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Corrective Exercise Specialist > Chapter 5-9 > Flashcards

Chapter 5-9 Flashcards

1
Q

What phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum works to stimulate underactive/lengthened myofascial tissue?

Inhibit

Lengthen

Activate

Integrate

A

Activate

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2
Q

Which of the following represents a contraindication for isolated strengthening?

​​​​​​​Pain during movement

Poor core stabilization strength

Diabetes

Older adults

A

​​​​​​​Pain during movement

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3
Q

What tempo is recommended for isolated strengthening exercise?

X/X/X

2/0/2

4/2/1

5/5/5

A

4/2/1

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4
Q

Which of the following muscles would benefit from isolated strengthening to help reduce synergistic dominance of the biceps femoris during leg curls?

Internal obliques

Gluteus maximus

Medial hamstrings

Gastrocnemius

A

Medial hamstrings

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5
Q

Which phase of the muscle action spectrum is the slowest during corrective exercise?

Eccentric

Amortization

Isometric

Concentric

A

Eccentric

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6
Q

Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following?

Preferential activation

Ideal activation

Isometric activation

Positional isometrics

A

Preferential activation

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7
Q

According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank?

Relaxing the hip musculature

Isometric ankle plantarflexion

Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades

A

Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

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8
Q

Jared is a beginner client with weight loss goals and several mild movement dysfunctions. During the beginning phases, the repetition range for Jared during resistance training should be which of the following?

Held stable for a prolonged time frame

Low repetition

High repetition

Moderate repetition

A

High repetition

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9
Q

In which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum does activation occur?

First

Third

Fourth

Second

A

Third

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10
Q

The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following?

Clark’s models

Janda’s syndromes

Kendall’s postures

Mennell’s truisms

A

Mennell’s truisms

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11
Q

The isometric tempo should last approximately how long?

4 counts

1 count

2 seconds

3 counts

A

2 seconds

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12
Q

Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance during what muscle action in isolation?

Shortening

Perturbating

Stabilizing

Lengthening

A

Lengthening

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13
Q

The Activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the following?

Lengthened muscles

Muscle imbalance

Lack of flexibility

Hypertonic muscles

A

Lengthened muscles

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14
Q

Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase what?

Intramuscular coordination

Extensibility

Synergistic dominance

Activation

A

Intramuscular coordination

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15
Q

The fitness professional uses activations to provide strength to muscles that lack the ability to appropriately eccentrically decelerate unwanted joint actions and do what else?

Concentrically accelerate unwanted movement

Stabilize unwanted movement

Maximize force production

Alleviate joint pain

A

Stabilize unwanted movement

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16
Q

What type of activations will provide mild stress to muscles, which may be used as part of a recovery day?

Beginner-level activations

Moderate-level activations

Low-level activations

High-level activations

A

Low-level activations

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17
Q

The concentric tempo should last approximately how long?

4 seconds

2 seconds

3 seconds

1 second

A

1 second

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18
Q

Jamie demonstrated a posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is an appropriate activation exercise for Jamie?

Abdominal crunch on stability ball

Standing hamstring curl

Wall slides

Standing hip flexor

A

Standing hip flexor

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19
Q

The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization, and firing rate is known to increase what at that specific muscle?

Strength

ROM

Intermuscular coordination

Tenacity

A

Strength

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20
Q

Which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum works to re-educate the human movement system back into a functional synergistic movement pattern?

Inhibit

Lengthen

Activate

Integrate

A

Integrate

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21
Q

True or False? Multijoint exercises in all planes of motion from both bilateral and unilateral stances help increase intermuscular coordination and re-educate the neuromuscular system to maintain proper postural alignment during functional activity.

True

False

A

True

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22
Q

Which of the following is a precaution for integrated dynamic movement?

Neuromuscular disorders

Acute injury

Muscle tear

Pain

A

Neuromuscular disorders

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23
Q

How frequently should integrated dynamic movement be performed?

