Chapter 3 Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues Flashcards

1
Q

What legal considerations apply when treating mentally ill patients?

A

Healthcare providers must respect patient autonomy, ensure informed consent, and follow protocols for involuntary treatment when patients pose a danger to themselves or others.

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2
Q

Define ‘restraint’ in the context of medical care.

A

Restraint refers to any physical, chemical, or mechanical method used to restrict a patient’s movement for safety purposes.

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3
Q

When is the use of physical restraint legally justified?

A

Physical restraint is justified when it is necessary to prevent imminent harm to the patient or others, and all less restrictive measures have been exhausted.

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4
Q

What are the risks of improper use of restraints?

A

Improper use can result in physical harm, psychological trauma, legal liability, and violation of patient rights.

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5
Q

How does legal responsibility differ when treating patients with disabilities?

A

Providers must comply with laws like the ADA, ensuring equal access to care, reasonable accommodations, and non-discrimination.

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6
Q

Define ‘risk management’ in healthcare.

A

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to improve patient safety and reduce liability.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of a quality improvement program?

A

The goal is to enhance patient outcomes, care quality, and operational efficiency by addressing systemic issues.

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8
Q

How can incident reports help mitigate legal risks?

A

Incident reports document adverse events, enabling analysis and prevention of future occurrences, reducing liability.

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9
Q

Explain the role of continuing education in reducing negligence claims.

A

Ongoing training keeps providers updated on best practices, reducing errors and improving patient care standards.

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10
Q

What steps can providers take to avoid liability?

A

Providers can avoid liability by maintaining accurate records, following protocols, obtaining informed consent, and ensuring effective communication.

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11
Q

What is the role of a healthcare provider as a witness in court?

A

Providers may serve as fact or expert witnesses, offering testimony based on their medical knowledge and patient interactions.

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12
Q

Define ‘subpoena’ and explain how it applies to medical records.

A

A subpoena is a legal document requiring the release of specific medical records or testimony in a court proceeding.

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13
Q

How should healthcare providers prepare for courtroom testimony?

A

Preparation involves reviewing records, consulting legal counsel, and ensuring clear, accurate communication.

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14
Q

What is the importance of truthfulness in legal proceedings?

A

Honesty is crucial to maintain credibility, avoid perjury, and uphold professional ethics.

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15
Q

How can providers protect themselves from legal action?

A

Maintaining thorough documentation, adhering to protocols, and fostering good patient relationships are key preventive measures.

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16
Q

What is an ethical dilemma in healthcare?

A

An ethical dilemma arises when conflicting values or principles make it challenging to determine the right course of action.

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17
Q

How should providers approach resolving an ethical conflict?

A

Resolution involves consulting ethical guidelines, seeking input from ethics committees, and prioritizing patient welfare.

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18
Q

Define ‘moral distress’ and its impact on providers.

A

Moral distress occurs when providers feel unable to act according to their ethical beliefs, leading to emotional and professional strain.

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19
Q

Explain the importance of ethical training for healthcare professionals.

A

Ethical training equips professionals to navigate complex situations, uphold standards, and make informed decisions.

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20
Q

Discuss the role of patient advocacy in ethical decision-making.

A

Patient advocacy ensures that care decisions respect patient preferences, rights, and best interests, supporting ethical practice.

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21
Q

Define ‘scope of practice.’

A

The ‘scope of practice’ refers to the procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare professional is permitted to perform based on their professional license and training.

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22
Q

What legal consequences can arise from practicing outside the scope of practice?

A

Practicing beyond the authorized scope can lead to legal penalties, including fines, loss of licensure, and potential civil or criminal charges.

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23
Q

Explain the importance of professional licensure in healthcare.

A

Licensure ensures that healthcare professionals meet standardized education and competency requirements, protecting patient safety and maintaining trust in the healthcare system.

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24
Q

What is the difference between certification and licensure?

