Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GOPH 375 > Chapter 3 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of earth material is prone to liquefaction?

A
  • artificial fill

- poorly consolidated sentiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The second type of seismic wave to reach a recording station after an earthquake is called a ____ wave.

A
  • shear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A seismometer must be installed in contact with ____.

A
  • bedrock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

P wave velocity depends upon the material through which the wave passes. Rank these materials from the fastest P velocity at the top

A
  • 1) granite rock
  • 2) packed sand
  • 3) loose sand
  • 4) water
  • 5) air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

To determine the _____ of an earthquake, seismologists use a nomograph, which compares the distance from the hypocentre and the amplitude of the seismic waves.

A
  • magnitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Seismic waves that pass through the interior of the planet are called ____ waves, whereas those that travel across the surface are called ____ waves.

A
  • body

- surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What phenomenon can cause liquefaction?

A
  • earthquake vibrations

- rapid loading with excess weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An earthquake occurs from the release of ____ when stress on a fault builds high enough for the rocks to fracture and move suddenly.

A
  • energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following describes a primary (P) wave?

A
  • moves in a push-pull fashion
  • the first to reach a recording station
  • can travel through any material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of these correctly describe the nature of surface waves?

A
  • slow moving

- low frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In which techtonic environment do deep earthquakes occur?

A
  • subduction zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a fault?

A
  • a fracture in bedrock along which sliding has occurred.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The velocity of P waves depends on the ____ and ____ of the material through which they pass.

A
  • density, compressibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Because of their low frequency and slow speed, surface waves carry ____ amounts of energy away from the epicenter.

A
  • large
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What phenomenon can cause liquefaction?

A
  • earthquake vibrations

- rapid loading with excdess weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An earthquake of Richter magnitude 3 had a S wave amplitude of 1.2mm. What is the Richter magnitude of an earthquake with a S wave amplitude of 12mm, recorded at the same seismograph station?

A
  • 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The two types of body waves are ____ waves and _____ waves.

A
  • primary

- secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The epicenter of an earthquake can be ____.

A
  • underwater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why does the difference in arrival times between P and S waves increase with epicentral distance?

A
  • P waves travel faster than S waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Place the four types of seismic waves in order of decreasing velocity, with the fastest at the top.

A
  • P waves
  • S waves
  • Love waves
  • Rayleigh waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What might people have experiences during an earthquake of intensity IV?

A
  • light sleepers woke up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In which techtonic environment do megathrust earthquakes occur?

A
  • subduction zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The acceleration due to gravity is ____, which is referred to as 1.0 g.

A
  • 9.8 m/sec2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Because their motion is up and down and side to side, ____ waves are the type of body wave that can do severe damage to buildings.

A
  • secondary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Love waves are a type of surface wave. They are similar to S waves in that they _____.

A
  • cannot travel through fluids but can travel through solid material.
  • travel with a shearing motion at right angles to their direction of advance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why was the 2010 Port-au-Prince earthquake so deadly?

A
  • the general population and decision-makers lacked awareness of earthquake risk
  • several buildings were poorly constructed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The rate of change in velocity of the ground as it is moved by seismic waves is called

A
  • acceleration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the main cause of earthquakes?

A
  • movements along faults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which sections of the San Andreas fault have the highest seismic risk?

A
  • locked zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A ____ is a planar feature where the two rock blocks on either side move past each other.

A
  • fault
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If, during an earthquake, you feel like you’re being rocked in a boat at sea, you are most likely feeling the passage of ____ waves.

A
  • Rayleigh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An earthquake occurring in which of the following geological environment will have the largest felt area?

A
  • in the continental interior of North America.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Earthquakes are caused by a sudden fault rupture occuring

A
  • at the hypocentre
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

P waves can travel through air, where they take the form of ____ waves.

A
  • sound waves
35
Q

How can you identify an aftershock?

A
  • an aftershock has the same hypocentre as the main shock.
36
Q

Acceleration during an earthquake is usually measured relative to ____.

A
  • acceleration due to gravity
37
Q

How many seismograms are required to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?

A
  • a minimum of 3 seismograms from different stations
38
Q

Charles Richter based his earthquake magnitude scale on the idea that _____.

A
  • the bigger the earthquake, the greater the shaking of the earth.
39
Q

What is the dominant deformation force associated with megathrust faults?

A
  • shear
40
Q

If a wave has a frequency of 20 Hz, what is its period?

A
  • 0.05 s
41
Q

What was the cause of the 2015 Nepal earthquake?

A
  • the collision between the Indian and Eurasian Plates
42
Q

Why are brace frames added to buildings?

