Chapter 10, 17-18 Flashcards

1
Q

True or False? Passive motion during a mobility assessment means that the client should move the joint into position with a voluntary muscle contraction.

True

False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True of False? Mobility represents the combination of available joint range of motion and the body’s neuromuscular control of that motion.

True

False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False? Mobility assessments are used to pinpoint whether a movement impairment is due to a flexibility deficit (overactive/shortened) or a lack of neuromuscular activation (underactive/lengthened).

True

False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which joint motion is considered to have normal mobility when the client is able to touch the wall by forward bending the knee during the weight bearing lunge test?

Plantarflexion

Knee extension

Dorsiflexion

Knee flexion

A

Dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which mobility assessment functions to assess a client’s hip extension, hip adduction, and knee flexion ROM all at the same time?

Modified Thomas Test

Duncan Ely Test

Lat length test

Active knee extension test

A

Modified Thomas Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should the client do with the non-testing leg during the modified Thomas test?

The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.

The client holds the knee so the hip and knee are flexed to 120 degrees.

The client holds their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal extension.

The client holds the knee so the hip and knee are at 90 degrees.

A

The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which position should a client be in to perform the cervical flexion and extension test?

Prone

Seated

Side lying

Supine

A

Seated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is considered normal mobility in the cervical side bending test?

The head can tilt to a 45-degree angle.

The head can tilt to a 25-degree angle.

The head should remain neutral.

The head can tilt to a 90-degree angle.

A

The head can tilt to a 45-degree angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the recommended verbal instruction when performing the cervical rotation test?

“Look over your shoulder and use your hands to apply pressure.”

“Look over shoulder 90 degrees to each side.”

“Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can.”

“Look over shoulder until the ear is in line with the tip of the shoulder.”

A

“Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are two muscles that may be overactive/shortened if a client demonstrates restricted shoulder flexion?

Lower trapezius and anterior deltoid

Biceps brachii and scalenes

Upper trapezius and middle deltoid

Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major

A

Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is defined as the inability to move a joint through what should be its full range of motion?

Movement impairment

Mobility restriction

Relative flexibility

Synergistic dominance

A

Mobility restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which term best describes the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow for the full range of motion of a joint?

Flexibility

Mobility

Elasticity

Contractility

A

Flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the head position for the seated thoracic rotation test?

Neutral with nose in line with sternum

The position of the head is irrelevant

Nose pointed toward the sky

Neutral with the head contralaterally rotated

A

Neutral with nose in line with sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates hip abduction during the modified Thomas test?

Piriformis

TFL

Rectus femoris

Psoas

A

TFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which best describes the testing leg starting position during the active knee extension test?

Hip fully extended with knee straight

Neutral hip with knee bent to 90 degrees

Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees

Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee straight or at 0 degrees

A

Hip flexed to 90 degrees with knee bent to 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee extension during the modified Thomas test?

Biceps femoris

TFL

Rectus femoris

Psoas

A

Rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is necessary to ensure reliability of mobility testing?

Performing each test in the same area as the club

Performing each test quickly with each client

Performing all mobility tests the fitness professional can think of

Performing each test in a consistent manner with each client

A

Performing each test in a consistent manner with each client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why might a fitness professional choose to use ankle mobility screening on a client?

If the client explains they have a history of calf tightness

If the client demonstrates the arms falling forward

If the client demonstrates feet turning out that was corrected by the heels elevated modification

If the client demonstrates excessive forward lean that was not corrected by the heels elevated modification

A

If the client demonstrates feet turning out that was corrected by the heels elevated modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test?

Standing with knees straight and feet shoulder-width apart

Lying prone on the table with legs together

Standing with knees straight and feet in a comfortable position

Lying supine on a table

A

Lying prone on the table with legs together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When screening the lumbo-pelvic hip complex, which tests should the fitness professional begin with?

Lumbar flexion and extension

Active knee flexion test

Thoracic extension test

Modified Thomas test

A

Lumbar flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which term best describes the entire available motion at a joint as well as the body’s neuromuscular control during motion?

Flexibility

Mobility

Extensibility

Pliability

A

Mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is considered normal mobility during the 1st MTP extension test?

The great toe is in line with or above the talocrural joint.

The great toe is in line with other toes.

The great toe is parallel to the tibia.

The great toe is able to extend above the other toes.

A

The great toe is able to extend above the other toes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is considered normal mobility during the seated hip internal and external rotation test?

90 degrees

45 degrees

20 degrees

180 degrees

A

45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is indicated as being overactive/shortened if restriction in 1st MTP extension is identified?

Anterior tibialis

Flexor digitorum longus

Flexor hallucis longus

Posterior tibialis

A

Flexor hallucis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What position is recommended for the fingers and hands during the thoracic extension test?

Crossed over the chest

Crossed in front of chest holding a dowel rod

Arms down by the sides

Interlocked and outstretched in front of the chest

A

Crossed over the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is considered normal mobility during the elbow flexion test?

The hand almost touches the front of the contralateral shoulder.

The palm of the hand almost touches the front of the shoulder without compensation.

The hand and forearm are completely straightened.

The fingers press against the ipsilateral shoulder.

A

The palm of the hand almost touches the front of the shoulder without compensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is a client considered to have normal ankle dorsiflexion mobility?

When they keep their ankles in chronic plantarflexion

When the rear leg fully extends during the weight-bearing lunge test

When the knee stays behind the toe during the weight-bearing lunge test

When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test

A

When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What position should the shoulder be in when performing the shoulder internal and external rotation test?

Adducted and bent to 90 degrees

Abducted and fully extended

Adducted and fully extended

Abducted and bent to 90 degrees

A

Abducted and bent to 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What additional region of the body should undergo mobility testing if a client’s arms fall forward during the overhead squat assessment?

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

Foot and ankle

Elbow and wrist

Knee

A

Elbow and wrist

30
Q

What should the client do with the non-testing leg during the modified Thomas test?

The client holds the knee so the hip and knee are at 90 degrees.

The client holds the knee so the hip and knee are flexed to 120 degrees.

The client holds their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal extension.

The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.

A

The client holds the knee to their chest, putting the non-test hip in maximal flexion.

31
Q

The extensibility of which three muscles are assessed during the modified Thomas test?

Sartorius, adductor brevis, and rectus abdominis

Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, and gluteus minimus

Psoas, TFL, and rectus femoris

External oblique, internal oblique, and TVA

A

Psoas, TFL, and rectus femoris

32
Q

What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test?

Elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso

Elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and shoulders fully extended

Elbows extended and shoulders fully extended

Elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and arms in line with the torso

A

Elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso

33
Q

Which best describes the recommended knee position during the lumbar flexion test?

Knees slightly flexed

Knees in a comfortable position

Knees completely flexed

Knees straight

A

Knees straight

34
Q

What position is recommended for the testing leg during the hip abduction and external rotation test?

Hip and knee bent to 0 degrees

Hip and knee bent to 90 degrees

Hip and knee bent to 45 degrees

Hip and knee bent to 120 degrees

A

Hip and knee bent to 90 degrees

35
Q

What is the purpose of holding a ball (or other object) between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test?

To lock the hips into place

To guide the path of rotation

To provide a focal point for the client

To keep the feet apart

A

To lock the hips into place

36
Q

Which of the following practices are part of the regenerate component of an optimal recovery strategy?

Eating a healthy diet.

Staying hydrated.

Correcting muscle imbalances.

Getting adequate sleep.

A

Correcting muscle imbalances.

37
Q

How much psychological relaxation should individuals look to achieve?

At least 10 minutes per day.

At least 1 hour per week.

At least 60 minutes per day.

At least 2 hours per week.

A

At least 60 minutes per day.

38
Q

Which of the following are recovery tools that fitness professionals can use with clients following a workout?

Select all that apply.

Percussion instruments

Foam rollers

Ice packs

Compression boots

Electric stimulation

A

Percussion instruments

Foam rollers

Compression boots

39
Q

True or False? Restorative sleep, when done correctly, is sufficient for replenishing energy stores depleted from training.

True

False

A

True

40
Q

Which of the following best defines the concept of regeneration within the recovery strategy framework?

Regeneration is the processes of post-training nutrition to recover from repetitive exercise.

Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.

Regeneration of the process of pre-training hydration and rest to maintain optimal recovery from strenuous exercise.

Regeneration is the cumulative amount of sleep needed to maintain optimal energy levels.

A

Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.

41
Q

A client shows her fitness professional a sports drink with a particularly high carbohydrate content and asks about the optimal amount of carbohydrates these drinks should have. What advice should be recommended?

Sports drinks should contain 15% to 30% carbohydrate solution.

Sports drinks should contain 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution.

Sports drinks should contain 35% to 50% carbohydrate solution.

Sports drinks should contain 50 to 65% carbohydrate solution.

A

Sports drinks should contain 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution.

42
Q

As long as less than 3% of body weight is expected to be lost during exercise or competition due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow?

Drink 500 ml (17 oz) of water every 15 minutes.

Consume as many sports drinks as is possible without upsetting the stomach.

Drink a glass of water for every pound of body weight lost due to sweating.

Drink fluids as desired.