1 to 3 days per week

2 to 4 days per week

3 to 5 days per week

5 to 7 days per week

A

3 to 5 days per week

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24
Q

Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, standing, unilateral and bilateral exercises, help to place increased stress on what other area?

Ipsilateral musculature

Core musculature

Triceps

Lats

A

Core musculature

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25
Q

Kaden is a 45-year-old office work just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future?

Push up

Ball squat with overhead press

Barbell squat

Seated overhead press

A

Ball squat with overhead press

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26
Q

In order to obtain neuromuscular efficiency and optimization of human movement, total-body integrated exercises are called on to provide and control which of the following?

Balance

Degrees of freedom

Circumduction

Joint ROM

A

Degrees of freedom

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27
Q

What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form?

Decrease the load to require less from the muscles

Stop the exercise

Increase the load to demand more from the muscles

Give verbal cues

A

Give verbal cues

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28
Q

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern?

Cooperative

Length-tension

Force-couple

Synergistic

A

Synergistic

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29
Q

Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements?

Total body coordination

Multiplanar coordination

Intermuscular coordination

Intramuscular coordination

A

Intermuscular coordination

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30
Q

What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion?

Sagittal > Scapular > Rotational

Frontal > Transverse > Sagittal

Transverse > Sagittal > Frontal

Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse

A

Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse

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31
Q

Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders?

They may decrease joint stiffness.

They may increase motor control.

They are ideal for producing power.

They are ideal for producing strength.

A

They may increase motor control.

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32
Q

What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus upon landing?

“Keep your knees directly over your ankles.”

“Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes.”

“Keep your knees behind your toes.”

“Keep your knees out wider than your fifth toe.”

A

“Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes.”

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33
Q

What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement?

Postural efficiency

Muscular efficiency

Structural efficiency

Movement efficiency

A

Movement efficiency

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34
Q

Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following?

Ipsilateral limb

Posteriorly rotated limb

Anteriorly rotated limb

Contralateral limb

A

Contralateral limb

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35
Q

Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser?

Concentric acceleration

The amortization phase

Eccentric deceleration

Isometric stabilization

A

Eccentric deceleration

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36
Q

What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action?

Protagonist

Antagonist

Agonist

Type II muscle fibers

A

Agonist

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37
Q

During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?

Eccentric deceleration

Concentric acceleration

Isometric stabilization

The amortization phase

A

Eccentric deceleration

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38
Q

The backbone for the entire corrective exercise process is to first build strong rapport with clients.

True

False

A

True

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39
Q

Which of the following represents the correct way to talk to clients about corrective exercise during the initial session?

Discuss all the things that are wrong with them that they need to fix.

Use technical jargon, such as compensation, impairment, and dysfunction.

Use common language and create an environment free from judgement.

Focus the conversation on things that the client feels negatively about.

A

Use common language and create an environment free from judgement.

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40
Q

Which of the following common scenarios is responsible for creating LPHC postural imbalances in a large portion of the greater population?

Occupational stress

Extended periods of sitting

Hypertension

Inadequate sleep

A

Extended periods of sitting

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41
Q

Which assessment tool should be used first to qualify a new client for an increase in physical activity?

Biometrics

Lifestyle questions

Hydration status

PAR-Q

A

PAR-Q

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42
Q

True or False? One of the best predictors for the occurrence of future injuries is having been injured in the past.

True

False

A

True

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43
Q

Which of the following actions are outside the scope of practice for an individual who only has Certified Personal Trainer and Corrective Exercise Specialist credentials?

Select all that apply.

Manual therapy

Exercise prescription

Motivational coaching

Goal setting

Dietary counseling

A

Manual therapy

Dietary counseling

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44
Q

True or False? Corrective exercise is intended to help clients directly manage issues of acute pain and injury rehabilitation.

True

False

A

False

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45
Q

What is the most accurate purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

It is used to help determine a person’s musculoskeletal structural alignment during a series of movement patterns.

It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity.

It is used to help determine deficits in joint range of motion and to refine observations made in previous assessments.

It is used to help determine if a person exhibits any compensation in posture while standing still.

A

It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity.

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46
Q

“Do you have any stressors in your personal life?” is an example of a question assessing this client aspect?

Recreation

Lifestyle

Hobbies

Occupation

A

Lifestyle

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47
Q

Which statement most accurately describes the potential impact a previous low-back injury could have on a client?

Improved lumbar mobility

Reduced proprioception

Herniated disk

No direct impact

A

Reduced proprioception

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48
Q

Which items should be considered when assessing the lifestyle of a client?

Recreation or hobbies

Medical history and past surgeries

Pattern overload and repetitive movements

Occupation and stress

A

Recreation or hobbies

49
Q

In which component of a client intake screen would the question, “Do you feel like your work day is mentally stressful?” be most appropriate to ask?

Lifestyle

Occupation

Biometrics

Medical history

A

Occupation

50
Q

Which statement most accurately defines the use of terminology such as compensation, impairment, and dysfunction when communicating with a client?

The terms should be used openly.

Should be used only outside of the gym.

The terms should be avoided.

The terms should be used during goal setting.

A

The terms should be avoided.

51
Q

A client states he has a sharp pain in his right knee when he is completing his exercises. What should the Corrective Exercise Specialist do to ensure the client’s safety?

Suggest supplements for the client to take for these issues.

Refer them to a qualified medical professional.

Modify activity for the day and continue as normal for the next session.

Continue the session as normal.

A

Refer them to a qualified medical professional.

52
Q

It is recommended that adults sleep how many hours a night?

8 to 10 hours

8 to 9 hours

6 to 8 hours

10 to 11 hours

A

8 to 9 hours

53
Q

Which of the following is a sign or symptom that would immediately require a fitness professional to stop activity and refer a client to the appropriate medical professional?

A hunched over posture

Difficulty performing a deep squat

A painful, swollen joint

Chronic knee instability

A

A painful, swollen joint

54
Q

A client answered YES to the medical history question, “Has your doctor ever said you have a heart condition or high blood pressure?” How should the fitness professional react to stay within a Corrective Exercise Specialist’s scope of practice?

Make recommendations about how the client can reduce stress in their life.

Make nutrition recommendations to help lower their blood pressure.

Require the client to get clearance from their doctor before beginning an exercise program.

Begin the client’s movement assessment process.

A

Require the client to get clearance from their doctor before beginning an exercise program.

55
Q

What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies “red flags” that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments?

Mobility Assessment

Client Intake Screen

Static Posture Assessment

Overhead Squat Assessment

A

Client Intake Screen

56
Q

Which of the following mental health topics is likely within a fitness professional’s scope of practice to discuss with a client?

Occupational stress

Confused thinking

Substance abuse

Excessive worrying

A

Occupational stress

57
Q

What component of the initial session is essential for developing a long-lasting relationship with clients?

Biometrics

Goal setting

PAR-Q+

Rapport building

A

Rapport building

58
Q

This region of the body is most likely impacted by sitting most of the day?

Knee

Ankle

LPHC

Shoulder

A

LPHC

59
Q

While conducting a client intake screen, Sherry noticed that her client has reported feeling sad, low energy, and irritable and has had a significant change in her nutrition habits. What is the most appropriate action for Sherry to take next?

Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional.

Make recommendations as to how to improve her mental health.

Write a detailed nutrition plan for Sherry.

Recommend medications and supplements to help Sherry feel better.

A

Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional.

60
Q

What three words are often known to fitness professionals but may not be the best to use with clients when communicating regarding the corrective exercise process?

Function, mobility, and comfort

Rapport, empathy, and understanding

Assessment, movement, and mobility

Compensation, impairment, and dysfunction

A

Compensation, impairment, and dysfunction

61
Q

“Do you feel energized throughout the day and prior to activities?” is a question that would be found in what section of the client intake screen?

PAR-Q+

Lifestyle

Occupation

Medical history

A

Lifestyle

62
Q

A new client says they work as a computer programmer. What is the primary consideration in designing their corrective exercise program?

