Chapter 5: AUDIT PLANNING

Question 1

This involves developing an overall strategy for the expected conduct and scope of the examination; the nature, extent, and timing of which vary with the size and complexity, and experience with and knowledge of the entity
a. Audit planning
b. Audit procedure
C. Audit program
d. Audit working papers

Answer 1

a. Audit planning

Question 2

Audit plans should

Precede actions
Be flexible
Be cost beneficial

a. No, Yes, Yes
b. Yes, No, Yes
c. Yes, Yes, Yes
d. No, Yes, No

Answer 2

c. Yes, Yes, Yes

Question 3

Adequate planning of the audit work helps ensure that
Appropriate attention is devoted to important areas
All misstatements will be detected
Potential problems are identified
The work is completely expeditiously
a.
YES
YES
YES
YES
b.
NO
YES
NO
YES
C.
YES
NO
YES
YES
d.
YES
NO
YES
NO

Answer 3

C.
YES
NO
YES
YES

Question 4

Which of the following is not normally performed in the
planning stage of the audit?
a. Develop an overall audit strategy.
b. Request that bank balances be confirmed.
C. Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists.
d. Identify the client’s reason for the audit.

Answer 4

b. Request that bank balances be confirmed.

Question 4

Which of the following procedures would a CPA ordinarily perform during audit planning?
a. Obtain understanding of the client’s business and industry
b. Review the client’s bank reconciliation
c. Obtain client’s representation letter
d. Review and evaluate client’s internal control

Answer 4

a. Obtain understanding of the client’s business and industry

Question 5

Early appointment of the independent auditor will enable:
a. a more thorough examination to be performed.
b. a proper study and evaluation of internal control to be
c. sufficient competent evidential matter to be obtained.
d. a more efficient examination to be planned.

Answer 5

d. a more efficient examination to be planned.

Question 5

In developing the overall audit plan for a new client, factor
not to be considered is
a. Materiality levels.
b. The client’s business, including the structure of the organization and accounting system used
c. The amount of estimated audit fee
d. The audit risks an procedures to be performed to achieve audit objectives

Question 6

In planning the audit engagement, the auditor should consider each of the following except
a. matters relating to the entity’s business and the industries in which it operates
b. the entity’s accounting policies and procedures
c. anticipated levels of control risk and materiality
d. the kind of opinion that is likely to be expressed

Question 6

A CPA is conducting the first examination of a client’s financial statements. The CPA hopes to reduce the audit work by consulting with the predecessor auditor and reviewing the predecessor’s working papers. This procedure is
Acceptable if the client and the predecessor auditor agree to it.
b. Acceptable if the CPA refers in the audit report to reliance upon the predecessor auditor’s work.
c. Required if the CPA is to render an unmodified opinion.
d. Unacceptable because the CPA should bring an independent viewpoint to a new engagement.

Question 7

Which of the following is not one of the three main reasons why the auditor should properly plan engagements?
a. To enable proper on-the-job training of employees
b. To enable the auditor to obtain sufficient competent evidence
c. To avoid misunderstandings with the client
d. To help keep audit costs reasonable

Question 8

A tour of the client’s facilities is helpful in obtaining an understanding of the client’s operations because
a. The auditor will be able to assess the physical safeguards over assets
b. The auditor may be better able to assess certain inherent risks
C. The auditor obtains a broader perspective about the company as a whole
d. All of the above

Question 9

Understanding the entity and its environment
Which of the following is the most likely first step an auditor would perform at the beginning of an initial audit engagement?
a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of the auditor’s report.
b. Study and evaluate the system of internal administrative control
c. Tour the client’s facilities and review the general records
d. Consult with and review the work of the predecessor
auditor prior to discussing the engagement with the client management.

Question 10

Prior to beginning the field work on a new audit engagement in which a CPA does not possess expertise in the industry in which the client operates, the CPA should
a. Reduce audit risk by lowering the preliminary levels of materiality
b. Design special substantive tests to compensate for the
C. lack of industry expertise
Engage financial experts familiar with the nature of the
industry
d. Obtain a knowledge of matters that relate to the nature
of the entity’s business

Question 11

An extensive understanding of the client’s business and industry and knowledge about the company’s operations are essential for doing an adequate audit. For a new client, most of this information is obtained.
a. From the precedessor auditor
b. From the Securities and Exchange Commission
c. From the permanent file
d. At the client’s premises

Question 12

The audit team gathers information about a new client’s business and industry in order to obtain:
a. an understanding of the clients internal control system for financial reporting.
b. an understanding of how economic events and transactions affect the company’s financial statements.
c. information about engagement risk.
d. information regarding whether the company is engaging in financial statement fraud.

