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06 - absite > Chapter 4: Immunology > Flashcards

Chapter 4: Immunology Flashcards

1
Q
  • Release IL-2 (causes maturation of cytotoxic T cells)
  • Release IL-4 (causes B-cell maturation into plasma cells)
  • Involved in delayed-type hypersensitivity
A

Helper T cells (CD4)

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2
Q

Causes maturation of cytotoxic T cells

A

IL-2

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3
Q

Causes B-cell maturation into plasma cells

A

IL-4

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4
Q

Brings in inflammatory cells by chemokine secretion

A

Delayed-type hypersensitivity

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5
Q

Regulate CD4 and CD8 cells

A

Suppressor T cells (CD8)

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6
Q

Recognize and attack non-self-antigens attached to MHC class 1 receptors (e.g. viral gene productS)

A

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8)

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7
Q

Used to test cell-mediated immunity

A

Intradermal skin test (i.e., TB skin test)

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8
Q

Infections associated with defects in cell-mediated immunity

A

Intracellular pathogens (TB, viruses)

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9
Q
  • CD8 cell activation
  • Present on all nucleated cells
  • Single chain with 5 domains
  • Target for cytotoxic T cells (binds T cell receptor)
A

MHC class 1 (A, B, C)

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10
Q
  • CD4 cell activation
  • Present on antigen-presenting cells (e.g., monocytes, dendrites)
  • 2 chains with 4 domains each
  • Activates helper T cells (binds T cell receptor)
  • Stimulates antibody formation after interaction with B cell surface IgM
A

MHC class II (DR, DP, and DQ)

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11
Q

Mechanism of immune response to viral infection

A

Endogenous viral proteins are produced, are bound to class I MHC, go to cell surface, and are recognized by CD8 cytotoxic T cells

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12
Q

Mechanism of immune response to bacterial infection

A

Endocytosis, proteins get bound to Class II MHC molecules, go to cell surface, recognized by CD4 helper T cells -> B cells which have already bound to the antigen are then activated by the CD4 helper T cells; they then produce the antibody to that antigen and are transformed to plasma cells and memory B cells.

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13
Q
  • Not restricted by MHC, do not require previous exposure, do not require antigen presentation
  • Not considered T or B cells
  • Recognize cells that lack self-MHC
  • Part of the body’s natural immunosurveillance for cancer
A

Natural Killer Cells

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14
Q

Initial antibody made after exposure to antigen. It is the largest antibody, having 5 domains (10 binding sites)

A

IgM

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15
Q

Most abundant antibody in body.
Responsible for secondary immune response.
Can cross the placenta and provide protection in newborn period.

A

IgG.

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16
Q

What type of cells do natural killer cells recognize?

A

Recognize cells that lack self-MHC

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17
Q

Two signals that cause activation of T and B cells

A
  1. Alloantigen binds to antigen specific receptors. (TCR - T cells; IgM - B cells)
  2. IL-1 release by APC.
    CD4 helper T cells release IL-2/4 which provide help for CD8 T cells and B-cell activation.
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18
Q

Endogenous antigen processing and presentation

A

Endogenous proteins are degraded into peptides that are transported to ER. Peptides bind to MHC-1 and transported to surface of APC. CD8 cells recognize complex by way of TCR complex.

19
Q

Exogenous antigen processing and presentation

A

Exogenous antigen is broken down into peptide fragments in endosomes. Class-2 molecules transport to endosome, bind the peptide, and delivered to surface of APC cell, where they are recognized by CD4+ cells.

20
Q

Found in secretions, in Peyer’s patches in gut, and in breast milk (additional source of immunity in newborn); helps prevent microbial adherence and invasion in gut.

A

IgA

21
Q

Membrane-bound receptor on B cells (serves as an antigen receptor)

A

IgD

22
Q

Allergic reactions, parasite infections

A

IgE

23
Q

Opsonins

A

IgM, IgG

24
Q

Fix complement

A

IgM, IgG (requires 2 IgGs, or 1 IgM)

25
Q

Region: antigen recognition

A

Variable region

26
Q

Region: recognized by PMNs and macrophages.

A

Constant region

27
Q

Fragment that does not carry a variable region

A

Fc fragment

28
Q

Have multiple binding sites to the antigen at multiple epitopes

A

Polyclonal antibodies

29
Q

Have only 1 binding site to 1 epitope

A

Monoclonal antibodies

30
Q

Immediate hypersensitivity reaction (allergic reaction) eosinophils have IgE receptors for the antigen and release major basic protein, which in turn activates mast cells and basophils, which release histamine, serotonin and bradykinin

A

Type 1

Ex: bee stings, peanuts, hay fever

31
Q

Hypersensitivity: IgG or IgM reacts with cell-bound antigen

A

Type 2:

Ex: ABO blood incompatibility, Graves’ disease, myasthenia gravis

32
Q

Hypersensitivity: Immune complex deposition

A

Type 3

Ex: Serum sickness, SLE

33
Q

Hypersensitivity: Delayed-type hypersensitivity - antigen stimulation of previously sensitized T cells

A

Type 4

Ex: TB sin test (PPD), contact dermatitis

34
Q

Major source of histamine in the blood

A

Basophils

35
Q

Major source of histamine in tissue

A

Mast cells

36
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Liver, bone, thymus

37
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen and lymph nodes

38
Q

2 different cell lines in one individual (e.g., bone marrow transplant patients)

A

Immunologic chimera

39
Q
  • Converts lymphocytes to lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells by enhancing their immune response to tumor.
  • Also converts lymphocytes into tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs)
  • Has shown some success for melanoma
A

IL-2

40
Q

What two cells does IL-2 convert lymphocytes into?

A

Lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs)

41
Q

When do you give tetanus toxoid to non-tetanus prone wounds?

A

Give tetanus toxoid only if patient has received

42
Q

When do you give tetanus toxoid to tetanus-prone wounds?

A

Always give tetanus toxoid unless the patient has had > 3 doses and it has been

43
Q

Criteria for tetanus-prone wounds

A 
> 6 hours old.
Obvious contamination and devitalized tissue.
Crush.
Burn.
Frostbite.
Missile injuries.
44
Q

When would you give tetanus immune globulin with tetanus prone wounds?

A

Give only with tetanus-prone wounds in patients who have not been immunized or if immunization status is unknown.

06 - absite (44 decks)

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