Chapter 42 - Ortho Flashcards

1
Q

Function of osteoblasts?

A

Synthesize nonmineralized bone cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Function of osteoclasts?

A

Reabsorb bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the stages of bone healing?

A

Inflammation, soft callus formation, mineralization of the callus, removal of the callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does cartilage receive nutrients from?

A

Synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is shared by Salter-Harris fractures type II, IV, V? Treatment?

A

Cross the epiphyseal plate and can affect the growth plate of the bone
ORIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for Salter-Harris type I and II?

A

Closed reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the fractures associated with AVN?

A

Scaphoid, femoral neck, talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are fractures associated with nonunion?

A

Clavicle, 5th metatarsal fracture (Jones’ fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the fractures associated with compartment syndrome?

A

Supracondylar humerus and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for nonunion?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Obturator nerve does what?

A

Hip adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Superior gluteal nerve does what?

A

Hip abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Inferior gluteal nerve does what?

A

Hip extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Femoral nerve does what?

A

Knee extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What herniates with lumbar disc herniation?

A

Nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the result of L3 nerve compression?

A

Weak hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the result of L4 nerve compression?

A

Weak knee extension; weak patellar reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the result of L5 nerve compression?

A

Weak dorsiflexion (foot drop), dec. sensation in big toe web space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the result of S1 nerve compression?

A

Weak plantar flexion, weak Achilles reflex; decreased sensation in lateral foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Motor innervation from ulnar nerve? Sensory? Result of injury?

A

Motor: intrinsic musculature of hand, finger abduction, wrist flexion
Sensory: all of 5th and 1/2 of 4th fingers, back of hand
Injury: Claw hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Motor innervation from median nerve? Sensory? Result of injury?

A

Motor: Thumb apposition, thumb abduction, finger flexors
Sensory: most of palm and 1st 3 1/2 fingers on palmar side
Injury: carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Motor innervation from radial nerve? Sensory?

A

Wrist extension, finger extension, thumb extension, triceps (no hand muscles)
Sensory: 1st 3 1/2 fingers on dorsal side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Motor innervation from musculocutaneous nerve?

A

Biceps, brachialis, coracobrachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Motor innervation from axillary nerve?

A

Deltoid (abduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
C1-4 nerve compression causes what?
Neck and scalp pain
26
C5 nerve compression causes what?
Weak deltoid and biceps (weak bicep reflex)
27
C6 nerve compression causes what?
Weak deltoid and biceps, weak wrist extensors (weak biceps and brachioradialis reflex)
28
C7 nerve compression causes what?
Weak triceps
29
C8 nerve compression causes what?
Weak triceps, weak intrinsic muscles of hand and wrist flexion
30
Treatment of cervical fracture?
Sling | Risk of vascular impingement
31
What structure injury is associated with anterior shoulder dislocation? Posterior? Treatment?
Anterior: axillary nerve injury Posterior (seizures, electrocution): axillary artery injury Closed reduction for both
32
Treatment of acromioclavicular separation? Risk of injury to what?
Sling | Brachial plexus and subclavian vessel injury
33
Treatment for scapular fracture?
Sling unless glenoid fossa involvement, then need internal fixation
34
Treatment for midshaft humeral fracture?
Sling
35
Treatment for supracondylar humeral fracture?
Adults: internal fixation Children: closed reduction, internal fixation if severe
36
What is Monteggia fracture? Treatment?
Proximal ulnar fracture and radial head dislocation | ORIF
37
What is Colles fracture? Treatment?
Fall on outstretched hand, distal radius | Closed reduction
38
What is Nursemaid's elbow? Treatment?
Subluxation of the radius at the elbow caused by a pulling on an extended, pronated arm Closed reduction
39
Treatment for radial and ulnar fracture?
Adults: ORIF Children: closed reduction
40
Treatment for scaphoid fracture?
Cast to elbow, may need fixation | Risk of avascular necrosis
41
What is Volkmann's contracture?
Supracondylar humerus fracture, occluded anterior interosseous artery, closed reduction of humerus, artery opens up, reperfusion injury, edema, and forearm compartment syndrome (flexor compartment)
42
Treatment for Volkmann's contracture?
Fasciotomy
43
What is Dupuytren's contracture? Treatment?
Associated with DM, ETOH Progressive proliferation of the palmar fascia of hand resulting in contractures that usually affect the 4/5th digits NSAIDs, steroid injections, excision of involved fascia
44
What is CTS? Treatment?
Median nerve compression by transverse carpal ligament | Splint, NSAIDs, steroid injections, transverse carpal ligament release
45
What is trigger finger? Treatment?
Tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon that catches at the MCP joint when trying to extend finger Splint, tendon sheath steroid injections, release pulley system at MCP joint
46
What is suppurative tenosynovitis? 4 classic signs?
Infection that spreads along the flexor tendon sheaths | Tendon sheath tenderness, pain with passive motion, swelling along sheath, semiflexed posture of the involved digit
47
Treatment of suppurative tenosynovitis?
Elevation, splinting, abx; if no prompt improvement midaxial longitudinal incision and drainage
48
What muscles make up the rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
49
Acute treatment of rotator cuff tears?
Sling and conservative treatment; surgical repair if pts needs to retain high level of activity or if ADL affected
50
What is paronychia? Treatment?
Infection under nail bed | ABX, remove nail if purulent
51
What is a felon? Treatment?
IInfection in the terminal joint space of the finger | Incision over tip of finger and along medial and lateral aspects to prevent necrosis of tip of finger
52
Injury with posterior hip dislocation? Treatment?
Internal rotation and adduction of leg, risk of sciatic nerve injury Closed reduction
53
Injury with anterior hip dislocation? Treatment?
External rotation and abduction of leg, risk of injury to femoral artery Closed reduction
54
Treatment for femoral shaft fracture?
ORIF with intramedullary rod
55
Femoral neck fracture treatment?
ORIF with risk of avascular necrosis if open reduction delayed
56
ACL injury presentation? Treatment?
Positive anterior drawer test; knee effusion and pain with pivoting action Surgery with knee instability, otherwise PT
57
PCL injury presentation? Treatment?
Positive posterior drawer test, less common than ACL injury; knee pain, joint effusion Conservative therapy initially, surgery for failure of medical management
58
Posterior knee dislocation imaging?
All need angiogram to r/o popliteal artery injury
59
Treatment for patellar fracture?
Long leg cast unless comminuted, then need internal fixation
60
Treatment for tibial plateau fracture and tib-fib fracture?
ORIF unless open, then needs ex fix
61
Presentation of plantaris muscle rupture?
Pain and mass below popliteal fossa (contracted plantaris) and ankle ecchymosis
62
What ankle fractures need ORIF?
Bi and trimalleolar fractures
63
Treatment for metatarsal fracture?
Cast immobilization or brace for 6 weeks
64
Treatment for calcaneus fracture?
Cast and immobilization if nondisplaced; ORIF for displaced fractures
65
Never most commonly injured with lower extremity fasciotomy?
Superficial peroneal nerve (foot eversion)
66
What nerve is injured after lithotomy position or after crossing legs for long periods or fibula head fracture?
Common peroneal nerve; causes footdrop
67
Components of anterior compartment?
Anterior tibial artery, deep peroneal nerve | Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, communis
68
Components of lateral compartment?
Superficial peroneal nerve | Peroneal muscles
69
Components of deep posterior compartment?
Posterior tibial artery, peroneal artery, tibial nerve | Flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibialis
70
Components of superficial posterior compartment?
Sural nerve | Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris
71
What is the most common compartment affected by compartment syndrome?
Anterior compartment of leg (footdrop) after vascular compromise
72
What is the most common organism to cause osteomyelitis?
Staph
73
What is idiopathic adolescent scoliosis?
In prepubertal females, right thoracic curve most common, usually asymptomtic
74
Treatment for idiopathic adolescent scoliosis?
Curves >20-45 degrees: bracing to avoid progression with growth spurts Curves >45 degrees: spinal fusion
75
What is Osgood-Schlatter disease? Treatment?
Tibial tubercle apophysitis, caused by traction injury from quads in adolescents aged 13-15; pain in front of knee Mild symptoms: activity limitation Severe: cast 6 wks followed by activity limitation
76
What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
AVN of femoral head, children 2y and older | Can result from hypercoagulable state, bilateral 10%; present with painful gait limp
77
Xray findings for LCP? Treatment?
Flattening of femoral head on xray | Maintain ROM with limited exercise; femoral head will remodel without sequelae
78
What is Slipped capital femoral epiphysis? On imaging? Treatment?
Males 10-13y, increased risk of AVN of femoral head, painful gait Widening and irregularity of epiphyseal plate Surgical pinning
79
Treatment for congenital dislocation of the hip?
Pavlik harness, keeps legs abducted and femoral head reduced in acetabulum
80
Treatment for clubfoot?
Serial casting
81
What is the most common bone tumor?
Mets (#1 breast, #2 prostate)
82
Treatment for metastatic bone tumors?
Internal fixation with impending fracture followed by XRT
83
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone?
MM
84
Treatment for MM?
Chemo for systemic disease; internal fixation for impending fractures
85
What is the most common primary bone sarcoma?
Osteogenic sarcoma
86
Xray findings of Osteogenic sarcoma?
Codman's triangle (periosteal retraction)
87
Treatment for osteogenic sarcoma?
Limb-sparing resection, XRT and doxorubicin based chemo
88
Treatment of benign bone tumors?
Curettage +/- bone graft
89
Treatment for giant cell tumor of bone?
Total resection +/- XRT
90
Recurrence risk with giant cell tumor?
30%
91
What is spondylolisthesis? Treatment?
Formed by subluxation or slip of one vertebral body over another, most commonly in lumbar region Depends on degree of subluxation and symptoms, conservative treatment to surgical fusion
92
What is torus fracture?
Buckling of the metaphyseal cortex seen in children (distal radius)
93
Treatment for open fractures?
Incision and drainage, abx, fracture stabilization, soft tissue coverage