Question 13

In performing an audit of financial statements, the auditor should obtain knowledge of the client’s business sufficient to
a. make constructive suggestions concerning improvements in internal control
b. identify transactions and events that may affect the financial statements
c. develop an attitude of professional skepticism
d. assess the level of control risk

Question 14

To obtain an understanding of a continuing client’s business in planning an audit, an auditor most likely would
a. Perform tests of details of transactions and balances
b. Review prior year working papers and the permanent file for the client.
C. Read specialized industry journals
d. Re-evaluate the client’s internal control system

Question 14

Which of the following statements is correct, when obtaining understanding about the client’s business?
a. The level of knowledge required of the auditor is ordinarily more than the level of knowledge possessed by management
b. Preliminary knowledge about the entity’s industry must be obtained after accepting the engagement to determine whether the auditor has the necessary knowledge to perform the audit.
c. Following the acceptance of the engagement, the auditor should obtain detailed knowledge about the client’s business preferably at the start of the engagement.
d. For continuing engagements, the auditor may no longer obtain knowledge about the client’s business anymore.

Question 15

Each of the following may be relevant to an auditor when obtaining knowledge about the client’s business and industry
except
a. Discussion with people win or outside the entity.
b. Reading publications related to the industry
c. Visits of the entity’s premises
d. Performing tests of control

Question 16

Information about the client’s business appropriately assists the auditor in:
Assessing risks and identifying potential problems
Planning and performing
the audit effectively and efficiently
Evaluating audit evidence
a.
YES
YES
YES
b.
YES
NO
YES
C.
NO
YES
YES
d.
YES
YES
NO

Question 17

For initial engagements, PSA 510 does not require the auditor to obtain evidence:
a. That the opening balances do not contain material misstatements that materially affect the current period’s financial statements.
b. that the prior period’s ending balances have been correctly brought forward to the current period or, when appropriate, have been restated.
c. That appropriate accounting policies are consistently applied or changes in accounting policies have been properly accounted for and adequately disclosed.
d. That the prior period financial statements were audited by an independent CPA.

Question 18

Materiality
22. The preliminary judgment about materiality and the amount of audit evidence accumulated are
a. directly
b. indirectly
related.
C. not
d. inversely

Question 19

The auditor has no responsibility to plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance that misstatements, whether caused by errors or fraud, that are not
a. important to the financial statements are detected.
b. statistically significant to the financial statements
c. material to the financial statements
d. identified by the client
24. According to PSA 320, materiality should be considered by
the auditor when:
a.
b.
Determining the nature, timing and
extent of audit procedures.
YES
YES
C.
NO
d.
NO
Evaluating the effects of
misstatements.
YES
NO
NO
YES

Question 20

According to PSA 320, materiality should be considered by
the auditor when:

Determining the nature, timing and
extent of audit procedures.
Evaluating the effects of
misstatements.

a. Yes, Yes
b. Yes, No
c. No, No
d. No, Yes

Question 21

If an auditor establishes a relatively high level for materiality, then the auditor will:
a. accumulate more evidence than if a lower level had been set.
b. accumulate less evidence than if a lower level had been
set.
c. accumulate approximately the same evidence as would be the case were materiality lower.
d. accumulate an undetermined amount of evidence.

Question 22

Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?
a. The concept of materiality recognizes that some matters are important for fair presentation of financial statements in conformity with the applicable financial reporting framework, while other matters are not important.
b. An auditor considers materiality for planning purposes in terms of the largest aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to any one of the financial statements.
c. Materiality judgments are made in light of surrounding circumstances and necessarily involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments.
d. An auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of a reasonable person who will rely on the financial statements.

Question 23

In developing the preliminary level of materiality in an audit, the auditor will
a. Look to audit standards for specific materiality guideline
b. Increase the level of materiality if fraud is suspected
c. Rely primarily on professional judgment to determine the materiality level
d. Use the same materiality level as that used for different clients in the same industry

Question 24

In making a preliminary judgment about materiality, the auditor initially determines the aggregate (overall) level of materiality for each statement. For planning purposes, the auditor should
use the
a. levels separately.
b largest aggregate level.
C. average of these levels.
d. smallest aggregate level.

