Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ifsta Book > Chapter 3 Apparatus Safety > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Apparatus Safety Flashcards

1
Q

Standard for Fire apparatus driver operator professional qualifications has been established minimum qualification for apparatus driver operations.

A

NFPA 1002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Standard for Fire fighter professional qualification

A

NFPA1001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Standard for Fire apparatus driver operators professional qualification candidates must have successfully completed a FF1 course or equivalent

A

NFPA1002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Common skill a operator must have

A 
Reading skills 
Computer skills 
Writing skills 
Physical fitness 
Mathematical skills 
Visual acuity 
Adequate hearing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Standard on comprehensive occupational medical program for Fire departments provides Specific standards that contain information and specific Details on uncorrect division and diseases of the eye.

A

NFPA1582

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This NFPA stainer contains a list of frequencies that a driver operator must be able to hear and recommend rejecting a candidate who has hearing loss among these frequencies.

A

NFPA1582

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the United States this federal agency establishes a basic requirements for licensing a driver

A

Department of transportation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger while ignoring any potential consequences of so doing reckless disregard will not necessarily suggesting intent to cause harm is the harsher conditioned an ordinary negligence.

A

Reckless disregard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Breach of duty in which a person organization fails to perform at the standard required by law or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Willful and wanton disregard

A

Gross negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Driver operators Drive with do regard for the safety of others using the highways state vehicles codes provide and give special privileges to the operator or emergency vehicles however this does not relieve the operator from the duty and responsibility is to drive with do regard for the safety of others

A

Due regard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Perception of ones surrounding environment in ability to anticipate future events

A

Situational awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This organization reviews and publishers reports of concerning fire fighter fatalities including vehicle or accident

A

National Institute for occupational safety and health(NIOSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the seven basic causes that reflect The lack of do regard and situational awareness

A 
Improper backing 
Reckless driving
Excessive speed
Lack of driving skill experience overloading and miss use
Mechanical failure
Driver operator personal readiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Loss of breaking function which occurred due to excessive use of the brakes

A

Brake fade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

These two things do not reduce the potential for brake fade

A

Radial tires and ABS systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a study conducted by the society of automotive engineers it was determined that in ____% of all collisions the driver operator was not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct

A

42%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

These two NF PA standards establishes requirements for seatbelt use on the apparatus

A

1901-1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

While loading large diameter hose the driver of the apparatus will only move in a four direction straddling or to one side of the holes at a speed no greater than___mph

A

5mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What NF PA standard prohibits a fire fighter from riding Tailboard front bumper or running boards on any moving apparatus.

A

NFPA1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In what year did the apparatus become equipped with a diesel particulate filter

A

2007

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Failing to keep the DEF tank full my derate( reduce its torque output) the apparatus engine or limit the vehicle speed. After a driver operator continues to ignore an empty DEF tank the apparatus may be limited in speed to ___mph and will need to be serviced from the dealer.

A

5mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Force that tends to create a rotational or twisting motion. Measurement of engine shaft output. Force that reduces or tends to produce a twisting or rotational action.

A

Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This happens when the apparatus is shut down while in motion.

A

The fuel will be cut off from the injectors. Fuel flow through injectors is required for lubrication anytime the injector plunger is moving. Fuel pressure can build up behind the shut off valves and prevent the valves from opening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus

A

Angle of approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Angle formed by level ground in the line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus

A

Angle of departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheel base midpoint

A

Break over angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Object in motion tend to remain in motion objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force

A

Laws of inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Steering should be accomplished in a smooth and fluid motion rather than a series of multiple turns

A

Smooth and fluid motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

This can happen when there is to little weight on driving axles.

A

Poor traction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Way the apparatus after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that the actual loading is balanced within ____%from side to side and within the axle wait readings front to back

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

To prevent engine damage limit downhill speed___

A

To lower than max RPM

33
Q

Engine speed faster than the rated RPM can result in engine damage.

A

Driving down hill.

34
Q

This occurs when the throttle is applied with a manual transmission is in too high a gear for the demand on the engine. Ex: trying to accelerate while a vehicle is moving up a steep grade.

A

Engine Lugging.

35
Q

Process of injecting or supplying the diesel engine with more fuel that can be burned.

A

Overthrottling.

36
Q

There are ___ locations in the US where there is less than 100 feet following the railroad tracks. These sites account for an average of ___accidents annually.

A

19,824 locations

122 accidents

37
Q

It may take ____to____times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement

A

3-15

38
Q

Studies have shown that civilian drivers respond better to sounds that change pitch for example:

A

Short airhorn burst in the constant Upton down oscillation of an electronic or mechanical siren.

39
Q

At speed above ___mph in emergency vehicle can out run the effect of range of its audible warning device

A

50mph

40
Q

T or F: Sirens mounted on emergency vehicles operating at slower speeds project out much further.

A

True

41
Q

In some instances increasing the speed of an apparatus by ___miles an hour can decrease the audible distance by 250 feet or more.

A

20mph

42
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route they should travel at least ___to ___feet apart

A

300-500

43
Q

This generates an optical signal that is received by the traffic light as the apparatus approaches. The signal causes a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel in a red light in all other directions.

A

An Emitter.

44
Q

T or F: Always travel on the inner most lane on multilane roads wait for vehicles in front of the apparatus to move to the right before passing.

A

True

45
Q

T or F: avoid passing vehicles on the right side because drivers normally move to the right upon the approach of emergency vehicles.

A

True

46
Q

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an envasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is?

A

Visual lead time.

47
Q

The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.

A

Braking distance.

48
Q

The sum of the drivers operators reaction distance in the vehicles braking distance

A

Total stopping distance.

49
Q

The distance a vehicle travels while a driver transfers a foot from the Excelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.

A

Reaction distance.

50
Q

An uncontrolled slide across the surface in a wheeled vehicle.

A

Skid

51
Q

This usually occurs when the gas pedal is apply to quickly

A

Accelerated skid

52
Q

This type of skid is usually caused by braking too hard at a high rate of speed and locking the wheels. The vehicle was skid no matter which way the steering wheel his turn.

A

Locked wheeled skid

53
Q

What are the two common types of skidding

A

accelerated and locked wheeled skid

54
Q

T or F: to regain proper control ease off the brake to unlock the Drive wheels and then straighten the front wheels as the apparatus begins to respond to control

A

True

55
Q

This system minimize the chance of the vehicle skidding when the brakes are applied forcefully.

A

Anti-lock brake system(ABS)

56
Q

NFPA 1901 Requires that all apparatus with a gross vehicle weight rating(GVWR) of _______lbs or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.

A

36,000 lbs( 18000kg)

57
Q

What are the four types of auxiliary brakes to aid the foundation breaks in the slowing of the vehicle.

A

Exhaust brake
Engine compression brake
Transmission output retarder
Electromagnetic retarder

58
Q

The amount a retardation force available for an auxiliary braking system is a complex function of:

A

Vehicle speed,engine speed, temperature, and control strategy.

59
Q

These two types of auxiliary braking systems provide the highest level of breaking torque and are unaffected by transmission gearshift changes.

A

Transmission output retarders an electromagnetic retarders

60
Q

This type of auxiliary braking system multiplies there effectiveness through the transmission gearing and the brake torque work will increase as a transmission downshifts.

A

Engine brakes

61
Q

This type of brake uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust which creates back pressure that adds to the engines inherent braking ability also is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices.

A

Exhaust brake

62
Q

This type of brake is electronically actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train. This brake converts the mechanical energy of the vehicle into heat by compressing the engine intake air and then discharging the pressure to the atmosphere through the exhaust.

A

Engine compression brake

63
Q

This type of retarder is either mounted in the driveline or supplied as an integral part of the rear axle. When activated and electrical magnetic field is created by supplying electrical power to a series of coils in the retarder. This field inhibits the rotation of the rotor and create a braking torque at the rear wheels.

A

Electromagnetic retarders

64
Q

This retarder dissipate heat through cooling vanes into the surrounding air. Heat transfer becomes less efficient as the ambient temperature rises.

A

Electromagnetic retarders

65
Q

This type of retarder uses the viscous property of the automatic transmission fluid to retard to drive line. When activated the transmission fluid is introduced into the retarder housing and energy is absorbed into the fluid through the opposing action of spinning veins.

A

Transmission Output retarder

66
Q

This retarder system can provide high braking capacity but are limited in high ambient environment by the capacity of a vehicle cooling system

A

Transmission output retarder

67
Q

This type of traction control device automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin. This transfers torque to the wheels that still have traction which helps improve overall traction on slippery roads.

A

Automatic traction control( ATC)

68
Q

This type of locking system is to improve traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions such as snow or ice. This can be shifted while the vehicle is stationary or moving. When engaged both wheels are forced to turn at the same speed resulting in the differential being lot to maximize traction.

A

Driver control differential lock(DCDL)

69
Q

Tor F: Manufactures recommend that the differential lock be disengaged while traveling and turning downhill.

A

True

70
Q

This locking system allows for speed differences between the rear driving axles. The features allow the operator to lock out the inter axle differential action between the rear tandem driving axles creating one solid drive line between rear axles. This means each axle receives full torque from the engine.

A

Interaxle Differential lock

71
Q

These are designed to help prevent rollovers and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in directions.

A

Stability control systems

72
Q

What are the two stability control systems.

A

Roll stability control and electric stability control

73
Q

This becomes activated when the ABS computer senses an imminent rollover condition.

A

Roll Stability control

74
Q

This stability control device is a more capable system than RSC. Where RSC Merely slows the vehicle down ESC applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator position is the steering wheel

A

Electronic stability control

75
Q

Approximately how many feet should The spotter stand behind the apparatus.

A

8-10ft

76
Q

What should a driver operator do immediately before backing the apparatus?

A

Two short horn blast

77
Q

What NFPA standard specifies The number of practical driving exercises that the driver operator candidates should successfully complete before being authorized to drive apparatus on emergency calls.

A

NFPA 1002

78
Q

What speed should you maintain for deploying large diameter hose off the rear of the Apparatus

A

5mph

79
Q

What NF PA standard specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet.

A

NFPA 1901

Ifsta Book (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions