Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CISSP > Chapter 3: Secure Network Architecture and Securing Network Components > Flashcards

Chapter 3: Secure Network Architecture and Securing Network Components Flashcards

1
Q

What is OSI?

A

Open Systems Interconnect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the layers of the OSI model?

A
  1. Physical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Transport
  5. Session
  6. Presentation
    7 Application
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the Physical Layer in the OSI model do?

A

The physical layer accepts the frame from the data link layer and converts it into bits for transmission over the physical media, and vice versa. It contains device drivers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some examples of specifications or protocols that operate at the physical layer?

A

EIA/TIA-232 and EIA/TIA-449, X.21, High-Speed Serial Interface (HSSI), Synchronous Optical Network (SONET), V.24 and V.35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What network hardware devices operate at the phyical layer?

A

NICs, hubs, repeaters, concentrators, amplifiers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Data Link Layer?

A

This layer is responsible for formatting the packet from the Network layer into the proper format for transmission, and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some examples of protocols that operate at the data link layer?

A

SLIP, PPP, ARP, RARP, L2F (Layer 2 Forwarding), L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol), PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), ISDN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What network hardware devices operate at the data link layer?

A

Switches and bridges. These support MAC-based traffic routing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which are the 2 protocols we need to be familiar with at the Data Link Layer?

A

ARP and RARP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does ARP do?

A

ARP is the Address Resolution Protocol. It maps IP addresses to MAC addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does RARP do?

A

RARP is the Reverse Address Resolution Protocol. It maps MAC addresses to IP addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Network Layer?

A

The Network Layer is responsible for adding routing and addressing information to the data. It is not responsible for guaranteeing delivery, but does manage error detection and traffic control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What protocols operate at the Network Layer?

A 
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
Internet Protocol (IP)
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)
Network Address Translation (NAT)
Simple Key Management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What hardware devices operate at layer 3?

A

Routers and bridge routers (brouters).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Transport Layer?

A

The layer responsible for managing the integrity of a connection and controlling the session. This layer defines how much data a segment can contain, how to verify data integrity, and how to determine if data has been lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What protocols operate at the Transport Layer?

A

TCP, UDP, Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX), SSL, TLS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the session layer?

A

The layer responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating communications sessions between computers. Controls simplex/duplex. Retransmits lots or damaged segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What protocols operate at the session layer?

A

NFS, SQL, RPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the presentation Layer?

A

The layer responsible for transforming data received from the Application layer into a format that any system following the OSI model can understand. Imposes common or standardized structure and formatting rules onto the data. Responsible for encryption and compression.

Most file or data formats are at this layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What protocols operate at the Presentation Layer?

A

ASCII, EBCDICM (Extended Binary-Coded Decimal Interchange Mode), TIFF, JPEG, MPEG, MIDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Application Layer?

A

The application layer is responsible for interfacng user applications, network services, or the operating system with the protocol stack. It determines whether a remote communcations partner is available, and whether sufficient resources are available to support the requested communications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What protocols operate at the Application layer?

A

HTTP, FTP, LPD, SMTL, TFTP, EDI (Electronic Data INterchange), POP3, IMAP, SNMP, NNTP, S_RPC, SET (Secure Electronic Transaction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What hardware pr services operate at the application layer?

A

Gateways, application layer firewalls, some filtering software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the layers of the TCP/IP model?

A

Application
Transport
Internet
Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do the TCP/IP layers map to the OSI layers?

A

Application: Application/Presentation?Session
Transport: Transport
Internet: Network
Link: Data Link/Physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What TCP/IP protocols operate at the Application Layer?

A

FTP, Telnet, SNMP, LPD, TFTP, SMTP, NFS, X Windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What TCP/IP protocols operate at the Transport layer?

A

TCP, UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What TCP/IP protocols operate at the Internet Layer?

A

ICMP, IGMP, IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What TCP/IP protocols operate at the Link Layer?

A

Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the first 1024 TCP/UDP ports called?