Question 25

In planning the audit, the auditor should assess materiality at
two levels
a. the preliminary level and the final level
b. the company level and the divisional level.
c. the account balance level and the detailed item level.
d. the financial statement level and the account balance level

Question 26

“Performance materiality” is the term used to indicate materiality at the:
a. balance sheet level.
b. account balance level.
C. income statement level.
d. company-wide level.

Question 27

All else being equal, as the level of materiality decreases, the
amount of evidence required will:
a. remain the same
b. decrease.
C. change in an unpredictable fashion
d. increase

Question 28

In considering materiality for planning purposes, an auditor believes that misstatements aggregating P100,000 would have a material effect on an entity’s income statement, but those misstatements would have to aggregate P 200,000 to materially affect the balance sheet. Ordinarily, it would be appropriate to design auditing procedures that would be expected to detect misstatements that aggregate
a. P 100,000
b. P 200,000
C. P 150,000
d. P 300,000

Question 29

Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor’s preliminary judgment about materiality?
a. The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive
tests.
b. The entity’s annualized interim financial statements.
c. The results of the internal control questionnaire.
d. The contents of the management representation letter.

Question 30

Which of the following is the primary basis used to decide materiality for a profit oriented entity?
a. net sales
b. net assets
c. net income before tax
d. all of the above

Question 31

The concept of materiality
a. Applies only to publicly held firms
b. Has greater application to the standards of reporting than the other generally accepted auditing standards
C. Requires that relatively more effort be directed to those assertions that are more susceptible to misstatement
d. Requires the auditor to make judgments as to whether misstatements affect the fairness of the financial
statements.

Question 31

The relationship between materiality and risk is ordinarily
a. Direct
b. Parallel
c. Inverse
d. None

Question 32

Auditors are responsible for determining whether financial statements are materially misstated, so upon discovering material misstatement they must bring it to the attention of
a. the regulators.
b. the audit firm’s managing partner.
c. the client shareholders.
d. the client’s management.

Question 32

When comparing level of materiality used for planning purposes and the level of materiality used for evaluating evidence, one would most likely expect
a. The level of materiality to be always similar.
b. The level of materiality for planning purposes to be smaller.
C. The level of materiality for planning purposes to be higher.
d. The level of materiality for planning purposes to be based
on total assets while the level of materiality for evaluating purposes to be based on net income.

Question 32

When assessing materiality levels for audit purposes, the auditor
should consider the

Amount involve
Nature of misstatement
a.
YES
YES
b.
YES
ΝΟ
C.
NO
NO
d.
NO
YES

Question 33

Auditing standards ___________
that the basis used to determine
the preliminary judgment about materiality be documented in
the audit files.
a. permit
b. do not allow
C. require
d. strongly encourage

Question 34

Qualitative factors can affect an auditor’s assessment of materiality. Which of the following qualitative factors could influence the assessment of materiality?
I. Misstatements that are otherwise immaterial may be material if they affect earnings trends.
II. Minor misstatements resulting from the consequences of contractual obligations.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. neither I nor II

Question 35

Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. Materiality is a relative rather than an absolute concept.
b. The most important base used as the criterion for deciding materiality is total assets.
C. Qualitative factors as well as quantitative factors affect materiality.
d. Given equal peso amounts, frauds are usually considered more important than errors.

Question 36

Jem Corporation has a few large accounts receivable that total one million pesos whereas Moshe Corporation has many small accounts receivable that total one million pesos. Misstatement in any one account is more significant for Jem Corporation because of the concept of:
a. Materiality.
b. Audit risk.
c. Reasonable assurance.
d. Comparative analysis

Question 36

When tolerable misstatement is exceeded by ______________ the auditor should request the client to adjust their account balance.
I. Known misstatements
II. Projected misstatement
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. None of the above

Question 37

A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has been issued is the
a. Inherent risk
b. Acceptable audit risk
C. Statistical risk
d. Financial risk

Question 38

Audit Risk
Auditors frequently refer to the terms audit assurance, overall
assurance, and level of assurance to refer to
a. detection risk
b. audit report risk
C. acceptable audit risk
d. inherent risk

Question 39

A measure of the auditor’s assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements in an account before considering the effectiveness of the client’s internal control is
a. Control risk
b. Acceptable audit risk
C. Statistical risk
d. Inherent risk

Question 40

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk is evaluated to help an auditor asses which of the following?
a. The internal audit department’s objectivity in reporting a material misstatement of a financial statement assertion it detects to the audit committee.
b. The risk the internal control system will not detect a material misstatement of a financial statement assertion.
c. The risk that the audit procedures implemented will not detect a material misstatement of a financial statement assertion.
d. The susceptibility of a financial statement assertion to a material misstatement assuming there are no related
controls.

Question 41

The risk that a material misstatement in an assertion will not be prevented or detected on a timely basis by internal control
is
a. Detection risk.
b. Control risk.
c. Inherent risk.
d. Audit risk.

Question 42

The probability that an auditor’s procedure leading to the conclusion that a material error does not exist in an account balance when, in fact, such error does exist is referred to as
a. Prevention risk.
b. Inherent risk.
C. Control risk.
d. Detection risk

Question 43

The risk that the auditor may express an incorrect opinion on the financial statements is called
a. inherent risk
b. detection risk
c. control risk
d. audit risk

Question 44

The risk that financial statements are likely to be misstated materially without regard to the effectiveness of internal control is the:.
a. Inherent risk
b. Audit risk
C. Client risk
d. Control risk

Question 45

A measure of the auditor’s assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements in an account before considering the effectiveness of the client’s internal control is called:
a. control risk.
b. acceptable audit risk.
C. statistical risk.
d. inherent risk.

Question 46

Audit risk consists of all but the following components
a. inherent risk
b. substantive risk
C. detection risk
d. control risk

Question 47

For a particular assertion, control risk is the risk that:
a. A material misstatement will occur in the accounting process
b. Controls will not detect a material misstatement that occurs
c. Audit procedures will fail to detect a weak control system.
d. The prescribed control procedures will not be applied
uniformly.

Question 48

Which of the following is the best definition of detection risk?
a. The auditor will compute audit materiality incorrectly.
b. The auditor will fail to detect material misstatements that exist.
c. The auditor will apply more audit procedures than are required in the circumstances.
d. The auditor will fail to modify the audit opinion on financial statements that are materially misstated.

Question 48

The risk that the audit will fail to uncover a material misstatement is eliminated
a. If a client has strong internal control.
b. If a client is not publicly accountable entity.
C. When the auditor has complied with the Philippine Standard on Auditing
d. Under no circumstances.

Question 49

Risk in auditing means that the auditor accepts some level of uncertainty in performing the audit function. An effective auditor will
a. Take any means available to reduce the risk to the lowest possible level.
b. Set the risk level between 5% and 10%.
c. Perform the audit procedures first and quantitatively set the risk level before forming an opinion and writing the report.
d. Recognize that risk exists and deal with it in an appropriate manner.

Question 49

The audit risk against which the auditor and those who rely on his/her opinion require reasonable protection is a combination of three separate risks at the account-balance or class-of- transactions level. The first risk is inherent risk. The second risk is that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected by internal control. The third risk is that
a. The auditor will reject a correct account balance as incorrect.
b. Material misstatements that occur will not be detected by the audit.
C. The auditor will apply an inappropriate audit procedure.
d. The auditor will apply an inappropriate measure of audit materiality.

Question 49

When planning a financial statement audit, the auditor should
assess inherent risk at the

Financial statement
level
Account balance or transaction class level
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No No
d. No Yes

Question 49

The risk of material misstatement differs from detection risk
in that it
a. arises because audit procedures have been misapplied.
b. can be controlled and changed by the auditor.
C. can be assessed in quantitative and non-quantitative
terms.
d. is controllable by the client.

Question 50

The audit risk model is used primarily
a. For planning purposes in determining how much evidence to accumulate.
b. To test the effectiveness of controls.
c. To determine the type of opinion to express.
d. To evaluate the evidence which has been gathered.

Question 50

The risk of material misstatement refers to:
a. control risk and acceptable audit risk.
b. inherent risk.
c. the combination of inherent risk and control risk.
d. inherent risk and audit risk.

Question 50

As the risk of material misstatement increases, detection risk
should:
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. stay the same.
d. increase or decrease depending on materiality level.

Question 50

Inherent risk and control risk:
a. are inversely related to each other.
b. are inversely related to detection risk.
C. are directly related to detection risk.
d. are directly related to audit risk.

Question 51

Inherent risk and control risk differ from detection risk in that inherent and control risks
a. Arise from the misapplication of auditing procedures.
b. May be assessed in either quantitative or non-quantitative
terms.
c. Exist independently of the financial statement audit.
d. Can be changed at the auditor’s discretion.

Question 51

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a. Detection risk cannot be changed at the auditor’s discretion.
b. If individual audit risk remains the same, detection risk bears an inverse relationship to inherent & control risks.
c. The greater the inherent & control risks the auditor believes exists, the less detection risk that can be accepted.
d. The auditor might make separate or combined assessments of inherent risk and control risk

Question 52

The acceptable level of detection risk is inversely related to
the
a. Assurance provided by substantive tests.
b. Risk of misapplying auditing procedures.
c. Preliminary judgment about materiality levels
d. Risk of failing to discover material misstatements

Question 53

Relationship between control risk and detection risk is ordinarily
a. Parallel
b. Direct
C. Inverse
d. Equal

Question 54

Which of the following conditions supports an increase in detection risk?
a. Internal control over cash receipts is excellent.
b. Application of analytical procedures reveals a significant increase in sales revenue inDecember, the last month of the fiscal year
C. Internal control over shipping, billing, and recording of sales revenue is weak.
d. Study of the business reveals that the client recently acquired a new company in an unrelated industry.

Question 55

Which of the following is not a primary consideration when assessing inherent risk?
a. nature of client’s business
b. existence of related parties
c. degree of separation of duties
d. susceptibility to defalcation

Question 56

An auditor uses the assessed level of control risk to
a. Evaluate the effectiveness of the entity’s internal control policies and procedures
b. Identify transactions and account balances where inherent risk is at a high level.
C. Indicate whether materiality thresholds for planning and evaluation purposes are sufficiently high
d. Determine the acceptable level of detection risk for financial statement

Question 57

Inherent risk is defined as the susceptibility of an account balance or class of transactions to error that could be material assuming that there were no related internal controls. Of the following conditions which one does not increase inherent risk?
a. The client has entered numerous related party transactions during the year under audit
b. Internal control over shipping, billing, and recording of sales revenue is weak.
c. The client has lost a major customer accounting for approximately 30% of annual revenue
d. The board of directors approved a substantial bonus for the president and chief executive office and also approved an attractive stock option plan for themselves.

Question 57

What is the magnitude of audit risk if inherent risk is .50, control risk .40, and detection risk .10?
a. .20
b. .04
C. .10
d. .02

Question 58

Which of the following would be considered the most conservative settings for inherent risk and control risk?

Inherent Risk
Control Risk
a. 1.0, 1.0
b. 1.0, 0.0
c. 0.0, 0.0
d. 0.5, 0.5

Question 59

An inherent risk (IR) of 40% and a control risk of (CR) of 60% affect planned detection risk and planned evidence differently than an
a. IR of 60% and CR of 40%
b. IR of 80% and CR of 30%
c. IR of 100% and CR of 24%
d. IR of 70% and CR of 30%

Question 60

As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, an auditor may change the
a. Timing of substantive tests by performing them at an interim date rather than at year-end
b. Nature of substantive tests from a less effective to a more effective procedure.
C. Timing of tests of controls by performing them at several dates rather than at one time
d. Assessed level of inherent risk to a higher level.

Question 61

Inherent risk is defined as the susceptibility of an account balance or class of transactions to error that could be material assuming that there were no related internal controls. Of the following conditions which one does not increase inherent risk?
a. The client has entered numerous related party transactions during the year under audit
b. Internal control over shipping, billing, and recording of sales revenue is weak.
c. The client has lost a major customer accounting for approximately 30% of annual revenue
d. The board of directors approved a substantial bonus for the president and chief executive office and also approved an attractive stock option plan for themselves

Question 61

As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, an auditor
may
a. Reduce substantive testing by relying on the assessments of inherent risk and control risk.
b. Postpone the planned timing of substantive tests from interim dates to the year-end.
C. Eliminate the assessed level of inherent risk from consideration as a planning factor.
d. Lower the assessed level of control risk

Question 62

Inherent risk is
related to detection risk and
related to the amount of audit evidence.
a. directly, inversely
b. directly, directly
C. inversely, inversely
d. inversely, directly

Question 63

On the basis of the audit evidence gathered and evaluated, a auditor decides to increase the assessed level of control risk from that originally planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the planned audit risk
level, the auditor would
a. Decrease substantive testing
b. Increase inherent risk.
c. Decrease detection risk.
d. Increase materiality levels.

Question 64

Which of the following is not correct regarding an auditor’s decision that a lower acceptable audit risk is appropriate?
a. More evidence is accumulated.
b. Less evidence is accumulated.
C. Special care is required in assigning experienced staff.
d. Review of audit documentation is performed by personnel not assigned to the engagement.

Question 65

Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Inherent risk is inversely related to the amount of audit evidence whereas detection risk is directly related to the amount of audit evidence required.
b. Inherent risk is directly related to evidence whereas detection risk is inversely related to the amount of audit evidence required.
c. Inherent risk is the susceptibility of the financial statements to material error, assuming no internal controls.
d. Inherent risk and control risk are assessed by the auditor and function independently of the financial statement audit.

Question 66

Which of the following statements is not true about the auditor’s assessment of inherent risk when planning a financial
statement audit?
a. In developing the overall audit plan, the auditor should assess inherent risk at the financial statement level.
b. In developing an audit program, the auditor should assess inherent risk at the account balance or transaction class level.
c. The auditor can make a separate or combined assessment of inherent and control risk.
d. The auditor’s assessment of inherent risk is influenced by the condition of the client’s accounting and internal control systems.

Question 67

Collectively, procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including internal controls, represent the auditor’s:
a. audit strategy.
b. tests of controls.
C. risk assessment procedures.
d. tests of transactions.

Question 68

The auditor should obtain sufficient understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control in order to

Identify and assess the risk of
material misstatement
Design appropriate audit
procedures
a. Yes, Yes
b. Yes, No
c. No, No
d. No, Yes

Question 68

Which of the following is least likely to be considered a risk assessment procedure?
a. Analytical procedure
b. Confirmation of ending accounts receivable
C. Inspection of documents
d. Observation of the performance of certain account procedures.

Question 69

Which of the following would not be considered further audit procedures?
a. tests of controls
b. substantive analytical procedures
c. tests of details of balances
d. risk assessment procedures

Question 70

Risk assessment procedures would include all of the following
except
a. Inquiries of management and others within the entity.
b. Analytical procedures.
C. Observation and inspection.
d. Reperformance of client’s procedures.

Question 71

The main purpose of risk assessment procedure is to
a. Obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control; and to assess the risks of material misstatement at the financial statement and assertion level.
b. Test the operating effectiveness of controls in preventing, or detecting and correcting, material misstatements at the assertion level.
c. Detection material misstatements at the assertion level.
d. All of the given choices are main purposes of risk assessment procedures.

Question 72

Risk assessment procedures are performed by auditors during
an audit in order to:
a. determine the risk of material misstatement in the financial
statements.
b. determine the acceptable level of audit risk.
C. determine the level of materiality.
d. determine whether engagement will be accepted.

Question 73

The auditor is likely to accumulate more evidence when the audit is for a company
a. Whose stock is publicly held
b. Which has extensive indebtedness
c. Which is to be sold in the near future
d. All three of the above

Question 73

Why do auditors establish a preliminary judgment about materiality?
a. To determine the appropriate level of staff to assign to the audit.
b. So that the client can know what records to make available to the auditor.
c. To plan the appropriate audit evidence to accumulate and develop an overall audit strategy.
d. To finalize the control risk assessment.

Question 74

The main reason why auditors make a preliminary assessment of materiality and risk is to:
a. determine the type of opinion to express
b. determine the scope of the audit procedures to be performed.
c. evaluate the integrity of client’s management.
d. have a basis for constructive suggestions to clients.

Question 75

At what point in the audit are tests of details most appropriately designed?
a. Engagement evaluation
b. Planning
C. Testing
d. Any of the above

Question 75

Unusual fluctuations occur when
a. Significant differences are not expected but do exist
b. Significant differences are expected but do not exist
c. Significant differences are expected and do exist
d. Either A or B is true

Question 76

Evaluations of financial information made by a study of plausible relationships among financial and nonfinancial data involving comparisons of recorded amounts to expectations developed by the auditor is a definition of
a. Analytical procedures
b. Tests of balances
C. Tests of transactions
d. Auditing

Question 76

Analytical procedures
These consist of the analysis of significant ratios and trends relationship that are inconsistent with other relevant
information or deviate from predictable amount.
a. Financial statement analysis
b. Variance analysis
C. Analytical procedures
d. Regression analysis

Question 76

Which of the following is not a potential effect of an auditor’s decision that a lower acceptable audit risk is appropriate
a. More evidence is required
b. Less evidence is required
C. Special care is required in assigning experienced staff
d. Review of the audit files by personnel who were not assigned to the engagement.

Question 77

It is easier and more common to implement increased evidence accumulation for inherent risk than for acceptable audit risk because
a. Inherent risk can usually be isolated to one or two accounts
b. Inherent risk applies to the entire audit
C. Acceptable audit risk and sample sizes are set statistically.
d. Acceptable audit risk does not impact on the amount of
evidence which must be accumulated.

Question 78

The purpose of analytical procedures during the audit planning stage is to
a. Aid in planning the observation of physical inventory.
b. Identify unusual circumstances that the auditor may need to investigate further.
C. Flag individual transactions for further review.
d. Determine whether sales transactions are approved.

Question 78

Analytical procedures used as of risk assessment procedure are performed primarily to assist the auditor in
a. Identifying areas that may represent specific risks.
b. Obtaining knowledge about the design of internal control.
c. Obtaining knowledge about the operating effectiveness of the client’s internal control.
d. Gathering corroborative evidence about the validity of an account balance.

Question 78

A basic premise underlying analytical procedure is that
a. These procedures cannot replace tests of balances and
transactions.
b. Statistical tests of financial information may lead to the discovery of material misstatements in the financial
statements.
c. The study of financial ratios is an acceptable alternative to the investigation of unusual fluctuations.
d. Plausible relationships among data may reasonably be expected to exist and continue in the absence of known conditions to the contrary.

Question 79

One reason why an auditor makes an analytical review of the client’s operations is to identify
a. Improper separation of accounting and other financial duties
b. Weakness of a material nature in the system of internal accounting control
c. Unusual transactions
d. Non-compliance with prescribed control procedures

Question 80

Significant unexpected differences identified by analytical procedures will usually necessitate a (n):
a. Consistency explanatory paragraph added to the audit
report
b. Review of the internal control structure
C. Explanation in the representation letter
d. Auditor investigation

Question 81

Which of the following statements about analytical procedures
is incorrect?
a. Analytical procedures are required to be performed in the planning phase of the audit.
b. Analytical procedures are required to be done during the
testing phase of the audit.
c. Analytical procedures are required to be done during the completion phase of the audit.
d. Analytical procedures may be performed in the planning, testing and completion phases of the audit.

Question 82

Analytical procedures are used for the following purposes
except
a. To assist the auditor in planning the nature, timing and extent of other auditing procedures.
b. As a substantive test to obtain evidential matter about particular assertion related to account balances or classes of transactions.
C. As an overall review of financial information in the final review stage of the audit.
d. To evaluate the effectiveness of the client’s internal control.

Question 83

Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus
on identifying:
a. Material weaknesses in the internal control structure
b. The predictability of financial data from individual transactions
c. The various assertions that are embodied in the financial statements
d. Areas that may represent specific risk relevant to the audit

Question 84

For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with PSAS, the use of analytical procedures is required to some
extent
- In the planning stage
- As a substantive test
- In the review stage
a. Yes No Yes
b. No Yes No
c. Yes Yes Yes
d. Yes No No

Question 85

To help plan the nature, timing, and extent of substantive auditing procedures, preliminary analytical procedures should
focus on
a. Enhancing the auditor’s understanding of the client’s business and events that have occurred since the last audit date.
b. Developing plausible relationships that corroborate anticipated results with a measurable amount of precision.
c. Applying ratio analysis to externally generated data such as published industry statistics or price indices.
d. Comparing recorded financial information to the results of other tests of transactions and balances.

Question 86

Analytical procedures enable the auditor to predict the balance or quantity of an item under audit. information to develop this estimate can be obtained from all of the following except
a. Tracing transactions through the system to determine whether procedures are being applied as prescribed
b. Comparison of financial data with data for comparable prior periods, anticipated results (e.g., budgets and forecasts), and similar data for the industry in which the entity operates
C. Study of the relationships of elements of financial data that would be expected to conform to a predictable pattern based upon the entity’s experience
d. Study of the relationships of financial data with relevant non-financial data

Question 87

The major concern when using nonfinancial data in analytical procedures is the:
a. accuracy of the nonfinancial data.
b. source of the nonfinancial data.
C. type of nonfinancial data.
d. presence of multiple sources of nonfinancial data.

Question 87

Which of the following is not a typical analytical review
a. Study of relationships of the financial information with relevant non-financial information.
b. Comparison of the financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the entity
operates.
c. Comparisons of recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices.
d. Comparisons of the financial information with budgeted
amounts.