A

Certification is a voluntary credential indicating expertise in a specific area, while licensure is a mandatory legal requirement to practice in a regulated profession.

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25
Q

How do ethical principles guide decision-making in patient care?

A

Ethical principles, such as autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice, provide a framework for making patient-centered decisions that uphold dignity, safety, and fairness.

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26
Q

Define ‘autonomy’ in the context of medical ethics.

A

Autonomy involves respecting a patient’s right to make informed decisions about their own care.

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27
Q

Explain the principle of ‘beneficence.’

A

Beneficence is the obligation to act in the best interest of the patient, promoting their well-being and taking positive steps to improve their health.

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28
Q

What does ‘nonmaleficence’ mean in ethical decision-making?

A

Nonmaleficence means avoiding actions that could cause harm to the patient.

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29
Q

Define the concept of ‘justice’ in healthcare.

A

Justice in healthcare involves providing equitable care and distributing resources fairly among patients.

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30
Q

Why is cultural competence important in ethical patient care?

A

Cultural competence ensures that care respects the diverse values, beliefs, and practices of patients, fostering trust and effective communication.

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31
Q

Define ‘abandonment’ in patient care.

A

Abandonment occurs when a healthcare provider ends the provider-patient relationship without ensuring that appropriate alternative care is available.

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32
Q

What are the legal consequences of abandonment?

A

Legal consequences may include liability for patient harm caused by the lack of continuity in care.

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33
Q

Explain the concept of ‘false imprisonment’ in a medical context.

A

False imprisonment involves unlawfully restraining a patient without their consent or legal justification.

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34
Q

What is the definition of ‘assault’ in healthcare?

A

Assault is the threat or attempt to make physical contact with a patient without their consent.

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35
Q

How does ‘battery’ differ from assault?

A

Battery refers to the actual physical contact made without consent, while assault is the threat or attempt.

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36
Q

What is ‘defamation,’ and how can it occur in healthcare settings?

A

Defamation involves making false statements that harm a person’s reputation, which in healthcare could occur through inappropriate comments about colleagues or patients.

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37
Q

Describe the legal concept of ‘libel.’

A

Libel refers to written or published false statements that damage someone’s reputation.

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38
Q

What is ‘slander,’ and how does it apply in healthcare?

A

Slander involves spoken false statements that harm another person’s reputation, which can occur through verbal gossip in healthcare settings.

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39
Q

Explain the term ‘malpractice.’

A

Malpractice refers to professional misconduct or failure to provide the standard of care, resulting in harm to the patient.

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40
Q

What is the difference between malpractice and negligence?

A

Negligence involves failing to act as a reasonable person would in similar circumstances, while malpractice specifically pertains to professional duties and standards of care.

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41
Q

What is the role of medical direction in EMS?

A

Medical direction involves oversight and guidance provided by physicians to ensure that EMS providers deliver appropriate care.

42
Q

Explain the difference between online and offline medical direction.

A

Online medical direction is real-time guidance provided during a call, while offline involves pre-established protocols and training.

43
Q

Define ‘delegation’ in a medical setting.

A

Delegation is the assignment of specific tasks by a licensed professional to another healthcare worker, within their scope of practice.

44
Q

What are the responsibilities of a healthcare provider when acting under delegation?

A

Providers must ensure they are qualified for the task, adhere to protocols, and report outcomes accurately.

45
Q

Describe the importance of teamwork in preventing legal issues.

A

Effective teamwork ensures communication, prevents errors, and aligns care with legal and ethical standards.

46
Q

What is the legal significance of following protocols?

A

Following protocols provides legal protection, demonstrating adherence to standard practices and minimizing liability.

47
Q

What is the primary role of an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)?

A

To provide emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured, ensuring patient stabilization and effective care during transit.

48
Q

What are the four levels of Emergency Medical Service (EMS) practice?

A

Emergency Medical Responder (EMR), Emergency Medical Technician (EMT), Advanced EMT (AEMT), and Paramedic.

