Chapter 4 - Portfolio Theory Flashcards
What does MPT stand for?
Mean-variance Portfolio Theory
What does the MPT assume about what investment decisions are based on?
MPT assumes that investment decisions are base solely up risk (variance) & return (mean).
It also assumes investors are will to accept more risk for higher expected return.
What is MPT used for?
The MPT provides an investor a method to construct a portfolio that gives the maximum return for a specific risk, or the minimum risk for a specified return i.e. the investors optimal portfolio.
What are the 7 assumptions of MPT?
- All expected returns, variances and covariances of pairs of assets are known
- Investors make their decisions purely on the basis of expected return and variance
- Investors are non-satiated
- Investors are risk-averse
- There is a fixed single-step time period
- There are no taxes or transaction costs
- Assets may be held in any amounts, ie short-selling is possible, we can have infinitely divisible holdings, and there are no maximum investment limits
Define an inefficient portfolio.
A portfolio is inefficient if the investor can find another portfolio with the same (or higher) expected return and lower variance, or the same (or lower) variance and higher expected return.
True or False: An investor for is risk averse and non-satiated would consider an inefficient portfolio
False
What are the two assumptions that allow for the definition efficient portfolios?
- Investors are never satiated. i.e. at a given level of risk they will always prefer a portfolio with higher return to a lower return.
- Investors dislike risk. For a given level of return they will always prefer a portfolio with lower variance to one with a higher variance
What do we need to be able to rank efficient portfolio?
An investors utility function - this will then determine the investors portfolio.
What is the formula to calculate the proportion of asset A & asset B which give you the minimum variance?
X_a = (V_b -C_ab)/(V_a - 2*C_ab +V_b)
When is the efficient frontier a straight line for a portfolio with 2 risky assets?
When the correlation coefficient is either 1 or -1.
When -1 we need positive holdings of both
When +1 we need negative of 1 and positive of the other
Define indifference curves.
Portfolios lying along a single curve which all give the same value of expected utility and so the investor would be indifferent between them. They slope upwards for a risk averse investor.
Why is the optimal portfolio on the efficient frontier at the point where the frontier is at a tangent to an indifference curve?
The optimal portfolio occurs at the point where the indifference curve is tangential to the efficient frontier for the following two reasons:
- The indifference curves that correspond to a higher level of expected utility are unattainable as they lie strictly above the efficient frontier.
2.Conversely, lower indifference curves that cut the efficient frontier are attainable, but correspond to a lower level of expected utility.
The highest attainable indifference curve, and corresponding highest level of expected utility, is therefore the one that is tangential to the efficient frontier.
The optimal portfolio occurs at the tangency point, which is in fact the only attainable point on this indifference curve, which is why it is optimal.
What is Lagrangian function formula?
W = Variance of portfolio - lambda(Mean of portfolio - E_p) - mu(Xa+Xb+Xc + … -1)
Where,
- E_p & 1 are the constraining constants
- lambda & mu are known as the lagrangian multipliers
What do we use lagrangians function for?
To find the proportions of assets which minimise the variance.
(This will be a function of E)
If assets are independent, what is the formula for the portfolio variance?
V_p=sum[1,n] (x_i)^2V_i + sum[i=1,n]sumj=1,n Cij
If independent C_ij=0 so we get
V_p=sum[0,n] (x_i)^2*V_i
or alternatively,
V_p= X_1^2V_1 + (X_2)^2V_2 + … + (X_n)^2*V_n