Question 87

Which of the following represents a procedure that the auditor may use because plausible relationships among financial statement balances are expected to exist?
a. Attributes testing
b. Enterprise risk assessment
C. Inherent test control
d. Analytical review

Question 87

An example of an analytical procedure is the comparison of
a. Financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the entity operates.
b. Recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices.
C. Results of statistical sample with the expected characteristics of the actual population
d. CIS generated data with similar data generated by a manual

Question 88

In which stage(s) of an audit can analytical procedures be
performed?
a. In the planning stage
b. In conjunction with tests of transactions and tests of
details of balances
c. In the completion stage
d. During all three stage

Question 88

An important benefit of industry comparisons is as
a. An aid to understanding the client’s business
b. An indicator of errors
C. An indicator of fraud
d. A least-cost indicator for audit procedures

Question 89

Which of the following is not a direct outcome of performing analytical procedures?
a. Assess the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern.
b. Reduce detailed audit tests
C. Understand the client’s business
d. Identify specific errors in the accounts

Question 90

If no material differences are found using analytical procedures and the auditor concludes that misstatements are not likely to have occurred
a. Other substantive tests may be reduced.
b. It will be necessary to increase the tests of details of balances
C. It will not be necessary to perform tests of details of balances
d. It will be necessary to increase the tests of transactions

Question 91

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to analytical procedures
a. Analytical procedures use expectations developed by the auditor
b. Analytical procedures should be performed in every phase
of the audit
c. Analytical procedures may be performed at any time during the audit
d. Analytical procedures use comparison and relationships to assess whether account balances appear to be reasonable.

Question 93

In developing the overall audit plan and audit program, the
auditor should assess inherent risk at the:
- Audit plan
- Audit program
a. Financial statement level, account balance level
b. Account balance level, financial statement level
c. Account balance level, account balance level
d. Financial statement level,
Financial statement level

Question 94

The audit program usually cannot be finalized until the
a. Consideration of the entity’s internal control has been completed
b. Engagement letter has been signed by the auditor and
the client
c. Significant deficiency has been communicated to the audit committee of the board of directors
d. Search for unrecorded liabilities has been performed and documented

Question 95

Audit programs should be designed so that
a. Most of the required procedures can be performed as interim work
b. Inherent risk is assessed at a sufficiently low level
C. The auditor can make constructive suggestions to management
d. The audit evidence gathered supports the auditor’s conclusions

Question 96

In designing written audit programs, an auditor should establish audit objectives that relate primarily to the
a. Timing of audit procedures
b. Cost-benefit of gathering evidence
C. Selected audit techniques
d. Financial statement assertions

Question 96

An auditor should design the written audit program so that
a. All material transactions will be selected for substantive testing.
b. Substantive tests prior to the balance sheet date will be minimized.
C. The audit procedures selected will achieve specific audit objectives.
d. Each account balance will be tested under either tests of controls or tests of transactions.

Question 97

An audit program should be designed for each individual audit and should include audit steps and procedures to
a. Detect and eliminate all fraud
b. Increase the amount of management information available
C. Provide assurance that the objectives of the audit are
met
d. Ensure that only material items are audited

Question 98

Which of the following statements is incorrect about audit planning documentation?
a. The audit plan and related program should no longer be changed once the audit is started.
b. Although the precise form and content of the audit plan may vary, it should be sufficiently detailed to guide the development of an audit program.
C. The audit program should set out the nature, timing and extent of planned audit procedures required to implement the overall audit plan.
d. In preparing an audit program, the auditor should consider
the specific assessments of inherent and control risks and the required level of assurance to be provided by substantive tests.

Question 99

Which of the following matters would least likely appear in
the audit program?
a. Specific procedures that will be performed.
b. Specific audit objectives
C. Estimated time that will be spent in performing certain
procedures.
d. Documentation of the accounting and internal control
systems being reviewed.

Question 100

A listing of all the things which the auditor will do to gather sufficient, competent evidence is the
a. Audit plan
b. Audit program
C. Audit procedure
d. Audit risk model

Question 101

Evidence is usually more persuasive for balance sheet accounts when it is obtained
a. As close to the balance sheet date as possible
b. Only from transactions occurring on the balance sheet date
C. From various times throughout the client’s year
d. From the time period when transactions in that account were most numerous during the fiscal period.

Answer 101

a. As close to the balance sheet date as possible

Question 102

The most important consideration in developing the audit plan and audit program is the
a. Client’s size
b. Client’s industry
c. Audit firm’s available personnel
d. The audit risk model used in its planning form

Answer 102

d. The audit risk model used in its planning form