Chapter 30 Flashcards

1
Q

Protein is synthesized from ? to ? end

A

N to C

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2
Q

mRNA is decoded in ? to ? direction

A

5 to 3

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3
Q

linking of AA to tRNA by ? is driven by ATP

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

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4
Q

Two subunits of ribosome

A

30S and 50S

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5
Q

? AAs are incorporated / second

A

20

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6
Q

one mistake in every ? AAs

A

10000

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7
Q

base modifications stabilize ? of tRNAs and provide additional contacts to ?

A

tertiary structure. contacts to protein factors

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8
Q

common features of all tRNA

A

cloverleaf secondary structure. 5 regions w/o complementary base pairing. anticodon and AA acceptor site at opposite ends

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9
Q

activation of AAs for tRNA attachment

A

AA + ATP&raquo_space; Aminoacyl adenylate + PPi. driven by PPi hydrolysis

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10
Q

activation and charging reactions catalyzed by ?

A

tRNA synthetases

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11
Q

class one aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases acylate ?

A

2’-OH

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12
Q

class two aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases acylate ?

A

3’-OH

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13
Q

threonyl-tRNA synthetase uses ? to coordinate with -OH group of threonine to allow it to recognize threonine with an accuracy of ?

A

Zn ion. 99%

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14
Q

? allows 99.99? accuracy by threonyl-tRNA synthetase

A

proofreading

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15
Q

tRNA synthetase two active sites

A

activation site for charging and editing site the hydrolyzes incorrectly charged tRNAs

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16
Q

crucial step in converting from a nucleic acid code to a protein one

A

tRNA synthetases recognizing cognate tRNAs

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17
Q

50S subunit composed of ?

A

34 proteins, 23S and 5S rRNAs

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18
Q

30S subunit composed of ?

A

21 proteins and 16S rRNA

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19
Q

initiation of protein synthesis

A

30S subuint binds mRNA and a specific initiator tRNA

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20
Q

elongation of protein

A

50S subunit attaches to complex and polypeptide syntehsis begins

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21
Q

termination of protein synthesis

A

release factors bind at stop sequences to release polypeptide and disassemble ribosomes

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22
Q

initiator tRNA

A

a methionyl-tRNA that has been formylated. fMet-tRNA. Has peptide bond

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23
Q

start of protein synthesis is determined by?

A

pairing of mRNA bases w/ 3’ end of 16S rRNA. pairing of initiator codon on mRNA w/ anticodon of an initiator tRNA

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24
Q

binding of fMet-tRNA

A

30S ribosome subunit combines with initiation factors IF1-IF3 to facilitate binding and prevent premature association with 50S subunit

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25
formation of quaternary complex
IF1 and IF3 dissociate. IF2 hydrolyzes GTP to drive release which allows 50S to bind
26
EPA sites
E: uncharged site. P: peptidyl site. A: aminoacyl site
27
elongation cycle
aninoacyl-tRNA binding > peptide bond formation > GTP hyrolysis by EF-G drives translocation > tRNA dissociation
28
aminoacyl-tRNAs are delivered to A site by ?
elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu) complexed with GTP
29
EF-Tu*GDP is recharged with GTP by ?
guanine nucleotide exchange factor of EF-Ts
30
peptidyl transferase reaction is catalyzed by ?
rRNA in 50S subunit
31
modification of a charged tRNA leads to ?. This is used in vitro to synthesize proteins containing ?
incorrect incorporation. unnatural amino acids
32
wobble position
5' end (first base) of anticodon and 3' end (third base) of codon are less discriminating
33
Inosine in first base of anticodon can bind with ? on third base of codon
U, C, A
34
yeast ala-tRNA contains ? in the anticodon
inosine
35
how does the ribosome read the first two codns so accurately?
rRNA makes specific contacts on the minor groove of the codon-anticodon helix
36
termination of translation
protein release factors that mimic tRNAs recognize and bind stop codons to release peptide from complex
37
STOP codons
UAA, UAG, UGA
38
release factors activate a ? to hydrolyze the peptidyl-tRNA
water molecule
39
RF-1
pairs with UAA or UAG
40
RF-2
pairs with UGA
41
RF3
causes dissociation of ribosome, mRNA and release factors
42
? powers conformational change in the ribosome
GTP
43
? (4) are all part of the g-protein superfamily and interact with the same site on the 50S subunit
IF-2, EF-Tu, EF-G, RF-3
44
Polysomes
on average about 10 ribosomes are attached to each mRNA
45
monocistronic
circularized mRNAs that encode for only one protein. found only in eucaryotes
46
30S and 50S ribosome subunits combine to form a ? subunit in procaryotes
70S
47
40S and 60S ribosome subunits combine to form a ? subunit in eucaryotes
80S
48
In eucaryote initiation, ? (3) associate in a ternary complex
eIF-2, GTP, Met-tRNA
49
in eucaryote initiation, ternary complex binds to ? complex to from ? complex
40S ribosomal subunit/eIF complex to form 43S preinitiation complex
50
in eucaryote initiation, ? and ? add to 43S complex forming the 48S complex
mRNA and eIF4
51
in eucaryote initiation, 48S initiation complex scans for ? with the help of ?
AUG start codon with the help of helicases
52
in eucaryote initiation, when 48S complex meets AUG, ? is hydrolyzed and ? adds to make 80S complex
GTP. 60S
53
eucaryotic mRNAs are unique because?
7-methyl-G cap at 5' end. Poly(A) tail at 3' end
54
5' cap is recognized by ?
eIF-4E
55
PolyA tail is recognized by ?
pabp1
56
eIF-4E and pabp1 both bind to ?
eIF-4G
57
? proteins recognize both ends of mRNA to circularize, protect, and compact
eIF-4 group
58
some eIF-4 group proteins and S6 are activated by ?
phosphorylation
59
phosphorylated eIF-2 binds so tightly to eIF-sB that ?
guanine nucleotide exchange is blocked and translation cannot initiate
60
IRES
internal ribosome entry sites. able to translate without 5'caps and 3' tails. Includes polio virus and eIF-4G
61
why is termination simpler in eucaryotes
only one release factor that hydrolyzes GTP at stop codon
62
proteins are synthesized as precursors with ? sequence that is subsequently removed. Purpose?
N-terminal. Tags to send to correct place in cell.
63
SRP
signal recognition particle. binds weakly to all ribosomes but tightly to ribosomes translating signal peptides. stops translation by blocking elongation factor binding site. targets ribosome to ER where SRP interacts with SRP receptor. SRP and receptor hydrolyze GTP and dissociate.
64
streptomycin function
inhibit translation initiation and cause misreading of mRNA
65
puromycin function
causes premature translation chain termination by acting as aminoacyl-tRNA analog