arrive at the scene. (240 seconds for first arriving engine)

43
Q

Setup Time?

A

From when fire units arrive at the scene until fire units take effective action (2 minutes)

44
Q

NFPA 1221 requires dispatch answer a call within the following time limits.

A
  1. Time to answer ≤ 15 secs 90%, ≤ 20 secs 95%
  2. Event processing ≤ 60 secs 90%
45
Q

NFPA Turnout time requirements

A
  1. 80 seconds for Fire
  2. 60 seconds for EMS
46
Q

NFPA travel time requirements

A
  1. 240 seconds or less for first arriving engine
  2. 360 seconds or less for second arriving company (with a minimum of 4 people)
  3. For other than high-rise: 480 seconds for full alarm assignment
  4. For high-rise: 610 seconds for full alarm assignment
47
Q

Ordinary solid materials must be preheated to the point at which vapor is released. This process is called what?

A

Pyrolysis

48
Q

What tends to be the initial most critical problems encountered at a working fire in a small-volume compartment?

A

Flashover or backdraft

49
Q

SOPs general call for PARs in the following situations:

A
  1. Whenever the IC or safety officer think it’s needed
  2. When the IC changes from an offensive to a defensive attack
  3. When sudden changes occur, such as backdraft, flashover, or collapse
  4. When the fire is extinguished
50
Q

Studies determined that rescue of a downed FF will require at least _________.

A

12 FFs

51
Q

Tools commonly carried as part of a RIT:

A
  1. Air cylinder
  2. Rescue ropes, search ropes, guideline ropes
  3. TIC
  4. Patient carrier, webbing, or harness
  5. Collapsible ladder for above- and below-grade rescues
  6. Forcible entry tools
  7. Wire cutters and other hand tools
  8. Lighting equipment
52
Q

When notified that a FF needs assistance the RIC must:

A
  1. Locate
  2. Extricate
  3. Remove/Assist
  4. Provide medical attention for FF trapped inside
53
Q

Safe interior operations include the following:

A
  1. Maintaining crew integrity
  2. Controlling and coordinating ventilation
  3. Providing hose line protection
  4. Providing a means of communication to the exterior and among units working in an area
  5. Maintaining contact with the hose when operating a hose line
  6. Maintaining contact with the wall or rope when operating without a hose line
  7. Placing a FF, signal light, or audible signal at the area leading to the room where FFs are working
54
Q

FF transmitting a Mayday should include the following info:

A

L - Location
U - Unit
N - Name
A - Assignment/Air
R - Resources

55
Q

At near flashover temps, a thermal protective performance (TPP) of 35 only provides against second-degree burns for approximately _____________.

A

17.5 seconds

56
Q

FFs should wipe down _____, _____, and _____ with body wipes as soon as possible to remove contaminants from these susceptible areas.

A

Face, neck, and groin

57
Q

Some of the toxins emitted by common household furnishings and structural components include:

A

Arsenic
Benzene
Carbon Monoxide
Formaldehyde
Phenols
Hydrochloric acid
Hydrogen Cyanide
Formic acid

58
Q

Rehabilitation can be divided into three phases:

A
  1. Preincident hydration and preparation
  2. Incident rehabilitation
  3. Postincident recovery
59
Q

What is a sign of mild dehydration?

A

Thirst

60
Q

Members should prehydrate by drinking how many ounces of water every 6 hours plus liquids that are ingested with meals?

A

6 to 8 ounces

61
Q

Rehab efforts should include:

A

Relief from climate conditions
Rest and recovery
Active and/or passive cooling or warming
Rehydration
Calorie and electrolyte replacement
Medical monitoring
Member accountability
Release

62
Q

NFPA 1584 stipulates that rehab should be provided after what scenarios?

A
  1. Depletion of 2 30- or 45-minute bottles
  2. Depletion of a single 60-minute bottle
  3. 40 minutes of strenuous work without SCBA
63
Q

Minimum vital signs to be checked in rehab:

A

Pulse
Respiration
Temperature

64
Q

What is set up time?

A

The time necessary to position the Apparatus, advance the first hose line into an attack position, and apply water.

65
Q

What is the key to successful positive pressure venting?

A

Control outlet openings