A
  • to reinforce the building against horizontal motions
43
Q

Place the four types of seismic waves in order of decreasing velocity, with the fastest at the top.

A
  • P waves
  • S waves
  • Love waves
  • Rayleigh waves
44
Q

Why don’t the rocks on either side of a fault simply slide past each other when stress is applied?

A
  • friction holds the rocks together
45
Q

If ten waves are recorded by a seismometer in one second, their frequency is:

A
  • 10 Hz
46
Q

The acceleration due to gravity is ____, which is referred to as 1.0g.

A
  • 9.8m/sec2
47
Q

What is a fault?

A
  • a fracture in bedrock along which sliding has occured.
48
Q

The San Andreas fault is ____.

A
  • a complex system of subparallel transform faults.
49
Q

How can you identify an aftershock?

A
  • an aftershock has the same hypocentre as the main shock.
50
Q

If local soil conditions were the same everywhere, how would the intensity contours look like on an isoseismal map?

A
  • concentric circles
51
Q

P waves travel through air, where they take the form of ___ waves.

A
  • sound
52
Q

In the pendulum seismograph, the pen ___.

A
  • remains static with respect to the base
53
Q

An isoseismal map displays contours of ____.

A
  • intensity reported by eye witness.
54
Q

Can you estimate the depth of the main magma chamber beneath Kilauea Volcano, Hawaii?

A
  • 10 km
55
Q

acceleration

A
  • the rate of change of motion
56
Q

aftershocks

A
  • smaller earthquakes following a mainshock on the same section of the fault. Aftershocks can continue for years following a mainshock.
57
Q

amplitude

A
  • the maximum displacement above or below the undisturbed position; for example, the height of a wave crest or depth of a trough.
58
Q

arrival time

A
  • the time at which a seismic wave is detected by a seismograph
59
Q

base isolation

A
  • a system protecting buildings from earthquakes by isolating the base of the structure from the shaking ground via rollers, shock absorbers, etc.
60
Q

body waves

A
  • seismic waves that travels through the Earth. Primary (P) waves and secondary (S) waves are body waves.
61
Q

creeping zone

A
  • a section of fault where seismic energy is released frequently in small to moderate earthquakes.
62
Q

felt area

A
  • an area of perceptible earthquake ground motion.
63
Q

foreshocks

A
  • smaller earthquakes that precedes a mainshock on the same section as a fault.
64
Q

fractures

A
  • a general term for any breaks in rock
65
Q

hertz (Hz)

A
  • a unit of frequency. One hertz (Hz) equals one cycle per second.
66
Q

inertia

A
  • the property by which matter will remain at rest unless acted on by an external force.
67
Q

isoseismal maps

A
  • maps that uses contour lines to represent areas of equal Mercalli intensity.
68
Q

liquefaction

A
  • the temporary transformation of water-saturated loose sediment into a fluid typically caused by strong earthquake shaking
69
Q

locked zone

A
  • a section of a fault that has not released seismic energy for along time
70
Q

mainshock

A
  • the largest earthquake in a sequence.
71
Q

megathrust earthquakes

A
  • very large earthquakes that occur when stress accumulates at the contact between a subducting plate and overriding plate.
72
Q

natural frequency

A
  • the frequency at which a mechanical system (e.g. a soil, a building) vibrates when disturbed.
73
Q

period

A
  • the length of time for a complete cycle of waves to pass; period = 1/frequency
74
Q

primary (P) wave

A
  • the first seismic wave to reach a seismometer. movement is by alternating push-pull pulses that travel through solids, liquids, and gas.
75
Q

resonance

A
  • a vibrating body moves with maximum amplitude when the frequency of an imposed external forcing function is the same as its natural frequency
76
Q

retrofitting

A
  • reinforcing or strengthening an existing building or other structure.
77
Q

secondary (S) wave

A
  • the second seismic wave to reach a seismometer. Movement occurs by shearing particles at right angles to the directing of propogation. S waves move through solids only.
78
Q

seism

A
  • an earthquake
79
Q

seismic waves

A
  • a general term for all vibrations generated by earthquakes
80
Q

seismic-gap method

A
  • a theory that states that earthquakes are expected next along those fault segments that have not moved for the longest time.
81
Q

seismograms

A
  • the records made by a seismograph
82
Q

seismology

A
  • the study of earthquakes and the Earth’s interior, based on the analysis of seismic data.
83
Q

seismometers

A
  • instruments hat detect Earth motions
84
Q

surface waves

A
  • seismic waves that travel along the Earth’s surface only. Love and Rayleigh waves are surface waves.

GOPH 375 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions