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NETS EMT > Chapter 3 Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues Flashcards

1
Q

What legal considerations apply when treating mentally ill patients?

A

Healthcare providers must respect patient autonomy, ensure informed consent, and follow protocols for involuntary treatment when patients pose a danger to themselves or others.

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2
Q

Define ‘restraint’ in the context of medical care.

A

Restraint refers to any physical, chemical, or mechanical method used to restrict a patient’s movement for safety purposes.

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3
Q

When is the use of physical restraint legally justified?

A

Physical restraint is justified when it is necessary to prevent imminent harm to the patient or others, and all less restrictive measures have been exhausted.

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4
Q

What are the risks of improper use of restraints?

A

Improper use can result in physical harm, psychological trauma, legal liability, and violation of patient rights.

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5
Q

How does legal responsibility differ when treating patients with disabilities?

A

Providers must comply with laws like the ADA, ensuring equal access to care, reasonable accommodations, and non-discrimination.

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6
Q

Define ‘risk management’ in healthcare.

A

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to improve patient safety and reduce liability.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of a quality improvement program?

A

The goal is to enhance patient outcomes, care quality, and operational efficiency by addressing systemic issues.

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8
Q

How can incident reports help mitigate legal risks?

A

Incident reports document adverse events, enabling analysis and prevention of future occurrences, reducing liability.

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9
Q

Explain the role of continuing education in reducing negligence claims.

A

Ongoing training keeps providers updated on best practices, reducing errors and improving patient care standards.

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10
Q

What steps can providers take to avoid liability?

A

Providers can avoid liability by maintaining accurate records, following protocols, obtaining informed consent, and ensuring effective communication.

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11
Q

What is the role of a healthcare provider as a witness in court?

A

Providers may serve as fact or expert witnesses, offering testimony based on their medical knowledge and patient interactions.

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12
Q

Define ‘subpoena’ and explain how it applies to medical records.

A

A subpoena is a legal document requiring the release of specific medical records or testimony in a court proceeding.

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13
Q

How should healthcare providers prepare for courtroom testimony?

A

Preparation involves reviewing records, consulting legal counsel, and ensuring clear, accurate communication.

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14
Q

What is the importance of truthfulness in legal proceedings?

A

Honesty is crucial to maintain credibility, avoid perjury, and uphold professional ethics.

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15
Q

How can providers protect themselves from legal action?

A

Maintaining thorough documentation, adhering to protocols, and fostering good patient relationships are key preventive measures.

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16
Q

What is an ethical dilemma in healthcare?

A

An ethical dilemma arises when conflicting values or principles make it challenging to determine the right course of action.

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17
Q

How should providers approach resolving an ethical conflict?

A

Resolution involves consulting ethical guidelines, seeking input from ethics committees, and prioritizing patient welfare.

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18
Q

Define ‘moral distress’ and its impact on providers.

A

Moral distress occurs when providers feel unable to act according to their ethical beliefs, leading to emotional and professional strain.

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19
Q

Explain the importance of ethical training for healthcare professionals.

A

Ethical training equips professionals to navigate complex situations, uphold standards, and make informed decisions.

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20
Q

Discuss the role of patient advocacy in ethical decision-making.

A

Patient advocacy ensures that care decisions respect patient preferences, rights, and best interests, supporting ethical practice.

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21
Q

Define ‘scope of practice.’

A

The ‘scope of practice’ refers to the procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare professional is permitted to perform based on their professional license and training.

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22
Q

What legal consequences can arise from practicing outside the scope of practice?

A

Practicing beyond the authorized scope can lead to legal penalties, including fines, loss of licensure, and potential civil or criminal charges.

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23
Q

Explain the importance of professional licensure in healthcare.

A

Licensure ensures that healthcare professionals meet standardized education and competency requirements, protecting patient safety and maintaining trust in the healthcare system.

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24
Q

What is the difference between certification and licensure?

A

Certification is a voluntary credential indicating expertise in a specific area, while licensure is a mandatory legal requirement to practice in a regulated profession.

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25
How do ethical principles guide decision-making in patient care?
Ethical principles, such as autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice, provide a framework for making patient-centered decisions that uphold dignity, safety, and fairness.
26
Define 'autonomy' in the context of medical ethics.
Autonomy involves respecting a patient's right to make informed decisions about their own care.
27
Explain the principle of 'beneficence.'
Beneficence is the obligation to act in the best interest of the patient, promoting their well-being and taking positive steps to improve their health.
28
What does 'nonmaleficence' mean in ethical decision-making?
Nonmaleficence means avoiding actions that could cause harm to the patient.
29
Define the concept of 'justice' in healthcare.
Justice in healthcare involves providing equitable care and distributing resources fairly among patients.
30
Why is cultural competence important in ethical patient care?
Cultural competence ensures that care respects the diverse values, beliefs, and practices of patients, fostering trust and effective communication.
31
Define 'abandonment' in patient care.
Abandonment occurs when a healthcare provider ends the provider-patient relationship without ensuring that appropriate alternative care is available.
32
What are the legal consequences of abandonment?
Legal consequences may include liability for patient harm caused by the lack of continuity in care.
33
Explain the concept of 'false imprisonment' in a medical context.
False imprisonment involves unlawfully restraining a patient without their consent or legal justification.
34
What is the definition of 'assault' in healthcare?
Assault is the threat or attempt to make physical contact with a patient without their consent.
35
How does 'battery' differ from assault?
Battery refers to the actual physical contact made without consent, while assault is the threat or attempt.
36
What is 'defamation,' and how can it occur in healthcare settings?
Defamation involves making false statements that harm a person's reputation, which in healthcare could occur through inappropriate comments about colleagues or patients.
37
Describe the legal concept of 'libel.'
Libel refers to written or published false statements that damage someone's reputation.
38
What is 'slander,' and how does it apply in healthcare?
Slander involves spoken false statements that harm another person’s reputation, which can occur through verbal gossip in healthcare settings.
39
Explain the term 'malpractice.'
Malpractice refers to professional misconduct or failure to provide the standard of care, resulting in harm to the patient.
40
What is the difference between malpractice and negligence?
Negligence involves failing to act as a reasonable person would in similar circumstances, while malpractice specifically pertains to professional duties and standards of care.
41
What is the role of medical direction in EMS?
Medical direction involves oversight and guidance provided by physicians to ensure that EMS providers deliver appropriate care.
42
Explain the difference between online and offline medical direction.
Online medical direction is real-time guidance provided during a call, while offline involves pre-established protocols and training.
43
Define 'delegation' in a medical setting.
Delegation is the assignment of specific tasks by a licensed professional to another healthcare worker, within their scope of practice.
44
What are the responsibilities of a healthcare provider when acting under delegation?
Providers must ensure they are qualified for the task, adhere to protocols, and report outcomes accurately.
45
Describe the importance of teamwork in preventing legal issues.
Effective teamwork ensures communication, prevents errors, and aligns care with legal and ethical standards.
46
What is the legal significance of following protocols?
Following protocols provides legal protection, demonstrating adherence to standard practices and minimizing liability.
47
What is the primary role of an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)?
To provide emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured, ensuring patient stabilization and effective care during transit.
48
What are the four levels of Emergency Medical Service (EMS) practice?
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR), Emergency Medical Technician (EMT), Advanced EMT (AEMT), and Paramedic.
49
What does the National EMS Scope of Practice Model define?
The minimum skills each level of EMS provider should be able to perform.
50
Why is continuing education important for EMS providers?
To refine knowledge, skills, and adapt to advancements in the healthcare industry.
51
What is the purpose of EMS certification exams?
To assess and verify the competencies required for safe and effective EMS practice.
52
Who regulates EMS certification and licensure?
Certification is typically regulated by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) or state-level agencies.
53
What is the purpose of the EMS Agenda 2050?
To develop a people-centered EMS system that integrates seamlessly with broader healthcare services.
54
What are some key aspects of patient assessment?
Understanding anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology to identify life threats and provide effective treatment.
55
What is scene size-up, and why is it critical?
A scene size-up involves assessing safety threats, resource needs, and the overall situation to ensure safe and effective response.
56
What does the term 'medical direction' mean in EMS?
Oversight provided by a medical director through protocols, training, and real-time guidance.
57
How does mobile integrated healthcare (MIH) benefit communities?
By providing accessible healthcare within the community and reducing reliance on hospitals.
58
What are the primary responsibilities of a medical director in EMS?
To develop protocols, ensure proper training, and oversee the quality of care delivered.
59
Why are data collection and information systems important in EMS?
They help improve patient outcomes, guide training, and justify funding or resource allocation.
60
What is Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)?
A proactive process of evaluating and enhancing EMS operations to ensure high-quality care.
61
How can EMTs minimize medical errors?
By following clear protocols, using checklists, and engaging in ongoing education and teamwork.
62
What are the primary sources of funding for EMS systems?
Taxation, fee-for-service models, donations, grants, and fundraisers.
63
How does public education contribute to EMS effectiveness?
It raises awareness about prevention, promotes safety practices, and fosters community respect for EMS services.
64
What is the difference between primary and secondary prevention in EMS?
Primary prevention prevents events (e.g., vaccinations), while secondary prevention reduces the impact of events (e.g., seat belts).
65
What is the role of EMS research?
To establish evidence-based practices that improve patient care and EMS operations.
66
What is HIPAA, and why is it important for EMTs?
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act ensures patient confidentiality and privacy.
67
What training is required for an Advanced EMT (AEMT)?
Training in advanced airway management, intravenous therapy, and limited medication administration.
68
What is the significance of the Highway Safety Act of 1966 for EMS?
It laid the foundation for modern EMS by addressing inadequacies in emergency care and transportation.
69
How does EMS integrate with the healthcare system?
By providing coordinated prehospital care and ensuring continuity during patient transitions to hospitals.
70
What is the role of EMS in disaster and mass casualty incidents?
To provide triage, stabilization, and transport while coordinating with other emergency services.
71
What professional attributes are essential for EMTs?
Compassion, professionalism, non-judgmental attitudes, and the ability to perform under pressure.
72
What is the role of medical direction in EMS?
Medical direction ensures EMS providers follow appropriate clinical guidelines, protocols, and receive medical oversight.
73
Explain the difference between online and offline medical direction.
Online medical direction involves direct communication with a physician during patient care, while offline direction refers to predefined protocols and training.
74
Define 'delegation' in a medical setting.
Delegation is the process by which a healthcare provider assigns specific tasks to another qualified individual under their supervision.
75
What are the responsibilities of a healthcare provider when acting under delegation?
Providers must perform tasks within their scope of practice, adhere to protocols, and communicate effectively with the delegating authority.
76
Describe the importance of teamwork in preventing legal issues.
Effective teamwork ensures clear communication, reduces errors, and fosters adherence to protocols, mitigating legal risks.
77
What is the legal significance of following protocols?
Adhering to protocols demonstrates compliance with standards of care, reducing liability and protecting providers from legal repercussions.
78
Define 'advance directive.'
An advance directive is a legal document specifying a patient’s preferences for medical care if they become unable to make decisions.
79
What is the purpose of a 'living will'?
A living will outlines specific medical treatments a patient wishes or does not wish to receive in life-threatening situations.
80
Explain the concept of a 'durable power of attorney for healthcare.'
This document designates a person to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the patient if they become incapacitated.
81
How should healthcare providers respond to a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?
Providers must verify the validity of the DNR and follow its directives without initiating resuscitation efforts.
82
What are the legal implications of ignoring a valid advance directive?
Ignoring a valid directive can result in legal liability, disciplinary actions, and violation of patient rights.
83
Under what circumstances can advance directives be overridden?
Advance directives can be overridden in cases of ambiguity, legal disputes, or evidence of the patient’s changed preferences.
84
How do advance directives vary by state or region?
Laws governing advance directives differ in terms of required forms, recognition of out-of-state directives, and specific stipulations.
85
Discuss the importance of documenting advance directives in patient care reports.
Proper documentation ensures directives are honored and provides a legal record of compliance with the patient’s wishes.
86
What is 'mandatory reporting' in healthcare?
Mandatory reporting refers to the legal obligation to report certain conditions or incidents, such as abuse or infectious diseases, to authorities.
87
Define 'child abuse' and explain the reporting requirements.
Child abuse includes physical, emotional, or sexual harm to a minor. Providers must report suspected cases to child protection services.
88
How should healthcare providers handle suspected elder abuse?
Providers should document observations and report suspicions to adult protective services in accordance with state laws.
89
What are the legal obligations for reporting domestic violence?
Reporting requirements vary by jurisdiction, but providers often must notify authorities or offer resources to victims.
90
Explain the reporting requirements for infectious diseases.
Certain diseases must be reported to public health agencies to monitor outbreaks and ensure public safety.
91
What protections exist for mandatory reporters?
Laws protect mandatory reporters from retaliation and liability when reports are made in good faith.
92
Why is effective communication critical to reducing legal risks?
Clear communication prevents misunderstandings, ensures informed consent, and enhances patient satisfaction.
93
Define 'hearsay' in the context of legal testimony.
Hearsay is an out-of-court statement presented as evidence, typically inadmissible unless meeting specific exceptions.
94
How can documentation errors affect legal cases?
Errors undermine credibility and may be used as evidence of negligence.
95
What is the best practice for correcting documentation errors?
Errors should be corrected with a single line through the mistake, initialed, dated, and accompanied by the correction.
96
Explain the significance of time-stamping entries in patient care reports.
Time-stamping ensures chronological accuracy and provides a reliable record for legal and clinical purposes.
97
What are the potential consequences of falsifying a report?
Falsification can lead to legal penalties, loss of licensure, and damage to professional reputation.
98
Discuss the importance of objective language in medical documentation.
Objective language ensures clarity, reduces bias, and enhances the reliability of medical records in legal contexts.
99
What is the legal importance of obtaining a witness signature on refusal of care forms?
A witness signature validates the patient’s decision and protects providers from liability.
100
How should healthcare providers document patient refusals?
Providers should document the patient’s decision, the information provided about risks, and the refusal of care form details.
101
Why is it important to record conversations with patients and family members accurately?
Accurate records ensure clear communication, support decision-making, and provide legal protection.

NETS EMT (8 decks)

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