49
Q

What does the National EMS Scope of Practice Model define?

A

The minimum skills each level of EMS provider should be able to perform.

50
Q

Why is continuing education important for EMS providers?

A

To refine knowledge, skills, and adapt to advancements in the healthcare industry.

51
Q

What is the purpose of EMS certification exams?

A

To assess and verify the competencies required for safe and effective EMS practice.

52
Q

Who regulates EMS certification and licensure?

A

Certification is typically regulated by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) or state-level agencies.

53
Q

What is the purpose of the EMS Agenda 2050?

A

To develop a people-centered EMS system that integrates seamlessly with broader healthcare services.

54
Q

What are some key aspects of patient assessment?

A

Understanding anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology to identify life threats and provide effective treatment.

55
Q

What is scene size-up, and why is it critical?

A

A scene size-up involves assessing safety threats, resource needs, and the overall situation to ensure safe and effective response.

56
Q

What does the term ‘medical direction’ mean in EMS?

A

Oversight provided by a medical director through protocols, training, and real-time guidance.

57
Q

How does mobile integrated healthcare (MIH) benefit communities?

A

By providing accessible healthcare within the community and reducing reliance on hospitals.

58
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of a medical director in EMS?

A

To develop protocols, ensure proper training, and oversee the quality of care delivered.

59
Q

Why are data collection and information systems important in EMS?

A

They help improve patient outcomes, guide training, and justify funding or resource allocation.

60
Q

What is Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)?

A

A proactive process of evaluating and enhancing EMS operations to ensure high-quality care.

61
Q

How can EMTs minimize medical errors?

A

By following clear protocols, using checklists, and engaging in ongoing education and teamwork.

62
Q

What are the primary sources of funding for EMS systems?

A

Taxation, fee-for-service models, donations, grants, and fundraisers.

63
Q

How does public education contribute to EMS effectiveness?

A

It raises awareness about prevention, promotes safety practices, and fosters community respect for EMS services.

64
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary prevention in EMS?

A

Primary prevention prevents events (e.g., vaccinations), while secondary prevention reduces the impact of events (e.g., seat belts).

65
Q

What is the role of EMS research?

A

To establish evidence-based practices that improve patient care and EMS operations.

66
Q

What is HIPAA, and why is it important for EMTs?

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act ensures patient confidentiality and privacy.

67
Q

What training is required for an Advanced EMT (AEMT)?

A

Training in advanced airway management, intravenous therapy, and limited medication administration.

68
Q

What is the significance of the Highway Safety Act of 1966 for EMS?

A

It laid the foundation for modern EMS by addressing inadequacies in emergency care and transportation.

69
Q

How does EMS integrate with the healthcare system?

A

By providing coordinated prehospital care and ensuring continuity during patient transitions to hospitals.

70
Q

What is the role of EMS in disaster and mass casualty incidents?

A

To provide triage, stabilization, and transport while coordinating with other emergency services.

71
Q

What professional attributes are essential for EMTs?

A

Compassion, professionalism, non-judgmental attitudes, and the ability to perform under pressure.

72
Q

What is the role of medical direction in EMS?

A

Medical direction ensures EMS providers follow appropriate clinical guidelines, protocols, and receive medical oversight.

73
Q

Explain the difference between online and offline medical direction.

A

Online medical direction involves direct communication with a physician during patient care, while offline direction refers to predefined protocols and training.

74
Q

Define ‘delegation’ in a medical setting.

A

Delegation is the process by which a healthcare provider assigns specific tasks to another qualified individual under their supervision.

75
Q

What are the responsibilities of a healthcare provider when acting under delegation?

A

Providers must perform tasks within their scope of practice, adhere to protocols, and communicate effectively with the delegating authority.

76
Q

Describe the importance of teamwork in preventing legal issues.

A

Effective teamwork ensures clear communication, reduces errors, and fosters adherence to protocols, mitigating legal risks.

77
Q

What is the legal significance of following protocols?

A

Adhering to protocols demonstrates compliance with standards of care, reducing liability and protecting providers from legal repercussions.

78
Q

Define ‘advance directive.’

A

An advance directive is a legal document specifying a patient’s preferences for medical care if they become unable to make decisions.

79
Q

What is the purpose of a ‘living will’?

A

A living will outlines specific medical treatments a patient wishes or does not wish to receive in life-threatening situations.

80
Q

Explain the concept of a ‘durable power of attorney for healthcare.’

A

This document designates a person to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the patient if they become incapacitated.

81
Q

How should healthcare providers respond to a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?

A

Providers must verify the validity of the DNR and follow its directives without initiating resuscitation efforts.

82
Q

What are the legal implications of ignoring a valid advance directive?

A

Ignoring a valid directive can result in legal liability, disciplinary actions, and violation of patient rights.

83
Q

Under what circumstances can advance directives be overridden?

A

Advance directives can be overridden in cases of ambiguity, legal disputes, or evidence of the patient’s changed preferences.

84
Q

How do advance directives vary by state or region?

A

Laws governing advance directives differ in terms of required forms, recognition of out-of-state directives, and specific stipulations.

85
Q

Discuss the importance of documenting advance directives in patient care reports.

A

Proper documentation ensures directives are honored and provides a legal record of compliance with the patient’s wishes.

86
Q

What is ‘mandatory reporting’ in healthcare?

A

Mandatory reporting refers to the legal obligation to report certain conditions or incidents, such as abuse or infectious diseases, to authorities.

87
Q

Define ‘child abuse’ and explain the reporting requirements.

A

Child abuse includes physical, emotional, or sexual harm to a minor. Providers must report suspected cases to child protection services.

88
Q

How should healthcare providers handle suspected elder abuse?

A

Providers should document observations and report suspicions to adult protective services in accordance with state laws.

89
Q

What are the legal obligations for reporting domestic violence?

A

Reporting requirements vary by jurisdiction, but providers often must notify authorities or offer resources to victims.

90
Q

Explain the reporting requirements for infectious diseases.

A

Certain diseases must be reported to public health agencies to monitor outbreaks and ensure public safety.

91
Q

What protections exist for mandatory reporters?

A

Laws protect mandatory reporters from retaliation and liability when reports are made in good faith.

92
Q

Why is effective communication critical to reducing legal risks?

A

Clear communication prevents misunderstandings, ensures informed consent, and enhances patient satisfaction.

93
Q

Define ‘hearsay’ in the context of legal testimony.

A

Hearsay is an out-of-court statement presented as evidence, typically inadmissible unless meeting specific exceptions.

94
Q

How can documentation errors affect legal cases?

A

Errors undermine credibility and may be used as evidence of negligence.

95
Q

What is the best practice for correcting documentation errors?

A

Errors should be corrected with a single line through the mistake, initialed, dated, and accompanied by the correction.

96
Q

Explain the significance of time-stamping entries in patient care reports.

A

Time-stamping ensures chronological accuracy and provides a reliable record for legal and clinical purposes.

97
Q

What are the potential consequences of falsifying a report?

A

Falsification can lead to legal penalties, loss of licensure, and damage to professional reputation.

98
Q

Discuss the importance of objective language in medical documentation.

A

Objective language ensures clarity, reduces bias, and enhances the reliability of medical records in legal contexts.

99
Q

What is the legal importance of obtaining a witness signature on refusal of care forms?

A

A witness signature validates the patient’s decision and protects providers from liability.

100
Q

How should healthcare providers document patient refusals?

A

Providers should document the patient’s decision, the information provided about risks, and the refusal of care form details.

101
Q

Why is it important to record conversations with patients and family members accurately?

A

Accurate records ensure clear communication, support decision-making, and provide legal protection.