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Exercise Prescriptions > Chapter 3b > Flashcards

Chapter 3b Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four components of body composition

A

Weight
BMI
Waist Girth
% Body Fat

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2
Q

Where would you put the stethoscope to hear the aortic valve

A

The second rib interspace on the right side of the patient’s sternum

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3
Q

Where would you put the stethoscope to hear the pulmonic valve

A

The second rib interspace on the left side of the patient’s sternum

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4
Q

Where would you put the stethoscope to hear the tricuspid valve

A

The fourth rib interspace on the left side of the patient’s sternum

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5
Q

Where would you put the stethoscope to hear the mitral valve

A

The fifth rib interspace in the midclavicular line

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6
Q

Why do we auscultate the aortic area on the right side of the body and the pulmonic area on the left side of the body when those valves are switched inside the body

A

Because we are listening to the sounds of the heart after the valves close

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7
Q

Will S1 or S2 be louder when listening to the mitral and tricuspid area

A

S1 or lub sound

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8
Q

Will S1 or S2 be louder when listening to the aortic or pulmonic area

A

S2 or the dub sound

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9
Q

Which valves close first in the heart

A

mitral and tricuspid

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10
Q

When listening to the heart sounds, auscultate each site for at least ____ seconds

A

30

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11
Q

If the sounds of the heart are abnormal, use the (diaphragm/bell) side to pick up (low/high) pitch sounds

A

bell; low

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12
Q

If the sounds of the heart are abnormal, how you should you position your patient?

A

Lean them forward to allow the chest cavity to fall forward or lay the patient down in left recumbent position

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13
Q

Why is it important to take BP in multiple positions

A

Quick movements can affect a patient’s BP and we want to check for orthostatic hypertension

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14
Q

When taking BP, the cuff should encircle ___% percent of the patient’s arm

A

80

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15
Q

What will happen to the BP reading if the BP cuff is too small?

A

The BP will be higher than normal

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16
Q

What will happen to the BP reading if the BP cuff is too big?

A

The BP will be lower than normal

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17
Q

When taking blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be held at ____ level. If it is too high, the BP reading will be too (high/low). If the level is too low, the BP reading will be too (high/low)

A

heart
low
high

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18
Q

What are normal levels of BP

A

systolic: less than 120
diastolic: less than 80

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19
Q

What are elevated levels of BP

A

SBP: 120-129
DBP: Less than 80

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20
Q

What are stage 1 hypertension levels of BP

A

SBP: 130-139
DBP: 80-90

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21
Q

What are stage 2 hypertension levels of BP

A

SBP: 140+
DBP: 90+

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22
Q

What are the hypertension crisis levels of BP

A

SBP: 180+
DBP: 120+

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23
Q

Weight reduction is a modification recommended to prevent hypertension. What should the BMI be and how much would it lower SBP?

A

BMI: 18.5-24.9

Lowers SBP 5-20

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24
Q

Adopting the DASH eating plan is a modification recommended to prevent hypertension. What are the eating recommendations and how much would it drop SBP

A

Eat fruits, veggies, and lowfat dairy with reduced fats.

Lowers SBP 8-14

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25
Q

Dietary sodium reduction is a modification recommended to prevent hypertension. What should the sodium levels be at and how much does it lower SBP

A

No more than 2.4g of sodium will reduce SBP 2-8

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26
Q

Physical activity is a modification recommended to prevent hypertension. How much should someone exercise and how much would it reduce SBP

A

30 min a day for most days. Lowers SBP 4-9

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27
Q

Moderation of alcohol is a modification recommended to prevent hypertension. What should the intake levels of alcohol be and how much would it lower SBP

A

Limit no more than 2 drinks a day for men and 1 drink a day in women. Lowers SBP 2-4

28
Q

What is an apical pulse and when should this pulse be taken?

A

It is when you auscultate the heart to get a pulse because the radial pulse very low or the patient has a condition that would make taking normal HR hard

29
Q

Where can the apical pulse be found

A

at the apex of the heart or the 5th intercostal and midclavicular line

30
Q

If you have to find an apical pulse on an individual without tremors, what could possibly be the cause of such a low heart rate

A

blood clots

31
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for adults

A

12-20

32
Q

When listening to lungs sounds, the patient should be breathing out of their (nose/mouth) and the PT should be moving the stethoscope in a ______ pattern

A

mouth/ zig-zag

33
Q

A patient may have exercise induced hypoxemia if their O2 saturation decreases greater than __%

A

5

34
Q

A therapist should not continue with PT if a patient’s O2 saturation at rest is below ___-___

A

88-90

35
Q

When is a pulmonary function test with spirometry recommended?

A

For all smokers over 45 years old that have SOB, chronic cough, wheezing, or excessive mucus

36
Q

The FEV1.0/FVC is diminished with (restrictive/obstructive) airway diseases

A

obstructive

37
Q

The FEV1.0/FVC is diminished with obstructive airway diseases. List some of the obstructive airway diseases

A

asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, COPD

38
Q

The FEV1.0/FVC is normal with (restrictive/obstructive) airway diseases.

A

restrictive

39
Q

The FEV1.0/FVC is normal with restrictive airway diseases. List some of the restrictive airway diseases

A

Kyphoscoliosis, neuromuscular disease, fibrosis, other lung diseases

40
Q

The term COPD can be used when chronic _____, _____, or both are present and spirometry documents an obstructive defect

A

bronchitis, emphysema

41
Q

(Emphysema/bronchitis) occurs when the walls of alveoli are damaged by inflammation and rupture from being overstretched

A

emphysema

42
Q

(Emphysema/bronchitis) occurs when the walls of the bronchial tubes thicken and become narrow, often inducing coughing spells

A

bronchitis

43
Q

What is the ratio of an individual with barrel chest due to emphysema?

A

1:1

Normally it is 1:2

44
Q

When a patient is doing pursed lip breathing, they should breath in through the (mouth/nose) for ___ seconds and out through the (mouth/nose) for ___ seconds.

A

nose for 2 seconds

mouth for 4 seconds

45
Q

What is a normal vital capacity

A

3-5 L

46
Q

List some ROM exercises that can improve vital capacity

A

Rotation and extension of the thoracic spine
UE progression with breathing
Shoulder flexion and deep breathing

47
Q

What are the four breathing exercises for improving vital capacity

A

three quick sniffs
triplicate breathing
shoulder shrugs
diaphragm strengthening in supine

48
Q

How can some cervical SCI patients breath on their own

A

The diaphragm has its own innervation

49
Q

Which nerve innervates the diaphragm

A

The phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5)

50
Q

When we assess the lower extremity, what three things do we look at

A

skin, pulse, and edema

51
Q

How would you describe +1 pitting edema

A

barely detectable impression

52
Q

How would you describe +2 pitting edema

A

Slight indentation but goes away after 15 seconds to rebound

53
Q

How would you describe +3 pitting edema

A

Deeper indentation but goes away after 30 seconds

54
Q

How would you describe +4 pitting edema

A

Takes longer than 30 seconds for the edema to rebound

55
Q

What tool is used to test the sensation of skin, usually on the foot?

A

monofilament testing

56
Q

What are the three skin abnormalities discussed in the powerpoint

A

Tendon xanthoma
Xanthelasma
Skin cancer

57
Q

Monofilament testing is important to do with patients with ______.

A

diabetes

58
Q

Where is Xanthelasma usually located and what does it mean

A

Deposits show up in the corners of the eyes in people with high cholesterol

59
Q

After taking a patient’s vitals, what resting HR readings would cause you to not go on with therapy

A

Below 50 or above 100

60
Q

After taking a patient’s vitals, what resting BP readings would cause you to not go on with therapy

A

SBP: Greater than 200 or lower than 90
DBP: Greater than 110

61
Q

After taking a patient’s vitals, what resting O2 saturation readings would cause you to not go on with therapy

A

Less than 90%

62
Q

After taking a patient’s vitals, what resting blood sugar readings would cause you to not go on with therapy

A

less than 80
Greater than 250 with ketones
Greater than 350 type 1 DM
Greater than 450 type 2 DM

63
Q

Before exercise testing, participants should refrain from ingesting food, alcohol, or caffeine within ___ hours of testing

A

3

64
Q

If exercise testing is for diagnostic purposes, the patient should (continue/discontinue) their medications.

A

discontinue

65
Q

If exercise testing is for functional or Ex Rx purposes, the patient should (continue/discontinue) their medications.

A

continue

Exercise Prescriptions (7 decks)

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