A

Drink fluids as desired.

43
Q

Compression boots should not be used during which part of the client’s workout session?

They are not to be used at all.

20 minutes after the workout.

Before the workout.

30 minutes after the workout.

A

Before the workout.

44
Q

What is the optimal timing and composition of a pre-exercise snack for endurance athletes?

A snack with high carbohydrates, moderate protein, and low fat and fiber, 30 minutes to 1 hour before exercise.

A snack low in carbohydrates, low in protein, high in fat, and fiber, 10 minutes to 1 hour before exercise.

A snack high in fat and fiber, low in carbohydrates, low in protein, 2 to 4 hours before exercise.

A snack low in carbohydrates, high in protein, high in fat and fiber, 15 minutes to 20 minutes before exercise.

A

A snack with high carbohydrates, moderate protein, and low fat and fiber, 30 minutes to 1 hour before exercise.

45
Q

What type of responsibilities might a client have that could reduce adherence to their long-term exercise and recovery program?

Free time with no scheduled events.

Affiliation to a specific political party.

Unexpected family and social obligations.

Attending religious services on Sunday.

A

Unexpected family and social obligations.

46
Q

What three methods can be used to deliver optimal movement strategies to different types of clients?

Movement based testing, clinical gait analysis, and sports performance testing.

Formal assessment sessions, a “feels right” strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.

Informal subjective assessments, explaining “incorrect movement”, and using random online exercise routines.

Performance testing, maximal strength testing, and core strengthening programs.

A

Formal assessment sessions, a “feels right” strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.

47
Q

What are two examples of pre-exercise high-quality carbohydrates and lean proteins for strength and endurance athletes?

Carbohydrates: honey, dried fruit; Proteins: pork sausage, beef jerky

Carbohydrates: organic pancakes, low fiber cereal; Proteins: turkey, eggs

Carbohydrates: fruit juice, sweetened fruit yogurt; Proteins: roast beef, pork bacon

Carbohydrates: energy bar, high-fructose juice; Proteins: steak, roast beef

A

Carbohydrates: organic pancakes, low fiber cereal; Proteins: turkey, eggs

48
Q

Which of the following is the best definition for the term recovery?

A post-exercise process where the body and brain require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training or competition.

A post-exercise process where the brain requires additional glucose to regenerate in order to prepare for same-day competition.

A pre-exercise process where the body requires an adequate warm-up and energy drink in order to prepare for upcoming training or competition.

A between-exercise process where the body and brain require adequate rest in order to prepare for next day of training or competition.

A

A post-exercise process where the body and brain require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training or competition.

49
Q

What is the recommended time to have a pre-exercise snack and pre-exercise meal, respectively, before strength training exercise begins?

30 minutes to 2 hours; 2 to 4 hours

10 to 20 minutes; 3 to 6 hours

25 to 40 minutes; 1 to 4 hours

1 to 2 hours; 15 to 30 minutes

A

30 minutes to 2 hours; 2 to 4 hours

50
Q

What is the recommended composition and timing for a post-exercise meal for the endurance athlete?

Quality high-fat food and low carbohydrates, 3 hours after exercise.

Quality high fat proteins and fiber, 1 hour after exercise.

Quality fruits and vegetables, 30 minutes after exercise.

Quality carbohydrates and lean protein, 2 hours after exercise.

A

Quality carbohydrates and lean protein, 2 hours after exercise.

51
Q

How many grams of lean protein are recommended for a pre-exercise meal for strength training athletes?

70 to 100 grams

40 to 60 grams

5 to 10 grams

20 to 30 grams

A

20 to 30 grams

52
Q

If a client needs a corrective exercise program, what is the first step in educating them?

Explain to the client that they may need to purchase more sessions.

Explain the assessment process.

Explain to the client that they may have to take specific supplements.

Explain that they may experience a high amount of soreness.

A

Explain the assessment process.

53
Q

What strategy can a fitness professional use to improve client self-care adherence?

Have the client schedule more sessions each week.

Instruct the client to also see a Licensed Massage Therapist.

Scold the client for not exercising on their own time.

Give the client homework related to their fitness program.

A

Give the client homework related to their fitness program.

54
Q

What are the six dimensions of wellness as defined by the National Wellness Institute?

Muscle strength, rest, flexibility, sleep, cardiovascular, and joint mobility

Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional

Muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility, joint mobility, cardiovascular, and speed

Rest, recovery, refuel, sleep, psychological relaxation, and regeneration

A

Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional

55
Q

A client, who is an endurance athlete, asks what a good pre-exercise meal should be and how long before exercise he should consume it. What is the best general advice to give him?

A meal low in carbs, low in protein, but high in fiber and fat, 6 to 8 hours before exercise.

A meal composed of low carbohydrates, high in protein, and high fiber, 1 to 2 hours before exercise.

A meal high in carbohydrates, low in protein, but high in fat, 3 to 6 hours before exercise.

A meal composed of high-quality carbohydrates, lean protein, and low fiber and fat, 3 to 4 hours before exercise.

A

A meal composed of high-quality carbohydrates, lean protein, and low fiber and fat, 3 to 4 hours before exercise.

56
Q

Which of the following represent the correct steps, in the correct order, for the recovery planning process?

Perform the Overhead Squat Assessment, perform performance testing, and design an exercise plan.

Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan.

Uncover medical history, perform physiological assessments, and perform movement testing.

Consult a medical doctor for clearance, complete the Par-Q+, and perform fitness assessments.

A

Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan.

57
Q

A client has a high-stress corporate job and always complains about how stressed and tired he gets at work. What cognitive manipulation tool could be recommended to help him deal with the high stress?

Participate in 1 hour of Yoga or mindful meditation a day.

Try and get at least 1 hour of high-intensity exercise in each day.

Taking a power nap in a sleep pod or somewhere quiet.

Try and get 8 hours of sleep a night.

A

Taking a power nap in a sleep pod or somewhere quiet.

58
Q

What can a fitness professional use to help understand a client’s recovery habits?

Results from their fitness assessment

Report from their medical doctor

Report from their psychologist

A recovery questionnaire

A

A recovery questionnaire

59
Q

Research has shown that resistance training stimulates synthesis of which macronutrient substrate to repair and build muscle?

Alcohol

Protein

Fats

Carbohydrate

A

Protein

60
Q

For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be?

45 degrees F/7 degrees C

60 degrees F/16 degrees C

72 degrees F/22 degree C

95 degrees F/35 degrees C

A

72 degrees F/22 degree C

61
Q

What are two modern advancements in recovery technology that have become popular among both individuals and professionals?

Sensory deprivation chambers and wearable activity trackers

Smart beds and electrical heating pads

Online support groups and online journal writing

The Keto diet and group stretching classes

A

Sensory deprivation chambers and wearable activity trackers

62
Q

What three factors optimally influence an individual’s success with muscle hypertrophy and strength improvements?

Blood glucose levels, a proper cardiovascular program, and proper recovery

Hormone levels, a properly designed resistance training program, and consumption of the right food

Adequate sleep, low stress, and mindful meditation

Blood iron levels, proper recovery, and hydration

A

Hormone levels, a properly designed resistance training program, and consumption of the right food

63
Q

What is an effective tool to help understand a client’s willingness to create behavior change in their workout routine?

The Transtheoretical Model of Change

Perform an accurate fitness assessment.

Consult the client’s doctor for more information.

Review the SMART goals monthly.

A

The Transtheoretical Model of Change

64
Q

What is the minimum amount of recommended sleep adults should get each night for optimal recovery?

8 hours

4 hours

2 hours

12 hours

A

8 hours

65
Q

In order to satisfy hydration needs, most average exercisers should consume which amount of water before bed and within 1 hour prior to exercise?

1200 mL (40.6 oz)

500 mL (16.9 oz)

1000 mL (33.8 oz)

200 mL (6.8 oz)

A

500 mL (16.9 oz)

66
Q

What are the current recommendations for overall rest that include daily sleep, limited stress, and physical and psychological relaxation?

Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 4 hours of sleep, 30 minutes of psychological relaxation, and experience moderate stress levels.

Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 8 hours of sleep, 60 minutes of psychological relaxation, and minimize stress each day.

Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 10 hours of sleep, 1 hour of exercise, and 2 hours of psychological relaxation.

Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 2 hours of exercise, 4 hours of psychological relaxation, and avoid any stressful situation.

A

Individuals should try to achieve a minimum of 8 hours of sleep, 60 minutes of psychological relaxation, and minimize stress each day.

67
Q

Research has shown a correlation between which two specific sleep variables that result in optimizing next-day performance?

The duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release.

The brand of bed and pillow the client owns.

Using a weighted blanket and black out drapes.

The specific foods and drinks that should be consumed at dinner time.

A

The duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release.

68
Q

What are the two principles within the refuel recovery strategy?

Adequate muscle strength and cardiovascular endurance

Proper hydration and nutrition

Proper flexibility and muscle endurance

Proper balance and muscle strength

A

Proper hydration and nutrition

69
Q

A client has been training with a fitness professional and independently consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most probably be in?

Maintenance

Termination

Contemplation

Preparation

A

Maintenance

70
Q
A