Inadequate sleep at night

Increased risk of reinjury

High blood pressure

Extended periods of sitting

A

Extended periods of sitting

63
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately provides an example of a SMART goal?

To increase 5k run time by 5 minutes, in 10 weeks, by training distance running and sprints 4 days per week.

To win a race at the end of the year by working as much as possible with a fitness professional.

To increase marathon run time by 1 hour in 3 weeks by running on the treadmill 2 days per week.

To increase 10k run time by 10 minutes by running every day on a treadmill.

A

To increase 5k run time by 5 minutes, in 10 weeks, by training distance running and sprints 4 days per week.

64
Q

Why is wearing high heels daily a consideration for potential postural dysfunction?

It signifies the potential for hypertension.

It leads to high levels of occupational stress.

It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion.

It reduces sleep quality and quantity.

A

It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion.

65
Q

Which of the following statements describes the easiest method to assess one’s hydration status?

Calculate daily calories

Observe urine color

Get medically tested

Measure the sweat rate

A

Observe urine color

66
Q

During which part of the initial session would a fitness professional discuss a client’s desire to win a 10km race next spring?

Goal setting

Static Posture Assessment

Client Intake Screen

PAR-Q+

A

Goal setting

67
Q

What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle?

Adhesion, dysfunction, and surgery

Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions

Synergistic dominance and movement impairments

Muscle spasms, compensation, and injury

A

Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions

68
Q

What is the long-term impact that repeated heavy lifting can have on the kinetic chain?

Synergistic dominance

Shoulder impingement

Overpronation of the feet

Breathing Pattern Dysfunction

A

Synergistic dominance

69
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of poor hydration levels on performance and movement?

It makes high-intensity activities easier to perform.

It causes a decrease in performance and overall health.

Electrolytes work better when the body is slightly dehydrated.

Poor hydration will make movements rapid and twitchy.

A

It causes a decrease in performance and overall health.

70
Q

Knee injuries can cause a decrease in neural control to muscles that stabilize which two joints?

Sacroiliac and acetabulofemoral

Talocrural and subtalar

Glenohumeral and radioulnar

Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral

A

Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral

71
Q

Which of the following muscles are commonly overactive/shortened for many people?

Select all that apply.

Pectoralis minor

Lower trapezius

Latissimus dorsi

Psoas

Gastrocnemius

Gluteus maximus

A

Pectoralis minor

Latissimus dorsi

Psoas

Gastrocnemius

72
Q

What checkpoints should a Corrective Exercise Specialist focus on observing during a static postural assessment?

Select all that apply.

Foot and ankle

Ankles and shins

Knee

Lower back

LPHC

Shoulders and thoracic spine

Head and cervical spine

A

Foot and ankle

Knee

LPHC

Shoulders and thoracic spine

Head and cervical spine

73
Q

True or False? To get the most optimal observations of a client’s static posture, it is best that they keep their athletic shoes on.

True

False

A

False

74
Q

Which of Kendall’s posture types is characterized by excessive thoracic kyphosis and a posterior pelvic tilt that causes reduced lumbar lordosis?

Lordotic posture

Flat-back posture

Sway-back posture

Kyphosis-lordosis posture

A

Sway-back posture

75
Q

Which common postural distortion pattern is characterized by a combination of flat feet, knee valgus, and an anterior pelvic tilt?

Kyphosis-lordisis posture

Upper Crossed Syndrome

Flat-back posture

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome

A

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome

76
Q

What are common overactive/shortened muscles in the upper body?

Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, gluteus maximus, and gluteus medius

Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior, and deep cervical neck flexors

Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula

Quadratus lumborum, piriformis, psoas, and soleus

A

Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula

77
Q

Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall?

Upper Crossed Syndrome, Lower Crossed Syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis

Kyphosis-lordosis, Layered Crossed Syndrome, and text neck

Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis

Sway-back, lordotic, and Upper Crossed Syndrome

A

Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis

78
Q

The Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body?

Posterior tilted pelvis, decreased lumbar lordosis, extended knees, and dorsiflexed ankles

Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees

Decreased lumbar lordosis, extended hips, extended knees, and dorsiflexed ankles

Lateral thoracic shift, decreased lumbar lordosis, posterior pelvic tilt, and extended knees

A

Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees

79
Q

Which issue can occur following an acute injury that leads to altered posture and movement patterns?

Chronic muscle imbalances

Corrective exercises become painful to perform

Decreased total body strength

Overlengthened tendons and ligaments

A

Chronic muscle imbalances

80
Q

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome?

Gluteus maximus, hamstrings, abdominals, internal obliques, and vastus lateralis

Abdominals, internal obliques, gluteus minimus and maximus, and tensor fascia lata

Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus

Hamstrings, gluteus maximus, medius, abdominals, and external obliques

A

Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus

81
Q

The Kendall sway-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the upper body?

Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis

Neutral head, extended lumbar spine, and lateral thoracic shift

Neutral head, neutral cervical spine, and flat thoracic spine

Tilted head, flexed cervical spine, and flat upper thoracic spine

A

Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis

82
Q

Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture?

Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals

Middle trapezius, biceps, forearm flexors, and lower trapezius

Rhomboids, scalenes, biceps, and triceps

Middle trapezius, rhomboids, deltoids, and biceps

A

Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals

83
Q

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture?

Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors

Gluteus maximus, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis

Gluteus medius, adductors, and quadriceps

Lumbar extensors, hip flexors, quads, and adductors

A

Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors

84
Q

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture?

Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors

Quadriceps, hamstrings, and gluteus maximus

Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors

Hip extensors, tibialis posterior, and gluteus minimus

A

Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors

85
Q

Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture?

Middle trapezius, rhomboids, deltoids, and biceps

Middle trapezius, biceps, forearm flexors, and lower trapezius

Rhomboids, scalenes, biceps, and triceps

Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae

A

Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae

86
Q

Which of the following are considered transitional movement assessments?

Select all that apply.

Overhead squat

Single-leg squat

Davies test

Depth jump

A

Overhead squat

Single-leg squat

87
Q

What is the primary intention behind learning how to perform loaded movement assessments?

To use them with all clients during all assessment sessions.

To see how the body performs the primary movement patterns with additional resistance.

To assess a client’s maximal strength and athletic performance.

To observe a client’s dynamic posture in a real-world scenario.

A

To see how the body performs the primary movement patterns with additional resistance.

88
Q

How deep should a client be instructed to squat to during the Overhead Squat Assessment?

Femur parallel to the ground

As deep as is possible

Quarter squat depth

Olympic deep-catch position

A

Femur parallel to the ground

89
Q

Which movement impairments should the Corrective Exercise Specialist look for when observing a loaded squat from the anterior viewpoint?

Select all that apply.

Feet turn out

Knee valgus or varus

Heel rise

Asymmetric weight shift

A

Feet turn out

Knee valgus or varus

Asymmetric weight shift

90
Q

Which movement impairments are best observed using the loaded push and pull assessments?

Select all that apply.

Knee valgus

Arms fall forward

Scapular elevation

Excessive cervical extension

A

Scapular elevation

Excessive cervical extension

91
Q

Which loaded primary movement pattern exercise is best to use to see if a client has the arms fall forward movement compensation?

Goblet squat

Standing overhead dumbbell press

Cable chest press

Standing tubing row

A

Standing overhead dumbbell press

92
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the depth jump assessment?

Select all that apply.

Use it with advanced clients as a progression to the OHSA.

Observe the assessment from the posterior viewpoint.

Focus on the jump more than the landing.

It is a predictor of repeat ACL injuries in clients who exhibit knee valgus.

Do not perform it until transitional assessments are relatively impairment-free.

A

Use it with advanced clients as a progression to the OHSA.

It is a predictor of repeat ACL injuries in clients who exhibit knee valgus.

Do not perform it until transitional assessments are relatively impairment-free.

93
Q

Which movement impairment is characterized by an upright trunk and more knee flexion excursion than hip flexion excursion?

Knee valgus

Knee varus

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

Knee dominance

A

Knee dominance

94
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test?

Pectoralis minor

Serratus anterior

Lower trapezius

Infraspinatus

A

Pectoralis minor

95
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to knee dominance during the split squat assessment?

Gluteus maximus

Gluteus medius

Quadriceps complex

Adductor complex

A

Gluteus maximus

96
Q

Which of the following movement assessments would assess plyometric capabilities of the upper extremities?

Overhead squat

Depth jump

Davies test

Single-leg squat

A

Davies test

97
Q

Which view allows for the optimal assessment of frontal plane movements (adduction and abduction)?

Posterior

Lateral

Anterior

Top

A

Anterior

98
Q

Which movement assessment mimics movements associated with a walking and running gait and would be considered a regression from the single-leg squat assessment?

Split squat

Davies test

Depth jump

Overhead squat

A

Split squat

99
Q

Which category of movement assessments includes the Davies test?

Transitional

Loaded

Dynamic

Static

A

Dynamic

100
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

Lower trapezius

Serratus anterior

Infraspinatus

Latissimus dorsi

A

Latissimus dorsi

101
Q

Which movement assessment utilizes dumbbells to assess a vertical pushing movement?

Standing push assessment

Davies test

Standing overhead press

Standing pull assessment

A

Standing overhead press

102
Q

What compensatory movements create an excessive anterior pelvic tilt?

An upright trunk and knees in front of toes.

The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.

The hip shifting toward one side or the other.

The knees bowing inward.

A

The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.

103
Q

For which movement impairment would one see the knees bow outward?

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

Knee valgus

Knee dominance

Knee varus

A

Knee varus

104
Q

Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual’s balance?

Davies test

Standing overhead dumbbell press

Overhead squat

Single-leg squat

A

Single-leg squat

105
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to a heel rise during the overhead squat assessment?

Gluteus maximus

Fibularis (peroneal) complex

Anterior tibialis

Quadriceps complex

A

Quadriceps complex

106
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

Cervical extensors

Upper trapezius

Latissimus dorsi

Lower trapezius

A

Lower trapezius

107
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test?

Cervical extensors

Latissimus dorsi

Pectoralis minor

Serratus anterior

A

Serratus anterior

108
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement?

Infraspinatus

Latissimus dorsi

Upper trapezius

Lower trapezius

A

Upper trapezius

109
Q

Which category of movement assessments includes gait assessments?

Transitional

Loaded

Dynamic

Static

A

Dynamic

110
Q

What dysfunctional movement is observed during scapular elevation?

The shoulders moving upward toward the ears.

The trunk leaning forward.

The scapula protruding excessively from the back.

The arms falling forward.

A

The shoulders moving upward toward the ears.

111
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to excessive pronation during the overhead squat assessment?

Peroneals complex

Hamstrings complex

TFL

Posterior tibialis

A

Posterior tibialis

112
Q

For which movement impairment would one see the arch of the foot collapse or malalignment of the Achilles tendon?

Excessive pronation

Heel raise

Asymmetrical weight shift

Feet turn out

A

Excessive pronation

113
Q

What compensatory movements create an excessive posterior pelvic tilt?

The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion.

The knees bowing outward.

The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.

An upright trunk and knees in front of toes.

A

The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion.

114
Q

Which category of movement assessments includes the split squat?

Loaded

Transitional

Dynamic

Static

A

Transitional

115
Q

What type of muscle contractions are common during the jumping phase of the depth jump?

Concentric

Isokinetic

Isometric

Eccentric

A

Concentric

116
Q

Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first?

Loaded

Transitional

Dynamic

Static

A

Transitional

117
Q

Which category of movement assessments includes the overhead squat?

Dynamic

Transitional

Static

Loaded

A

Transitional

118
Q
A

Corrective Exercise Specialist (3 decks)

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