A

Well-known ports or service ports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the ACK TCP header flag mean?

A

Acknowlegement - Acknowledges a synchronization or shutdown request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the RST TCP header flag mean?

A

Reset - Causes immediate disconnect of the TCP session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the SYN TCP header flag mean?

A

Synchronization - Requests synchronization with new sequencing numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What doe sthe FIN TCP header flag mean?

A

Finish - Requests graceful shutdown of the TCP session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is IP?

A

IP is the Internet Protocol. It is a connectionless and unreliable datagram protocol. It contains ICMP, IGMP, and ARP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is IGMP for?

A

Multicasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are class D networks?

A

Class D networks have addresses starting with 1110, or decimal 224-239, and are for multicast traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are class E networks?

A

Class E networks have addresses starting with 1111, or decimal 240-255, and are for experimental use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the CIDR equivalent of a class A network?

A

/8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the CIDR equivalent of a class B network?

A

/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the CIDR equivalent of a class C network?

A

/24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is ICMP?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol. ICMP is used to determine the health of a network or specific link. Applications: ping, traceroute, pathping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What port does telnet operate on?

A

23/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is typically on port 23/tcp?

A

telnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What port(s) does ftp operate on

A

20, 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is typicall on ports 20/tcp and 21/tcp

A

FTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What ports does TFTP operate on

A

69/udp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is typically on port 69/udp

A

TFTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What port does SMTP operate on?

A

25/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is typically on port 25/tcp

A

SMTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What port does POP3 operate on?

A

110/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is typically on port 110/tcp

A

POP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What port does IMAP operate on?

A

143/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is typically on port 143/tcp

A

IMAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What port does DHCP operate on?

A

67/tdp and 68/udp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is typically on ports 67/udp and 68/udp

A

DHCP/bootp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What port does HTTP operate on?

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is typically on port 80/tcp

A

HTTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What port does SSL operate on?

A

443

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is typically on port 443?

A

SSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What port does LPD operate on?

A

515/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is typically on port 515/tcp?

A

LPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What ports does X Windows use?

A

6000-6063/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is typically on port 6000-63/tcp

A

X Windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What ports does bootp/DHCP use?

A

67/udp, 68/udp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What port does NFS use?

A

2049/tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is typically on port 2049/tcp?

A

NFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What port doe SNMP use?

A

161/udp, 162/udp for trap messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is typically on port 161/udp?

A

SNMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is typically on port 162/udp?

A

SNMP trap messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is an intranet?

A

An intranet is a private network that is designed to host the same information services found on the Internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is an extranet?

A

An extranet is a section of an organization’s network that has been sectioned off so that it acts as an intranet for the private network, but also serves information to the public Internet. It’s often reserved for use by specific partners or customers, and is rarely on a public network. Often requires a VPN for access.

An extranet for public consumption is typically called a DMZ or perimeter network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why segment networks?

A

Boost performance by localizing communications.
Reduce communications problems like congestion or broadcast storms.
Provide security by isolating traffic and user access to those segments where they are authorized.

74
Q

How do you segment a network?

A

Switch-based VLANs, routers, firewalls.

75
Q

What are firewalls for?

A

Blocking malicious traffic from the internet from entering a private network.

76
Q

What are firewalls typically not able to do?

A

Block viruses or malicious code

77
Q

What, beyond network traffic, should firewalls log?

A

Rebooting the firewall
Proxies or other dependencies not starting
Proxies or other important services crashing or restarting
Changes to the firewall configuration
A configuration or system error while the firewall is running.

78
Q

Are there risks to reliance on firewalls?

A

Yes. Typically, they are a single point of failure.

79
Q

What are the four basic types of firewalls?

A

Static packet-filtering firewalls
Application-level gateways
Circuit-level gateways
Stateful inspection firewalls

80
Q

What is a static packet-filtering firewall?

A

Filters traffic by examining the message header, typically source, destination, and port. Can be spoofed. Layer 3.

81
Q

What is an application-level gateway firewall?

A

A firewall that filters traffic based on the Internet service used to transmit or receive the data. Each type of application has to have its own proxy server. An application-level gateway firewall comprises numerous individual proxy servers. Second generation. Operates at layer 7. Also known as proxy firewalls.

82
Q

What is a circuit-level gateway?

A

Used to establish communication sessions between trusted partners. Layer 5.

83
Q

What is a stateful-inspection firewall?

A

Evaluates the state or context of network traffic. More efficient than application-level gateway firewalls. Third generation firewalls, operate at Network and Transport layers (3/4).

84
Q

What are Multihomed Firewalls?

A

Firewalls with more than one interface

85
Q

What is a dual-homed firewall?

A

A firewall with two interfaces. All useful firewalls must be dual-homed (or more).

86
Q

Describe the Single-tier firewall deployment architecture.

A

Internet -> Border router -> Firewall -> Private Network

87
Q

Describe the Two-tier I firewall deployment architecture.

A

Internet -> Border router -> Firewall -> DMZ and Private network

88
Q

Describe the Two-tier II firewall deployment architecture.

A

Internet -> Border router -> Firewall -> DMZ -> Firewall -> Private Network.

Basically, instead of having the DMZ and Private Network both behind one firewall, there’s a firewall between the DMZ an Private Network.

89
Q

Describe the Three-tier I firewall deployment architecture.

A

Internet -> Router -> Firewall -> DMZ -> Firwall -> Transaction Subnet -> Firewall -> Private Network

90
Q

Describe the Three-tier II firewall deployment architecture

A

Internet -> Router ->Firewall -> DMZ and Transaction Subnet -> Firewall -> Private Network

91
Q

What is a DMZ for?

A

A DMZ is used to host information server systems that external users should have access to.

92
Q

What is Endpoint Security?

A

Endpoint security is the concept that each individual device must maintain local security whether or not its network or telecommuncations channels also provide or offer security.

93
Q

What is a hub?

A

A hub is a network device that connects multiple systems that use the same protocol by repeating inbound traffic over all outbound ports. Layer 1.

94
Q

What is a switch?

A

A switch is a network device that repeats inbound traffic only on outbound ports on which the destination is known to exist. Layer 2.

95
Q

What is a router?

A

Used to control traffic flow on networks, often used to control traffic flow between two similar networks. Level 3.

96
Q

What is a brouter?

A

A combination router and bridge. Primarily operates at layer 3, can operate at layer 2.

97
Q

What is a gateway?

A

A network device that connects networks that use different network protocols. Layer 7.

98
Q

What is a proxy?

A

A gateway that doesn’t translate across protocols. They serve as mediators, filters, caching servers, NAT/PAT servers for a network.

99
Q

What is the max speed of 10Base2?

A

10Mbps

100
Q

What is the max speed of 10Base5?

A

10Mbps

101
Q

What is the max speed of 10BaseT (UTP)?

A

10 Mbps

102
Q

What is the max speed of STP?

A

155 Mbps

103
Q

What is the max speed of 100Base-T/100Base-TX?

A

100 Mbps

104
Q

What is the max speed of 1000Base-T?

A

1 Gbps

105
Q

What is the max speed of fiber-optic?

A

2+ Gbps

106
Q

What is the max distance of 10Base-2?

A

185 meters

107
Q

What is the max distance of 10Base-5?

A

500 meters

108
Q

What is the max distance of 10Base-T (UTP)?

A

100 meters

109
Q

What is the max distance of STP?

A

100 meters

110
Q

What is the max distance of 100Base-T/TX?

A

100 meters

111
Q

What is the max distance of 1000Base-T?

A

100 meters

112
Q

What is the max distance of fiber-optic?

A

2+ km

113
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of 10Base2?

A

Medium

114
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of 10Base5?

A

High

115
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of 10Base-T (UTP)?

A

Low

116
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of STP?

A

Medium

117
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of 100Base-T/TX?

A

Low

118
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of 1000Base-T?

A

Low

119
Q

What is the relative installation difficulty of fiber-optic?

A

Very high

120
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of 10Base2?

A

Medium

121
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of 10Base5?

A

Low

122
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of 10Base-T?

A

High

123
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of STP?

A

Medium

124
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of 100Base-T/TX?

A

High

125
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of 1000Base-T?

A

High

126
Q

What is the relative EMI susceptibility of fibre-optic?

A

None

127
Q

What is the relative cost of 10Base2?

A

Medium

128
Q

What is the relative cost of 10Base5?

A

High

129
Q

What is the relative cost of 10BaseT (UTP)?

A

Very Low

130
Q

What is the relative cost of STP?

A

High

131
Q

What is the relative cost of 100Base-T/TX?

A

Low

132
Q

What is the relative cost of 1000Base-T?

A

Medium

133
Q

What is the relative cost of fibre-optic?

A

Very high

134
Q

Describe Cat 1

A

Voice only. Not suitable for networks, usable by modems

135
Q

Describe Cat 2

A

4 Mbps, not suitable for most networks, often used for host-to-terminal connections on mainframes

136
Q

Describe Cat 3

A

10 Mbps. Primarily used in 10Base-T Ethernet. Only 4 Mbps when used for token ring. Also for telephone cables.

137
Q

Describe Cat 4

A

16 Mbps. Primarily used in token ring networks

138
Q

Describe Cat 5

A

100 Mbps. 100Base-TX, FDDI, ATM

139
Q

Describe Cat 6

A

1,000 Mbps. Used in high speed networks

140
Q

Describe Cat 7

A

10 Gbps. Used on 10 gig networks

141
Q

What is the frequency range of radio waves?

A

3 Hz to 300 GHz.

142
Q

What is the most commonly used frequencies for wireless products, and why?

A

900 Mhz, 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz. They are unlicensed.

143
Q

What is Spread Spectrum?

A

Communication occurs over mulitple frequencies at the same time. Essentially parallel communication.

144
Q

What is Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum

A

An early implementation of the spread spectrum concept, it transmits data in series while constantly changing frequency. Minimizes interference because interference will probably not affect all the frequencies in use.

145
Q

What is Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum?

A

A Spread Spectrum implementation that uses all the frequencies available at the same time. Uses a chipping code to allow the receiver to reconstruct missing data if part of it is corrupted in transit.

146
Q

What is Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing?

A

Employs a digital multicarrier modulation scheme that allows for more tightly compatcted transmission. Signals within the transmission don’t interfere with one another. Uses a smaller freuency set but can offer greater throughput.

147
Q

What is IEEE 801.20?

A

A 4G wireless phone standard for mobile broadband.

148
Q

What is LTE?

A

“Long Term Evolution”, a 4G wireless phone network.

149
Q

What is WAP?

A

Wireless Application Protocol. Cell phones communicate with the carrier network and are gatewayed to the Internet. It’s a suite of protocols that work together. Mostly not used anymore, having been supplanted by 3G/4G technologies like GSM, EDGE, HPDSA, LTE).

This is not the WAP that your home router uses.

150
Q

What is WTLS?

A

A security protocol that works with WAP analagously to how SSL and TLS work.

151
Q

What is “the gap in the WAP”?

A

CALEA requires all telcos to make it possible to wiretap voice and data communications when a search warrant is provided. To do this, WAP encrypted traffic is decrypted at the telco before being reencapsulated by SSL, TLS, IPSec, etc.

152
Q

What is bluetooth?

A

A “personal area network” technology. Generally devices connect by pairing, usually using a 4 digit PIN. Should generally not be used for anything sensitive as its security is usually poor.

153
Q

What is bluejacking?

A

An attack on bluetooth devides that allows an attacker to transmit SMS like messages to a device.

154
Q

What is bluesnarfing?

A

An attack on bluetooth devices that allows hackers to connect with a bluetooth device without the user’s knowledge and extract information from them.

155
Q

What is bluebugging?

A

An attack that grants remote attackers control over the features and functions of a bluetooth device.

156
Q

What is the typical range of bluetooth?

A

Generally less than 30 feet, but sometimes as much as 100 meters or more.

157
Q

What are the benefits of 802.11 wireless networking?

A

Easy to deploy, and low cost.

158
Q

What are the two kinds of wireless networks?

A

ad-hoc and infrastructure

159
Q

What is an ad-hoc wireless network?

A

One in which wireless clients connect directly without the use of a wireless access point.

160
Q

What is an infrastructure wireless network?

A

One in which wireless clients connect to a wireless access point.

161
Q

What is a stand-alone mode infrastructure wireless network?

A

One in which the wireless devices aren’t connected to any wired networks.

162
Q

What is a wired extension mode wireless network?

A

One in which the wireless access point acts as a connection point to link the wireless clients to the wired network.

163
Q

What is n enterprise extended mode infrastructure wireless network?

A

Multiple WAPs are used to connect clients to the same network over a wider geographic area.

164
Q

What is a bridge mode infrastructure?

A

A wireless network is used to link two wired networks.

165
Q

What is SSID?

A

Service Set Identifier. It’s used to differentiate one wireless network from another.

166
Q

What are the two methods wireless clients can use to authenticate to WAPs?

A

Open System Authentication (OSA) == no real authentication required.
Shared Key Authentication (SKA) == challenge handshake authentication must happen before network communication can occur

167
Q

What optional encryption technique does 802.11 define?

A

WEP, or Wired Equivalent Privacy, which uses RC4, a symmetric stream cipher.

168
Q

What are the problems with WEP?

A

It uses static keys, weak initialization vectors, and doesn’t maintain true packet integrity. It can be cracked in under a minute.

169
Q

What is WPA?

A

WPA is an interim solution to the problems of WEP. Vulnerable to brute force guessing.

170
Q

What is WPA2?

A

An effective mechanism for securing wireless networks. Uses AES.

171
Q

How should you secure a wireless network?

A
  1. Change the default administrator password
  2. Disable SSID broadcast
  3. Change the SSID to something unique
  4. Enable MAC filtering if the pool of wireless clients is relatively small and static
  5. Consider using static IP addresses, or configure DHCP with reservations
  6. Turn on the highest form of authentication and encryption supported (prefereably WPA-2)
  7. Treat wireless as remote access, and manage using 802.1X.
  8. Treat wireless as external access, and separate the WAP from the wired network using a firewall.
  9. Treat wireless as an entry point for attackers, and monitor all WAP to wired network communcations with an IDS.
  10. Require all transmissions between wireless clients and WAPs to be encrypted (VPN link)
172
Q

What are the 4 802.11 amendments that definte unqiue frequencie and speeds of transmission?

A

802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n

173
Q

What is the speed and frequency of 802.11a?

A

54 Mbps, 5 GHz

174
Q

What is the speed and frequency of 802.11b

A

11 Mbps, 2.4 GHz

175
Q

What is the speed and frequency of 802.11g?

A

54 Mbps, 2.4 GHz

176
Q

What is the speed and frequency of 802.11n?

A

600 Mbps, 2.4 or 5 GHz

177
Q

Define network topology?

A

The physical layout and organization of computers and networking devices.

178
Q

What are the four basic network topologies?

A

ring, bus, star, mesh

179
Q

What is a ring topology?

A

Each system is a point on a circle. Only one system can transmit at a time. Token-based traffic management.

180
Q

What is a bus topology?

A

Each system connects to a trunk or backbone. All systems can transmit at any time, which can cause collisions.

181
Q

What is a star topology?

A

Each system is connected to a central hub or switch. The hub is a single point of failure, but the link between any one device and the hub can only impact that device. Usually has less cabling than other topologies.

182
Q

What is a mesh topology?

A

Systems are connected to other systems using numerous paths. A full mesh topology means every system is connected to every other system. Primary benefit is redundancy.

CISSP (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions